Midterm 3 Flashcards

1
Q

p53 is a ________

A

tumor suppressor

transcription factor

no cancer cell has an in tact p53 pathway

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2
Q

how is p53 induced?

A

stress signals such as hyperproliferative signals, dna damage, telomere shortening, and hypoxia induce stable, active p53 to induce cell-cycle arrest, senescence, and apoptosis

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3
Q

roles of p53

A

tumor supressor
prevents proliferation of damaged cells by enforcing cell cycle checkpoints

if DNA damage is detected it initiates the DNA repair pathway

if damage/stress is prolonged or severe it promotes programmed cell death (apoptosis)

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4
Q

p53 turns on gene that destroys itself, why?

A

so that in the absence of stress signals it is not present and doing its thing

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5
Q

mdm2

A

ubiquitin ligase protein product of gene that ubiquitilizes p53

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6
Q

what do stress signals do to keep p53 on?

A

they activate stress kinases that phosphorylate p53 which makes it so that mdm2 can’t ubiquitlate it

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7
Q

cells that are p53 null and experience DNA damage _____

A

survive. this is bad because you want to see them get killed so they do not spread their damage

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8
Q

In 50% of all human tumors, p53 is lost. What does this result in?

why are these cancers resistant to chemo?

A

There is no way to prevent damaged cells from proliferating because cell cycle arrest and apoptosis are p53 dependent

these cancers are resistant to chemotherapy and radiation because they are unable to stop replicating

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9
Q

in unstressed (wild type) cells p53 protein is maintained at _______

A

very low levels. won’t come up on a western blot

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10
Q

in stressed cells p53 protein _______

A

accumulates. stress kinases phosphorylate p53 which interferes with p53 binding to mdm2. it sends p53 into nucleus where it acts as a transcription factor and suppresses tumor

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11
Q

how does phosphorylating p53 prevent mdm2 from ubiquitylating it?

A

alters the 3D shape of the mdm2 binding domain so that mdm2 can’t promote its degradation

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12
Q

HCT 116

A

human colon cancer cell line. p53wt, mutant ras, and mutant B catenin

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13
Q

CPT

A

camptothecin inhibits DNA topoisomerase, induces DNA breaks, triggers apoptosis. It is plant-derived, and a common chemotherapeutic

it is the stressor in the western blot on the slides

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14
Q

alpha-Am

A

peptide toxin produced by mushrooms, it inhibits RNA polymerase which triggers p53 mediated apoptosis

in western blot it served as proof that p53 was phosphorylated in response to stress

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15
Q

p21

A

broadest cdk inhibitor – it can arrest progression of the cell cycle no matter where we are in the cell cycle

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16
Q

first thing p53 does

A

trans-activates p21, triggering cell cycle arrest

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17
Q

p53 and mdm2 have ________ ________ interactions

A

mutually inhibitory;

when stress no longer exists there needs to be at least a little bit of mdm2 to degrade p53 when it should no longer be stabilized (basically as one increases the other decreases)

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18
Q

most tp53 mutations are _________

A

missense mutations clustered in the DNA-binding domain

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19
Q

why are mutations in the DNA binding domain bad for p53 function?

A

since p53 cannot bind to the DNA effectively it cannot promote the expression of genes required for cell cycle withdrawal, DNA repair, or programmed cell death

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20
Q

what does it take to have a p53 mutant phenotype?

A

mutation in just one allele

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21
Q

p53 mutations are ________

A

dominant negative or interfering alleles

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22
Q

why are p53 mutations often dominant?

A

the odds that a tetramer contains on mutant subunit is extremely high. In a heterozygote only 1/16 of tetramers will have only wild type

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23
Q

Outcome when:

1) two normal p53 genes
2) homozygous recessive mutation
3) Heterozygous recessive mutation
4) Dominant negative mutation

A

1) both copies produce normal p53 protein chains that form the final protein
2) no p53 protein chains are produced
3) the normal copy produces normal protein chains that form a functional p53 protein
4) mutant gene produces abnormal protein chain that may assemble with normal p53 chains in a way that prevents a functional p53 chain from coming out

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24
Q

when you have overactive ras you also need ______ to form foci (bacterial cell transformation)

A

mutant p53

because you can’t just have an active oncogene to have its effect you need a defective tumor suppressor

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25
Q

Why do you need a mutant p53 (or more broadly tumor suppressor) to have successful oncogenic expression?

A

In wt cells oncogenic signaling up-regulates the transcription factor E2F which induces ARF.

ARF interferes with mdm2 so it leads to the stabilization of p53 and either arrest or apoptosis occurs

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26
Q

What is ARF induced by and what does it do?

A

induced by E2F and it interferes with mdm2 (sequesters it to the nucleolus) to stabilize p53 to cause arrest or apoptosis in defective cells

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27
Q

What does ARF stand for?

