Midterm 3/Final Flashcards

1
Q

what is the etiology of reperfusion injury?

A
  • osmotic overload
  • pH paradox
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2
Q

how does osmotic overload cause reperfusion injury?

A
  • large increase in number of small molecules in the cytoplasm increases osmolarity from 300 mOsm/l to 400 mOsm/l
  • causes water to enter the cell making them swell and rupture
  • intracellular organelles also swell and rupture
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3
Q

how do the number of small molecules in the cytoplasm increase with reperfusion?

A
  • breakdown to ATP -> ADP + Pi
  • breakdown of phosphocreatine -> creatine + Pi
  • breakdown of glycogen to lots of lactate molecules
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4
Q

what is the pH paradox?

A

rapid reperfusion causes further harm
- reperfusion washes away extracellular H+, creating a gradient for H+ to leave the cell (NHE1 - Na+/H+ exchanger)
- H+ in the cell inhibits Na/K-ATPase
- [Na+] in cell goes up, driving NCX to bring in Ca2+
- increased Ca2+ causes Ca2+ overload causing 1) activated proteases and 2) mitochondrial Ca2+ overload
- ultimately causes cell death

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5
Q

how does subendocardial ischemia present as a diastolic injury current?

A
  • causes elevated (depolarized) RMP in injured subendocardium
  • causes diastole to be more depolarized than systole (elevated T-Q segment)
  • atrial depol. and ventricular repol. elevated (less potential difference between endo and epi)
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6
Q

how does subendocardial ischemia present as a systolic injury current?

A

occurs when ischemic injury prevents normal depolarization (Vepi > Vendo)
- net flow of positive charges is away from electrode during systole, displaying S-T depression

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7
Q

what is a transmural infarct? how does it show on ECG?

A

dead tissue from subendo to subepi
- some endocardial depol persists due to increased preconditioning in endocardium
- shows as S-T elevation (gradient towards electrode during systole)

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8
Q

what ECG changes are present with myocardial infarction?

A
  • heightened T waves
  • followed by T wave inversion (altered directionality of repolarization)
  • ST segment elevation due to injury current
  • deep Q waves
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9
Q

what serum changes occur during myocardial infarction?

A
  • lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
  • creatine kinase (CK)
  • Troponin I (TnI)
  • cardiac myosin-binding protein C (CmyC)
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10
Q

how does TnI detect MI?

A

TnI:
- calpain degrades TnI
- blood TnI levels raise during infarct

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11
Q

what is preconditioning?

A
  • repeated brief, mild ischemia
  • multiple angina episodes may offer protection
  • almost every insult (reduction in blood flow) in life offers protection
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12
Q

how does repeated brief, mild ischemia offer protection?

A
  • increased Katp activity
  • increased vasodilator metabolites (adenosine, CO2, hypoxia)
  • release of NA, bradykin, opioids (activate G proteins, protein kinases (PKC, PI3-K))
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13
Q

what is postconditioning?

A
  • restarting the flow in brief bursts rather than all at once
  • short bursts of reperfusion produce the least damage
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14
Q

what consists of the upper and lower respiratory tracts?

A

upper:
- nasal cavity
- pharynx
- larynx
lower:
- trachea
- bronchi

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15
Q

what are the functions of the respiratory system?

A

1) gas exchange
2) conditioning inspired air
- warming and moisturizing
- filtering particles >10 um
3) secretion of mucus
- clear debris from airways
- host defense (immunoglobins, inflammatory mediators
4) filter small emboli from the blood (reduce blood clots)
5) secrete surfactant and ACE
6) acid-base balance of blood (CO2-HCO3- buffering)
7) vocalization at the larynx
8) olfaction (nerve endings in the roof of nose extend from olfactory epithelium to bulb)
9) heat loss

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16
Q

what makes up the physiological dead space?

A
  • anatomical dead space: conducting airways
  • alveolar dead space: alveoli that are ventilated but not perfused
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17
Q

what generations make up the conducting airways? have cartilage? have alveoli?

A
  • conducting = 1-16
  • cartilage = 1-10
  • alveoli = 17-23
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18
Q

what makes up the respiratory epithelium in the conducting airways?

A
  • goblet cells (make mucus, secrete mucin - lubrication, chemical barrier, virus protection) - present as
    ~ every 5th cell in epithelial layer
  • submucosal glands (secrete water, ions, mucus, bactericidal compounds)
  • sol layer (allows free movement of cilia)
  • mucus layer (traps airborne particles)
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19
Q

how do goblets change in smokers?

A

increases with smoking (why you have more mucus)

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20
Q

when does respiratory epithelium lose submucosal glands and goblet cells? how does airway epithelium change with size of conducting airway?

A
  • submucosal glands and goblet cells absent after gen 11-12 (at bronchioles)
  • airway epithelium thins in small conducting airways
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21
Q

what is the function of cilia? of microvilli?

A

cilia:
- trap particles
- contain ATPase thought to mediate beating motion (active movement of wafting particles up mucus elevator)
- sweep mucus out of airways
microvilli:
- brush cells
- increase surface area for secretion

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22
Q

how does air move within airways?

A
  • by convection (air moves from high to low pressure areas) in conducting airways
  • by diffusion in alveolar airways
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23
Q

what are type I alveolar pneumocytes?

A
  • flat, elongated, 95% of alveolus surface
  • primary site for gas exchange
  • fused to endothelium (to vasculature)
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24
Q

what are type II alveolar pneumocytes?

A
  • small, cuboidal, 2% of alveolus
  • synthesize surfactant
  • can replicate if alveoli are damaged
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25
Q

what are type III alveolar pneumocytes?

A
  • brush cells found throughout lung
  • closely associated with nerves
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26
Q

what are Pores of Kohn?

A

inter-alveolar pores and canals (connect alveoli together)
- allow gas diffusion between alveoli and bronchioles (especially if an alveoli is congested)
- prevent alveolar collapse due to surface tension

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27
Q

where do the lungs receive their entire CO from? what are the 2 pulmonary blood supplies?

A

RV
1) pulmonary artery carrying deoxygenated blood supply
2) large airways receive dedicated bronchial artery supply (to keep tissues alive)

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28
Q

what are properties of the pulmonary artery blood supply?

A
  • provide blood to pulmonary capillaries - enhanced gas exchange, single file RBC passage
  • 750 ms transit time for each RBC
  • very close to alveolus (short diffusion distance)
  • like a sheet of blood surrounding alveoli
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29
Q

what are properties of the bronchial artery blood supply?

A
  • oxygenated blood supply to bronchioles
  • 1/3 drains to bronchial veins (RA)
  • 2/3 drains to pulmonary veins (LA)
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30
Q

how is pulmonary vasculature different than systemic?

A
  • pulmonary arteries and arterioles are thinner and larger in diameter than in the systemic circulation -> increases compliance of pulmonary circulation
    1) can contain large volume of blood
    2) reduces pulse pressure
    3) distensibility protects against edema
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31
Q

how do pulmonary pressures differ from systemic pressures (mm Hg)?

A
  • pulmonary a. vs aorta: 15 vs 95
  • start of capillary: 12 vs 35
  • end of capillary: 9 vs 15
  • LA: 8 vs 2
  • net driving P: 7 vs 93
    pulmonary vasculature = low pressure system (highly compliant b/c receive blood from whole body at a lower P)
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32
Q

what is the pulmonary blood volume? how can it change?

A

~10% (500mL) of total blood volume
- can decrease by 50% or increase by 200% -> due to capillary recruitment

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33
Q

what is the driving force for convection?

A

difference between atmospheric (Pb) and alveoli pressure (PA)

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34
Q

what is Boyle’s Law? how is it relevant in breathing?

A

when temperature and mass are constant, P is inversely proportional to V
- changes in the volume of the lungs during inspiration and expiration generate the pressure changes required for ventilation

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35
Q

what muscles are recruited during quiet inspiration?

A
  • diaphragm (increases thoracic volume)
  • external intercostals (lift rib cage/lifts ribs up)
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36
Q

what muscles are recruited during forced inspiration?

A
  • diaphragm
  • external intercostals
  • scalenes (lift first 2 ribs)
  • sternocleidomastoids (lift sternum)
  • neck and back muscles (trapezius)
  • upper respiratory tract muscles (reduce airway resistance)
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37
Q

what muscles are recruited during quiet expiration?

A

none - passive process

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38
Q

what muscles are recruited during forced expiration?

A
  • abdominal muscles (rectus abdominus, external obliques)
  • internal intercostals (pulls ribs down)
  • neck and back muscles
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39
Q

what nerves innervate the inspiratory muscles?

A
  • traps and SCM: C1-C2
  • diaphragm: C3-C5
  • scalenes: C4-C7
  • external intercostals: T1-T12
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40
Q

what nerves innervate the expiratory muscles?

A
  • internal intercostals: T1-T12
  • abdominal muscles: T6-T12
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41
Q

how would different spinal cord injuries affect breathing (above T12, above C5, above C3)?

A
  • above T12: will influence respiratory function (ex. during exercise - difficulty recruiting muscles)
  • above C5: inspiration dependent on accessory muscles
  • above C3: requires artificial ventilation
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42
Q

what makes up the intrapleural space? what is inside it?

A

space between parietal pleura (stuck to chest wall) and visceral pleura (stuck to lungs)
- filled with pleura fluid (allows lungs to slide over chest wall, sticks lungs to chest wall)

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43
Q

what kind of pressure is in the intrapleural space? why?

A

negative pressure
- counters elastic recoil of the alveoli + keeps the alveoli open
- becomes more negative towards end of inspiration, where recoil reaches maximum
- elastic recoil of lungs pulls visceral pleura inwards, chest wall expanding moves parietal pleura outwards -> countering forces make Pip negative

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44
Q

how does alveolar pressure change during the respiratory cycle?

A

when air is not moving, Palv=Pb (atmospheric)
- at the beginning/end of inspiration/expiration, Palv=0=Pb
- negative during inspiration
- positive during expiration

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45
Q

what is a pneumothorax?

A

puncture of pleural space; air enters the intrapleural space, making it no longer negative
- lung collapse, alveoli collapse = atelectasis

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46
Q

what is lung compliance (distensibility)? what is it determined by? what happens when compliance is decreased?

A

ease with which the lungs can expand under pressure
- compliance = change in V/change in P
- determined by elastin and collagen fibres in lung parenchyma -> lung inflation elongates these fibres, exerting more elastic force/recoil so lungs revert to initial size following distension
- decreased compliance = increased resistance to distension (inflation)

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47
Q

what is hysteresis?

A

more pressure is needed to open an airway than for it to collapse; lung inflation has to overcome:
- elastic recoil
- surface tension
- collapsed alveoli have high surface tension and less surfactant
inspiration is active, expiration is passive

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48
Q

what is emphysema? how does it affect compliance?

A

increased compliance (expiration difficult)
- easier to inspire but reduced stored elastic energy -> creates active expiration
- smoking: causes immune system to release elastase, breaking down elastin

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49
Q

what is fibrosis? how does it affect compliance?

A

decreased compliance (inspiration difficult)
- particulate matter (ex. from bad air quality) triggers immune response -> macrophages
- macrophages secrete growth factors causing proliferation of fibroblasts, which increase collagen deposition

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50
Q

what is LaPlace’s Law?

A

P=2T/r
- inward pressure trying to collapse a bubble
- it will take twice the inspiratory pressure to keep a small alveolus open compared to one twice as large

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51
Q

why don’t alveoli collapse?

A
  • mechanical tethering: alveoli tend to open their neighbours during lung expansion
  • alveoli contain surfactant: reduces surface tension
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52
Q

what is surface tension?

A

occurs at an air-fluid interface, fluid molecules create an inward directed pressure

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53
Q

what is the composition of surfactant? how does it work?

A

surface active agent
- 90% lipid (hydrophobic)
- 10% protein (hydrophilic)
- hydrophilic heads pull strongly upwards on h2o molecules, reducing the net force on h2o molecules to move into bulk water
- hydrophobic tails prevent surfactant from going deeper into water; exert counter-force that pull surfactant upward towards the air

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54
Q

why is it important that surfactant reduces surface tension?