A

alternate reading frame

product of p16 gene which is a CDK inhibitor via an alternate reading frame

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28
Q

_____ and _____ tumor supressor proteins are produced by one gene because of _________

A

p16 & ARF

an alternate reading frame

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29
Q

p16

A

cdk inhibitor that prevents phosphorylation of Rb (which would not be able to restrain passage through the cell cycle)

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30
Q

how does oncogenic signaling promote p53 stabilization/cell cycle arrest/apoptosis? (pathway)

A

oncogenic signalling (c-myc ras or e1a) induces e2d which induces arf which stabilizes p53 which promotes oncogene induced apoptosis

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31
Q

when do tumors develop?

A

after a lag when ARF (or p53) is lost

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32
Q

arf ______ develop tumors much faster than _______

A

heterozygotes; homozygous wt

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33
Q

oncogenic pathways want to _______

A

stabilize mdm2

so that it will destroy p53

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34
Q

tumor suppressor pathways want to _________

A

stabilize p53

it wants to inhibit mdm2 from destroying p53

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35
Q

stress signals want to _________

A

stabilize p53

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36
Q

oncogenic signals want to _________

A

promote the interaction between p53 and mdm2

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37
Q

anything that antagonizes p53 promotes _______

A

survival! NOT proliferation (which is going through the cell cycle)

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38
Q

anoikis

A

epithelial cells that lose their attachment to the ECM undergo apoptosis

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39
Q

laddering

A

nuclease is activated and cuts genomic DNA at the linker region between nucleosomes, producing a ladder of fragments

happens during apoptosis (so do blebs)

found using FACS

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40
Q

FACS

A

treat cells with fluorescent dye that shows you amount of DNA per cell

shows you which are apoptotic because you will see that they have smaller pieces of DNA that will leak . The greater % of cells with sub G1 content of DNA the more apoptotic

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41
Q

apoptosis & phospholipid bilayer

A

membrane has negative charge on inside of cell (phosphotidyl serine)

when apoptosis happens the membrane breaks up and these negative charges will be on outside. the green flourescent dye hits this and lights up

just green early apop
green and red on mem end

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42
Q

cytochrome c

A

in intermembrane space huge death effector that activates hydrolytic enzymes

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43
Q

how is cyt c let out of the mitochondria?

A

the opening and closing of pores. they can oligermize

anti apoptotic keep the pores closed

pro keep them open

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44
Q

Bcl2 proteins

A

some antagonize p53. some are pro apoptotic. all have similar structure but can antagonize one another

not a classic oncogene but has oncogenic activities. it is a survival protein.

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45
Q

bcl2 and bclxl are ______

A

anti apop

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46
Q

bax and bak

A

pro apop

makes the pores want to open

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47
Q

bad, bim, bid and puma and noxa

A

pro apop bh3 only

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48
Q

_____ proteins are the crucial link between the apoptotic stimuli and mitochondrial cytochrome C release

A

BH3

they distract the anti apoptotic proteins by binding them. this allows the other pro apop (bax and bak) but not BH3 only ones to open the pores

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49
Q

______ and _____ open the pores to let cyt c out

A

bax and bak

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50
Q

caspases

A

they have a cysteine in their active site and cleave target proteins at aspartic acid

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51
Q

what cascade is in charge of the apoptosis program

A

caspase. they hydrolyze the cell in a controlled and irreversible fashion

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52
Q

describe flow of caspase cascade in apop

A

initiator caspase cleave and activate executioner caspases which cleave key proteins

the first initiator caspase step is the one most closely regulated. all have to be cleaved to become active

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53
Q

how is the initiator caspase activated?

A

cyt c! has to come out of mitochondria and form a complex with apaf1 = the apoptosome. this promotes apop by activating the first initiator caspase

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54
Q

apoptosome

A

apaf1 + cyt c

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55
Q

bcl2 apop mech

A

bh3 only bcl proteins distract the anti apop bcl proteins allowing for bax and bak to open the pore to let cyt c out into the cytosol. this binds with apaf 1 and forms a complex to become the apoptosome. this activates the initiator caspase

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56
Q

IAPs

A

inhibitors of apop inhibit caspases and some polyubiquinate them

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57
Q

T or F: any cell that sustains a mutation in one p53 allele becomes p53 inactive

A

T

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58
Q

what does E6 viral protein do?

A

expressed by hpv it binds to p53 and promotes its degradation

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59
Q

ways to inactivate p53

A
degradation
sequestration
deregulation of mdm2
deregulated "survival signaling" 
loss of stress kinases
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60
Q

sequestration

A

move the p53 to the cytoplasm/mess with its protein conformation so that it wont be let into the nucleus

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61
Q

cytoplasmic p53 is usually ______

A

wt

its just trapped where it cant do anything

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62
Q

nuclear p53 is usually ______

A

mutant

if you give a stressor like chemo it can kill cancer cells

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63
Q

why does deregulation of mdm2 inactivate p53?