A
  • minimizes the tendency for small alveoli to collapse -> maximizes surface area for gas exchange
  • increases compliance and decreases elastic recoil so the lungs are easier to inflate
  • keeps the alveoli moist
  • minimizes fluid accumulation in alveoli (prevents pulmonary edema)
  • maintains alveolar size
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55
Q

how does alveolar surface tension affect compliance?

A

reduces compliance
- surface tension is responsible for most of the lung’s elastic recoil

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56
Q

how does surfactant equalize alveolar expansion?

A

prevents different alveoli from expanding at different rates
- in rapidly expanding alveoli, surfactant becomes more dispersed -> increases surface tension and slows down expansion

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57
Q

what is infant respiratory distress syndrome? what is its etiology? what are its symptoms? what are its treatments?

A
  • most common for births <28 weeks; reduced/absent surfactant (high surface tension)
  • shortness of breath (high breathing rate), lungs are stiff and hard to inflate (alveoli collapse in exhalation)
  • treated with high O2 + humidity, artificial ventilation, artificial surfactant
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58
Q

what are the pressures of the respiratory cycle?

A
  • Pip (intrapleural pressure): always negative, driven by thoracic volume (how much the chest wall moves)
  • Ptp (transpulmonary pressure): reflects elastic recoil of the lungs, determined by VL (more VL = more recoil)
  • PA (alveolar pressure): equal to atmospheric pressure (Pb) when flow stops
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59
Q

what equation connects all the relevant pressures?
what is the flow of air equal to?

A

PA = PIP + PTP
- PTP = PA - PIP = 0 - (-4) = 4 mmHg
V (flow) = change in P (PA)/Raw (airway resistance)

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60
Q

what to the segments on the pressure-volume loop represent?

A
  • 0AECD: total mechanical work of inspiration (PxV)
  • 0ABCD: inspiratory work to overcome elastic resistance (to stretch the lungs) = potential energy available for passive expiration
  • AECB: inspiratory work to overcome non-elastic resistance (airway resistance)
  • ABCF: energy required to overcome resistance to airflow during expiration
    if ABCF is less than 0ABCD, expiration can be passive (stored energy is enough to expire)
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61
Q

how does restrictive lung disease affect the P-V loop?

A

ex) pulmonary fibrosis (tissue stiffens)
- decreased compliance
- increased work of breathing
- shallow and faster breathing

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62
Q

how does obstructive lung disease affect the P-V loop?

A

ex) asthma or bronchitis (inflammed tissue)
- increased resistance
- increased inspiratory work
- increased expiratory work
- deeper and slower breathing

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63
Q

what is Poiseuille’s Law?

A

airway resistance (Raw) is proportional to viscosity of gas and length of tube, and inversely proportional to the fourth power of radius
Raw = 8nL/pir^4
- for laminar flow

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64
Q

what is the primary site of airway resistance?

A

large bronchi
- bronchi are in series -> resistance sums

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65
Q

what is Reynold’s number? what is turbulent flow? what is transitional flow?

A

Re (turbulence) = 2rvd/n
- 2000 < Re < 3000 = transitional flow (generations 1-6)
- Re > 3000 = turbulent flow -> trachea during cough (gen 0, high velocity, large air flow)

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66
Q

what factors influence airway resistance?

A
  • lung volume: decreased volume = increased resistance
  • mucus: decreases airway calibre
  • edema: decreases airway calibre
  • density of the air: increases when diving -> increases turbulence
  • smooth muscle contraction/relaxation
  • local effects of CO2
  • cold/hypoxia
    calibre = distensibility
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67
Q

what is the mechanism of bronchodilation?

A

sympathetic nerves release NA/A onto bronchial membrane
- NA/A bind to B2-adrenergic receptors, activates Gs pathway (increased AC, increased ATP -> cAMP -> activates PKA -> phosphorylates PLB -> disinhibits SERCA -> faster Ca2+ re-uptake -> faster relaxation)
- faster relaxation = bronchodilation

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68
Q

what are the mechanisms of bronchoconstriction?

A
  • histamine is released and binds H1 receptors on bronchial membrane -> activates Gq -> activates PLC -> increases IP3 -> SR Ca2+ release -> bronchoconstriction
  • vagus nerve releases ACh on M2-muscarinic receptors on bronchial membrane -> activates Gi -> inhibits AC pathway -> bronchoconstriction
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69
Q

how does CO2 have local effects in the upper airways?

A

upper airways may have CO2 chemoreceptors
increased upper airway CO2 (hypercapnia):
- increased ventilation
- decreased airway resistance (dilates airways)
decreased upper airway CO2 (hypocapnia):
- increased airway resistance
- particular in asthmatics

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70
Q

how does cold air and hypoxia affect airway resistance?

A
  • increased secretion
  • decreased mucociliary clearance
  • pulmonary vasoconstriction
  • decreased chemosensitivity
  • decreased ventilation
  • bronchoconstriction
  • airway congestion -> increased resistance
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71
Q

what is tidal volume?

A

amount of air moving in and out during normal quiet breathing
- 500 mL

72
Q

what is inspiratory reserve volume? what is inspiratory capacity

A

IRV: amount of air able to be inspired beyond tidal volume
- 3000 mL
IC: TV + IRV
- 3500 mL

73
Q

what is expiratory reserve volume? what is residual volume?

A

ERV: amount of air that can be exhaled beyond tidal volume
- 1100 mL
RV: amount of air we can’t breath out
- 1200 mL

74
Q

what is vital capacity? what is functional residual volume? what is total lung capacity?

A

VC: normal working range of lungs (everything but residual volume)
- 4600 mL
FRC: ERV + RV
- 3000 mL
TLC: everything
- 6400 mL

75
Q

how do you calculate minute ventilation? what is a normal volume?

A

TV (500mL) x frequency of breathing (15 breaths/min) = 7.5 L/min

76
Q

what volumes can not be measured using spirometry?

A
  • RV
  • FRC
  • TLC
77
Q

how can you measure anatomical dead space?

A

N2 washout:
1) normal quiet inspiration with 100% O2
- fills entire dead space with O2
- some O2 mixes with alveolar air
2) expire through an N2 meter
3) Vdeadspace = blue area x total volume expired/yellow area + blue area = 150 mL
blue area = conducting airways; yellow area = alveoli

78
Q

what is a normal alveolar ventilation rate?

A

frequency x (TV - dead space)
12 x (500 - 150) = 4200 mL/min

79
Q

how can you measure physiological dead space?

A

comparing arterial and expired CO2
- perfused alveolar PCO2 = arterial PCO2
- mixed expired PCO2 = PCO2 from perfused alveoli diluted by air from non-perfused alveoli

80
Q

what are the features of a flow-volume loop?

A
  • peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
  • RV, TLC
  • FVC (forced vital capacity - TLC -> RV)
  • FEF25, FEF50, FEF75
    FEF=forced expiratory flow at 25, 50, 75% of FVC
81
Q

how does PEFR change with effort? how does VL affect expiratory flow?

A
  • PEFR increases with effort
  • first ~20% of expiration is effort independent
  • at low VL, expiratory flow rates converge regardless of effort -> expiratory flow is effort independent and flow limited
  • caused by increased airway resistance at low VL and positive Pip compressing airways
82
Q

what is the equal pressure point?

A

airway pressure = transpulmonary pressure
- moves toward alveoli with low lung volume and increased airway resistance
- increased transpulmonary pressure cannot flow because airway compression matches driving force
- usually in cartilagenous airways

83
Q

how does emphysema change the flow-volume loop? restrictive lung disease? obstructive lung disease?

A
  • emphysema: shifts loop to the left
  • restrictive (ex. pulmonary fibrosis): similar FEV1, reduced volumes
  • obstructive (ex. asthma): reduced FEV1, larger lung volumes
84
Q

what is peak expiratory flow rate? what is it affected by?

A

peak flow; represents the greatest flow rate during a maximal exhalation - FVC
- age, sex, height, weight

85
Q

how is perfusion related to cardiac output? what does perfusion depend on?

A

blood flow through the lungs is equal to CO (CO = SV x HR = MAP/TPR) ; depends on:
- sympathetic, parasympathetic, hormones
- EDV, contractility, compliance, VR
- plasma volume, mean systemic filling pressure
- Poiseuille’s Law (radius) -> alpha and beta adrenergic receptors, ANG II, endothelin, ACh, NO, histamine

86
Q

how do hydrostatic effects affect perfusion? what are the hydrostatic pressures at the base, middle, and apex of the lungs?

A

gravity has hydrostatic effects -> when upright, gravity is going to cause increased blood flow to the base of the lungs relative to the apex
- greater resting blood flow at base vs apex
- base: >25/8 mmHg
- middle: 25/8 mmHg
- apex: <25/8 mmHg

87
Q

what is zone 1 of perfusion?

A

apex; does not occur in normal physiology (certain conditions ex) hemorrhage)
- PA>Pa>Pv
- capillary blood flow is completely stopped because the alveolar pressure is greater than the arteriolar pressure of the whole capillary
- alveoli is compressing neighbouring capillaries

88
Q

what is zone 2 of perfusion?

A

apex to midlung; Pa>PA>Pv; pressures on the arteriole side are still low and pressures on the venular side are still negative
- arteriolar end has positive transpulmonary pressure, causing vessel to dilate
- top of zone 2: pulsatile flow -> systolic capillary pressure is greater than alveolar pressure (not diastolic), therefore flow is only during systole
- bottom of zone 3: target for recruitment -> pressures increase by 1 cm h2o for each cm down towards the base, opening and dilating vessels

89
Q

what is recruitment? what is an example for a stimulus of recruitment?

A

the conversion of a closed vessel (or open but not conducting) to a conducting one by increasing Pa and Pv
- stimulus: exercise

90
Q

what is zone 3 of perfusion?

A

middle; transpulmonary pressure is positive throughout the vessel, dilating it; Pa>Pv>PA
- top of zone 3: continuous flow
- bottom of zone 3: hydrostatic pressures of Pa and Pv increase -> perfusion increases towards the base of the lung because of increased dilation (distension) of the alveolar vessel, decreasing resistance and increasing flow

91
Q

what is zone 4 of perfusion?

A

base; Pa>Pv>PA; contains extra-alveolar vessels
- vessels collapse despite high pressures
- extra-alveolar vessels have a less negative intrapleural pressure -> reduced distension force (less of a suction pulling them open)
decreased flow in extra-alveolar pressures

92
Q

why is there decreased vascular resistance in pulmonary circulation?

A

passive changes:
1) recruitment
2) distension

93
Q

how does recruitment decrease pulmonary vascular resistance?

A

the greater the perfusion pressure, the more open and conducting vessels there are
- lower flow pathways conduct more blood
- collapsed vessels are forced open with small pressure rises (maintains slow, less resistance flow)

94
Q

how does distension decrease pulmonary vascular resistance?

A

once all vessels are open, further decreases in resistance due to vessels dilating (occurs when pressure is already high)
- increases in pressure distend the vessel, occurs with large pressure rises

95
Q

how does perfusion of alveolar vessels change with the cardiac cycle?

A
  • systole + inspiration: capillary pressure is positive, alveolar pressure is negative -> pulmonary vessels expand during systole
  • diastole + expiration: capillary pressure is less positive, alveolar pressure is more positive -> pulmonary vessels are compressed during diastole
96
Q

how does resistance in alveolar vessels change in response to lung volume?

A

alveolar vessels are compressed as alveoli expand and lung volume increases

97
Q

how does resistance in extra-alveolar vessels change in response to lung volume?

A

with increasing lung volumes, the more negative intrapleural pressure pulls extra-alveolar vessels open
- at the end of inspiration, intrapleural pressure is negative + suction forces will distend in the extra-alveolar vessels and the resistance will decrease

98
Q

how does hypoxia affect perfusion? how is it different to systemic hypoxia? what is the mechanism behind this?

A

alveolar hypoxia - PAO2 <70mmHg
- vasoconstricts pulmonary vessels directly adjacent, increases resistance + decreases flow
- opposite to hypoxic effect in systemic vessels
- shuts down flow to under-ventilated alveoli; greater hypoxia = greater vasoconstriction (graded response)
- mechanism may involve chemoreceptors: mitochondrial O2 sensor in VSM; decreased O2 -> decreases H2O2 from mitochondria -> Kv channel inhibition -> depolarizes VSM -> Ca2+ entry -> contraction

99
Q

how does hypercapnia affect perfusion? how is it different to systemic hypercapnia? what is the mechanism behind this?

A
  • vasoconstricts pulmonary vessels
  • opposite to systemic circulation, less potent than hypoxia
  • may act by decreasing pH -> local effect on pulmonary VSM
100
Q

how does the ANS affect perfusion?

A
  • sympathetic = decreased compliance, stiffens vessel wall
  • parasympathetic = mild dilation
  • small effects on pulmonary vasculature
  • large effects on airway resistance (airway smooth muscle) -> bronchioles can bronchiodilate/constrict
101
Q

how do metabolic factors affect perfusion?

A

least effective
- NO = vasodilator
- B-adrenergic agonists = dilators
- a-adrenergic agonists = constrictors

102
Q

what forces in the capillary are for fluid efflux? fluid influx? what is the net force favouring?

A

efflux forces (29 mmHg):
- capillary hydrostatic P = 7 mmHg
- interstitial hydrostatic P = -8 mmHg
- interstitial fluid oncotic P = -14 mmHg
influx forces (28 mmHg):
- plasma oncotic P = -28 mmHg
net efflux = 1 mmHg

103
Q

how does the net efflux pressure in pulmonary capillaries regulate capillary fluid exchange in the lung?

A

net efflux 1 mmHg = 20 mL/hour of fluid leaving capillary
- most enters lymphatics to prevent edema
- little amount enters alveolus to make it moist (evaporates)

104
Q

what is the total ventilation rate? what is the alveolar ventilation rate?

A
  • Ve = TV x frequency of breathing = 6.0-7.5 L/min
  • VA= (TV-Vd) x frequency of breathing = (500mL - 150 mL) x 12 /min = 4.2 L/min
    alveolar ventilation rate ~ 70% of total ventilation rate
105
Q

how can we measure alveolar ventilation rate from alveolar CO2 (PACO2)? what is the alveolar ventilation equation?

A
  • the body produces ~200mL/min CO2 from oxidative metabolism (VCO2), alveolar ventilation removes this CO2
  • the relationship between VA and VCO2 is described as the alveolar ventilation equation:
    VA = VCO2*k/PACO2
    PACO2=PaCO2
106
Q

what happens when VA is sufficient, insufficient, or in excess?

A
  • sufficient: PaCO2 is normal (40 mmHg)
  • insufficient (not enough ventilation): PaCO2 rises (>40 mmHg) -> hypercapnia due to hypoventilation
  • excess (too much ventilation): PaCO2 falls (<35 mmHg) -> hypocapnia due to hyperventilation (breathing off too much CO2)
107
Q

why does exercise have a higher curve, ie have a higher VCO2?

A
  • metabolic rate increases, CO2 production increases, higher PACO2
  • more likely to portray hypoventilation b/c not offloading CO2 fast enough to combat rising CO2 levels
108
Q

how does increasing alveolar ventilation affect PAO2 and PACO2?

A

as VA increases, PAO2 and PACO2 approach their values of inspired air (PiO2, PiCO2)

109
Q

how does the alveolar ventilation equation explain the effects of hypoventilation?

A

200 mL CO2/2.1 L alveolar air x 0.863 = 80 mmHg
- hypoventilation increases PACO2 -> not enough ventilation to offload 200 mL CO2 in sufficient time -> causes respiratory acidosis

110
Q

how does the alveolar ventilation equation explain the effects of hyperventilation?

A

200 mL CO2/8.4 L alveolar air x 0.863 = 20 mmHg
- hyperventilation decreases PACO2 -> offloading CO2 too much -> causes respiratory alkalosis

111
Q

what is Dalton’s Law?

A

total pressure of gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its constituents

112
Q

what are the partial pressures of the gases in atmospheric air?

A

Pb = PCO2 + PO2 + PN2
PO2 = 0.21 x 760 = 160 mmHg
PCO2 = 0.0003 x 760 = 0.23 mmHg
PN2 = 0.78 x 760 = 593 mmHg

113
Q

how does barometric pressure and saturation of air with water affect partial pressures?

A
  • as barometric pressure decreases (ex. with altitude), partial pressures decrease
  • saturated air with water decreases partial pressures of other gases (ex. PO2)
114
Q

what is the alveolar gas equation? why does it give the value it gives?

A

PAO2 = PiO2 - PACO2/R
- PiO2 = 150 mmHg
- PACO2 = 40 mmHg (~ PaCO2)
- R = respiratory quotient; ratio of CO2 excreted to O2 consumed, depends on the metabolic substrate (carbs R = 1.0; lipids R = 0.7; usually R = 0.8)
PAO2 = 100 mmHg

115
Q

how does ventilation change from apex to base? why does this occur?

A

ventilation increases from apex to base due to gravity and posture
- at FRC, intrapleural pressure less negative at the base so alveoli are underinflated and more compliant
- a given change in intrapleural pressure during inspiration produces a greater change in lung volume near base vs apex

116
Q

what is the a) ventilation b) flow and c) V-Q ratio of the entire lung?

A

a) V = 4.2 L/min
b) Q = 5 L/min
c) V-Q = 0.8

117
Q

how does the V-Q ratio change from base to apex? how do these values change?

A

V-Q ratio increases from base to apex
- Q has a more dramatic decrease from base to apex than V
- over-ventilation in the apex (high V-Q) ratio -> increased PAO2 and decreased PACO2

118
Q

what happens when there is no perfusion? how is this compensated for?

A

due to pulmonary emboli, V-Q is increased (more ventilation, less perfusion)
- alveolar air PO2 rises and PCO2 falls
compensation:
- perfusion to other lung tissue increases
- decreased PCO2 = bronchoconstriction = decreases ventilation
- decreased perfusion = type II alveolar cells decrease surfactant secretion = decreased ventilation

119
Q

what happens when there is no ventilation? how is this compensated for?

A

due to obstructed airway, V-Q is decreased (less ventilation)
- alveolar PO2 falls and PCO2 rises
compensation:
- increased ventilation of healthy lung
- hypoxia/hypercapnia = VSM constriction = decreased perfusion of blocked airways

120
Q

what is Fick’s Law of Diffusion?

A

Vnet = DL x (P1-P2)
- Vnet = movement of gas
- DL = diffusion capacity of the lungs
- P1-P2 = driving force = Palveolus - Pcapillary)

121
Q

what are determinants of diffusion capacity?

A
  • Graham’s Law: rate of diffusion of a gas through a liquid is inversely proportional to the square root of its MW
  • Henry’s Law
  • tissue thickness
  • diffusion distance (includes liquid barriers; ex. fluid in the lungs increases diffusion distance)
122
Q

what is Henry’s Law?

A

concentration of gas dissolved in a liquid depends on its solubility and partial pressure
- solubility is higher at lower temperatures
- if alveolar capillary temp <37 degrees -> solubility decreases as blood warms deeper in circulation -> air emboli (gas evaporates into circulation)

123
Q

what cardiopulmonary characteristics promote gas exchange?

A
  • large surface area of alveoli and capillaries in close proximity minimizes diffusion distance
  • thin epithelial/endothelial layers to minimize thickness of tissue barrier to diffusion
  • substantial partial pressure differences
124
Q

when and where is diffusion of O2 highly favourable?

A
  • during inspiration -> increases surface area and decreased tissue thickness
  • greatest PAO2 at apex of lungs -> largest diffusion gradient
  • diffusion is greatest at the beginning of the capillary (arteriolar end) where PO2 is lowest and PCO2 is highest, and decreases along the capillary length
125
Q

what are the diffusion steps of O2 moving from alveolar air to a RBC?

A
  • alveolar O2 encounters water layer
  • diffusion through cytosol of membranes of alveolar type I (pneumocyte) epithelial cell
  • cross a thin interstitial space
  • diffuses into blood plasma through the endothelial membrane
  • diffuses into erythrocyte (RBC) and binds to Hb
126
Q

how can carbon monoxide be used to determine diffusion capacity?

A

1) maximum inspiration from residual volume of 0.3% CO
2) hold breath for 10 s (allows Vco to diffuse into blood)
3) expiration
4) measure expired PAco
- the greater the reduction in CO the greater the diffusion capacity
5) calculate DLco

126
Q

why is nitrous oxide perfusion limited?

A

equilibriates fast (~10% distance of capillary) because it doesn’t bind Hb
- only requires saturation of plasma and RBC cytosol
- ie fewer N2O molecules required to reach equilibrium

127
Q

how do we know that O2 is not diffusion limited?

A
  • high diffusion coefficient
  • partial pressure gradient is the driving force for O2
128
Q

why is O2 perfusion limited?

A
  • 1/3 through capillary (within 250 msec) partial pressure of arterial O2 (PaO2) matches the alveolar partial pressure of O2 (PAO2)
  • rapid equilibration implies that diffusion does not act as a limiting factor, supporting the classification that O2 exchange perfusion is limited
129
Q

what is the transit time for RBCs from start to end of capillary?

A

750 msec

130
Q

why is carbon monoxide (CO) diffusion limited?

A

Because capillary PCO fails to reach alveolar PCO at the end (no equilibriation)
- CO entering the RBC binds tightly to Hb
- the [CO]DISSOLVED (and
therefore Pco) hardly changes across the pulmonary capillary
- by the end of the capillary there is still a substantial relative gradient of CO from the alveolar air to the blood (ΔP)

131
Q

how does exercise limit O2 exchange?

A
  • increased CO -> decreased pulmonary capillary transit time (~250 msec)
  • since transit time is decreased, it takes longer for PAO2 to match PaO2 (ie further down the capillary)
  • increased CO -> recruitment and distention -> increased surface area -> increased DL
132
Q

how does altitude limit O2 exchange?

A
  • lower PbO2, decreasing the diffusion gradient of O2 (aka the driving force)
  • takes longer for PAO2 to match PaO2 (ie further down the capillary)
133
Q

what factors influence diffusion/perfusion limitation?

A
  • DL
  • Hb concentration
  • pulmonary artery gas partial pressure (beginning of capillary)
  • CO
  • capillary length and diameter
134
Q

how is oxygen transported? how much of it is delivered? how much is consumed? how much is extracted?

A

1) dissolved in plasma and RBC cytoplasm (2%)
2) bound to Hb (98%)
- delivered O2 = 1.03 L O2/min
- consumed O2 = 0.2 L O2/min
- extracted O2 = 0.2/1.03 = 20%

135
Q

what is the structure of hemoglobin?

A
  • iron atom + porphyrin ring = heme group
  • 2 a and 2 B globin chains
  • histidine residue
  • binds up to 4O2
136
Q

what is sickle hemoglobin (HbS)?

A
  • genetic variation common in subsaharan Africa
  • mutation in B globin gene of Hb
  • causes polymerization of Hb
  • distorts cell into sickle shape -> occlude small vessels (sickle cell crisis)
  • prone to hemolysis (destruction of RBCs) -> hemolytic anemia
  • sickle cells resistant to parasites (protection from malaria)
137
Q

what is P50 on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve? what are normal values for a) PAO2 b) PaO2 c) PcO2?

A
  • P50 = 27 mmHg
    a) PAO2 = 103 mmHg
    b) PaO2 = 90-95 mmHg (~98% saturation of Hb)
    c) PcO2 = 40 mmHg
138
Q

what does a right shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve entail?

A

greater P50
- higher partial pressures @ 50% binding of Hb at typical PO2 saturation (lower saturation of Hb)
- unloading more of the O2 from Hb into those tissues
- increasing delivery of O2 to tissues, favours offloading

139
Q

what does a left shift of the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve entail?

A

lower P50
- 50% Hb saturation at lower PO2
- high degree of saturation
- Hb still bound to O2
- delivered less O2 to tissues
- disfavours delivery of O2 to tissues

140
Q

how does pH affect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve? how does CO2? what is this called?

A

decreased pH = RIGHT SHIFT (acidosis)
- reduced Hb saturation at given PO2
- decreased affinity aids O2 release in metabolically active tissue
increased CO2 = RIGHT SHIFT
- reduces Hb saturation
THE BOHR EFFECT: decrease in O2 affinity due to acidosis and increased CO2

141
Q

how does temperature affect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?

A

increasing temp = RIGHT SHIFT
- increased O2 released at tissues during exercise
- high temp reduces O2 affinity of Hb

142
Q

how does diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) affect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve? what is it?

A

increasing 2,3-DPG (exercise, anemia, alkalosis, pregnancy) = RIGHT SHIFT
- metabolic intermediary that accumulates in RBCs due to anaerobic metabolism (RBCs have no mitochondria)
- competes with O2 for heme (reduces Hb affinity for O2)
- binding of 2,3-DPG to Hb destabilizes the interaction of Hb with O2, promoting O2 release

143
Q

how is CO2 transported in arterial blood?

A

1) 90% of CO2 is transported as bicarbonate (HCO3-) in RBCs (24 mM)
2) 5% of CO2 is transported dissolved in the plasma and RBC cytoplasm
3) 5% of CO2 is transported as carbamino compounds (ex. carbamino Hb)

144
Q

how is CO2 transported as HCO3-? what is the chloride shift?

A

CO2+H2O - carbonic anhydrase -> H2CO3 -> HCO3- + H+
- H+ buffered by plasma proteins or Hb
- buffering is not perfect; venous blood pH = 7.35 (carrying more CO2, shifting eq to right); arterial blood pH = 7.4
- HCO3- leaves cell in exchange for Cl- -> CHLORIDE SHIFT: H2O enters with Cl-, maintaining electrostatic and osmotic equilibrium

145
Q

how is CO2 transported in venous blood?

A
  • 68% HCO3- (63% coming from tissues into RBC, 5% in plasma)
  • 22% carbamino compounds
  • 10% dissolved CO2 in RBCs and plasma
146
Q

what is the Haldane effect?

A

deoxyHb transports CO2 better than oxyHb
- deoxygenated Hb has a greater affinity for CO2 and more readily forms carbamino Hb
- as Hb releases O2 at the tissues, more likely to pick up CO2
- at the lungs the high PO2 causes CO2 to unload more easily

147
Q

what factors increase CO2 carrying capacity?

A
  • increased PCO2 (Henry’s Law, increased HCO3-, increased carbamino Hb)
  • increased plasma protein concentration (increases pH buffering, drives HCO3- production)
  • increased plasma pH (increases HCO3-)
  • increased Hb concentration (increased carbamino Hb)
  • decreased O2 (increased carbamino Hb)
148
Q

what is the Henderson-Hasselbach equation? what does it tell us?

A

pH = 6.1+log([HCO3-]/0.03xPaCO2)
- when pH is disturbed, it is due to a change in [HCO3-] (metabolic) or PaCO2 (respiratory)

149
Q

what causes respiratory acidosis? how is it compensated for?

A
  • develops when lung gas exchange is impaired (ex. barbiturate drugs or diseases like pneumonia or emphysema)
  • increased PaCO2 increases H+ and HCO3-
    metabolic compensation:
  • increases renal H+ secretion, drives renal reabsorption of HCO3-
  • PaCO2 still elevated but acid disturbance is compensated
    high PaCO2, high HCO3-
150
Q

what are the mechanisms of renal H+ secretion and HCO3- absorption?

A
  • almost all tubular HCO3- is absorbed; basolateral membrane of nephron is permeable to CO2 which converts to HCO3- and H+ via CA
  • H+ moves across apical membrane into tubular fluid (is excreted) by different mechanisms (NHE, H+ pump)
  • increased H+ excretion drives HCO3- uptake into the blood (eq shifts to right)
151
Q

what causes respiratory alkalosis? how is it compensated for?

A
  • develops due to hyperventilation (ex. altitude, anxiety)
  • decreased PaCO2 decreases H+ and HCO3-
    metabolic compensation:
  • decreased renal H+ excretion, decreases plasma HCO3-
  • PaCO2 is still low but base disturbance has been compensated
    low PaCO2, low HCO3-
152
Q

what causes metabolic acidosis? how is it compensated for?

A
  • due to loss of HCO3- (ketoacidosis, diarrhea)
  • decreases HCO3- and increases H+
    respiratory compensation:
  • increased H+ stimulates peripheral (directly) and central (indirectly) chemoreceptors
  • stimulates ventilation and resulting hyperventilation reduces PaCO2; brings pH to normal levels
  • PaCO2 is low but acid disturbance has been compensated
    low PaCO2, low HCO3-
153
Q

what causes metabolic alkalosis?

A
  • due to loss of H+ (ex. vomiting)
  • decreases H+ and increases HCO3-
    respiratory compensation:
  • decreased H+ reduces chemoreceptor stimulation inducing hypoventilation
  • causes plasma CO2 retention and pH to fall back to normal
  • PaCO2 is high but base disturbance has been compensated
    high PaCO2, high HCO3-
154
Q

what are the 3 main areas of the central controller of ventilation?

A

1) medullary respiratory centre (essential)
2) apneustic centre (pons, modulatory, less understood)
- lengthens inspiration
3) pneumotaxic centre (pons, modulatory)
- shortens/inhibits respiration

155
Q

what are the groups of the medullary respiratory centre?

A

dorsal respiratory group
- nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS)
- process afferent input
- mainly efferent inspiratory neurons
- generate rhythmic activity
ventral respiratory group
- nucleus retroambiguus, retrofacialis, paraambiguous
- coordinate efferent output
- inspiratory and expiratory neurons

156
Q

how does rhythmicity work in the central control for ventilation?

A
  • inspiration: phrenic n. output to diaphragm over 0.5-2s (allows for smooth lung inflation)
  • expiration: after a brief burst, phrenic n. is inactive
157
Q

where are the central chemoreceptors? what do they do?

A
  • on ventrolateral surface of medulla
  • heavily influenced by H+ (sensitive to CO2, not O2)
  • neurons stimulated by acidosis tend to be serotonergic (excitatory)
  • neurons inhibited by acidosis tend to be GABAergic (inhibitory)
158
Q

how is ventilation dependent on CSF pH?

A
  • CO2 can cross BBB
  • CSF pH modulates ventilation
  • acidosis in CSF due to CO2 stimulates ventilation
159
Q

what are the peripheral chemoreceptors?

A

aortic and carotid bodies
- contain glomus cells

160
Q

what are the properties of aortic and carotid bodies?

A
  • high perfusion
  • respond to changes in PaO2, PaCO2, pH
  • only sensor for O2
  • responsible for ~40% of the ventilatory response for CO2
  • responsible for ~20% of ventilatory response to exercise
161
Q

what are the properties of glomus cells?

A

sense O2, CO2, H+
- increased H+ (CO2) -> K+ channel inhibition
- decreased PO2 causes O2-sensitive K+ channel inhibition
K+ channel inhibition causes depol, releasing NT
- afferent fibres relay to brainstem (carotid sinus n. from carotid body; vagus n. from aortic body)

162
Q

what is the mechanism of a) low PO2 b) high PCO2 and c) low pH on glomus cells? what is the net effect?

A

a) low PO2
- heme protein senses hypoxia -> O2 dissociates, reduces probability of K+ channel opening
- increases cAMP, inhibits K+ channel
- increases reduced glutathione, inhibits K+ channel
b) high PCO2 c) low pH
- increases H+ (NHE inactive b/c gradient is less), inhibits K+ channels
** causes depol., NT release onto glossopharyngeal nerve**

163
Q

what is the integrated response of central and peripheral responses to hypoxia and hypercapnia?

A

more sensitive to CO2 changes than O2 changes
hypoxia:
- increases ventilation via peripheral chemoreceptors
- increases ventilation changes to acidosis and PCO2
hypercapnia:
- increases ventilation via peripheral and central chemoreceptors

164
Q

what is the Hering-Breuer inspiratory inhibitory reflex?

A

negative feedback system that protects lungs from overinflation
- increase in lung volume stimulates bronchial mechanoreceptors -> stretch reflex mediated by vagus nerves
- results in termination of inspiratory drive at the medulla
- inactive during quiet breathing

165
Q

what is Cheyne-Stokes breathing? what is apneustic breathing?

A

Cheyne-Stokes:
- changing tidal volume and breathing frequency
- seen with some CNS diseases and in healthy people at altitude
apneustic:
- sustained periods of inspiration with only brief expiration
- due to loss of inspiratory inhibition control with CNS damage

166
Q

what is sleep apnea?

A
  • unusually prolonged pauses in breathing
  • long enough to change PaO2, PaCO2
  • either obstructive or central sleep apnea
167
Q

what is Ondine’s curse?

A
  • no automatic breathing control
  • congenital or result of brainstem trauma
  • cease ventilation when asleep
  • requires nocturnal mechanical ventilation or phrenic n. pacemaker
168
Q

what defines the extent of damage due to myocardial ischemia?

A
  • vessel affected
  • transmural location
  • location and extent of block
169
Q

how can a supply and demand mismatch cause myocardial ischemia?

A
  • anoxia (total O2 deprivation), hypoxia
  • decreases FFAs
  • decreased glucose
  • build up of metabolites (CO2, lactate, K+, H+)
170
Q

what are the consequences of ischemia?

A
  • decreased beta oxidation due to decreased O2 availability -> decreases ATP production
  • decreased glucose oxidation increases pyruvate conversion to lactic acid -> increased lactic acid decreases pH, causing acidosis
  • increases CO2 waste increases H+ -> decreases pH and causes acidosis
  • peroxidation of lipids (membrane and mito damage)
  • hypocontractility and increased incidence of arrhythmia
171
Q

what are the effects of acidosis and low ATP?

A

1) electrical remodelling
2) altered Ca2+ handling
3) reduced force of contraction

172
Q

how does acidosis cause electrical remodelling?

A

protons inhibit many ion channels; net effect:
- decreased Na+ channel, voltage-gated K+ channel, and Ca2+ channel activity

  • altered ion channel activity may be pro-arrhythmogenic, particularly if conduction pathways are affective (ex. bundle branches)
173
Q

how does acidosis alter calcium handling?

A
  • lowers systolic Ca2+: inhibition of Cav1.2 reduces Ca2+ entry; inhibition of RYR reduces SR Ca2+ release
  • increases diastolic Ca2+:
    • inhibition of NCX decreases Ca2+ extrusion
    • intracellular protons leads to Na/H exchange = increased Na+ = Ca2+ entry via NCX (reversal of NCX)
    • inhibition of SERCA reduces SR uptake of Ca2+
      net effect: cytoplasmic Ca2+ rises
  • but Ca2+ is elevated even during diastole, causing tonic contraction (contraction during diastole)
  • elevated Ca2+ activates protease enzymes (ex. Calpain), causing protein breakdown
174
Q

how does acidosis reduce force of contraction?

A

hypocontractility (reduced force of contraction):
- decreased myofilament Ca2+ sensitivity - need more Ca2+ to produce contraction (TnC)
- decreased cross-bridge cycling (decreased ATPase activity)

175
Q

what are the effects of ischemia on Na+ and K+?

A

decreased Na-K-ATPase activity (decreased ATP and increased H+ - directly reduces ATPase activity)
- extracellular K+ accumulation causes Ek and RMP to become more depolarized
- intracellular Na+ accumulation reverses NCX activity, causing Ca2+ entry
net effect:
- elevated intracellular Na+, elevated extracellular K+, and elevated RMP
- increased excitability - proarrhythmic