A

it destroys p53

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64
Q

how does deregulated survival signaling inactivate p53?

A

messing with a piece of a pathway that impacts p53 in turn messes with p53

ex. if you delete PTEN, which down regulates the AKT pathway, you see an increase in AKT activity which increases mdm2 which impairs p53.

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65
Q

why would the loss of stress kinases impact the activity of p53?

A

p53 would not be active when there is a stress because mdm2 would be able to constantly degrade

ex no big brother to protect

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66
Q

mortal v immortal for cells

A

mortal = fixed number of growth cycles then they permanently stop dividing

immortal = infinite number of growth division cycle to acquire the successive genetic changes necessary for tumorigenesis

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67
Q

explain replicative potential at different stages of cell development

A

early in embryogenesis cells have unlimited replicative potential

when they commit to a cell lineage they get a pre-determined replicative potential

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68
Q

as organisms age their cells lose ____________

A

proliferative capacity

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69
Q

why is it that as organisms age their cells lose proliferative capacity?

A

it is a defense against cancer to ensure that a potentially neoplastic cell does not have enough replicative potential left to cause serious harm

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70
Q

Hayflick limit

A

he looked at cells from tissues from babies, adults, elderly and saw how long they would grow in the lab

what intuitively would be thought to happen happened

post serial passaging cells know when to stop dividing

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71
Q

primary cells vs cell lines

A

primary: direct from tissue

cell lines: meant to grow in lab. immortal but not normal cells because we selected for cells that grow regardless of stress

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72
Q

serial passaging

A

sub-confluent

reharvest cells and put them on fresh plate so that they aren’t contact inhibited

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73
Q

senescence

A

permanent non-dividing state

not even with a mitogen

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74
Q

what triggers senescence?

A

DNA damage, oxidative stress, chemotherapy, oncogenes

75
Q

why is senescence good?

A

if you’ve been dividing for 60 years and so many fuck ups have happened its probably good that you dont replicate and pass on your shit

76
Q

senescent cells still express __________ and need _____ to survive

A

growth factor receptors

growth factors

they just no longer proliferate in response to mitogenic signaling

77
Q

Overexpression of CDKIs promote _________

CDKS _______ it

A

senescence

block

78
Q

Stresses ______ CDKIs

A

upregulate

79
Q

Explain how CDKIs promote senescence

A

stresses upregulate p16/p21 (CDKIs) which promote senescence

80
Q

Levels of CDKIs _______ over time (aging)

81
Q

How do culture conditions of cells in the lab influence the onset of senescence?

A

epithelial cells grown on plastic see a dramatic increase in the amount of CDKI mRNA produced and stop dividing in comparison to epithelial cells grown on feeder fibroblasts

82
Q

cells that have escaped/avoided senescence often have _________

A

overexpressed CDK 4 or inactivating mutations in p16 CDKI

83
Q

what does the fact that cells that have avoided senescence often have overexpressed CDK4/inactivating mutations in p16 indicate?

A

senescence requires tumor suppressor activity

84
Q

to avoid senescence ____ and ____ pathways must be inactivated

A

p53 and pRb

85
Q

LT protein

A

DNA tumor virus protein that inactivates p53 and pRb

86
Q

if you plate human kidney cells with LT protein, what happens?

A

cells continue to grow indefinitely

87
Q

senescence associated beta galactosidase

A

can stain tissue with it and see how cells become more senescent over time

88
Q

how does chromatin appear in growing versus senescent cells?

A

growing: chromatin is dispersed
senescent: chromatin is in discrete foci

89
Q

SAHF

A

marker of senescene

stands for senescence associated heterochromatic foci. this requires Rb mediated chromatin remodeling of E2F target genes. Markers include H3K9me and Suv39h1 (histone methyl transferases

90
Q

phenotype of senescent cells

A

increase lysosomal sa-B-galactosidase
chromatin structural changes SAHF
senescence associated secretory phenotype (SASP)
production of cytokines chemokines and growth factors

proteases that shed membrane bound receptors cleave or degrade signaling molecules and degrade or alter the ECM

91
Q

why can senescence be bad for an organism?

A

when a cell becomes senescent it secretes cytokines chemokines and growth factors that can impact neighboring cells

autocrine and paracrine functions can occur that can be beneficial or detrimental

92
Q

what autocrine and paracrine functions of a senescent cell are bad?

A

SASP of senescent cells can cause normal less to lose optimal function —> tissue degradation

SASP can cause premalignant cells to proliferate and adopt more malignant phenotypes, leading to full blown cancer

93
Q

telomeres

A

preserve the chromosome ends

tandem hexanucleotides repeats (thousands of them) and associated proteins
- repeats are different in each species thats kinda fun!

94
Q

structure of telomere

A

double stranded region of telomeric DNA (5-10 kbp long)

single stranded 3’ overhang of G-rich strand of telomeric DNA (several hundred bases long)

ss loops around into double stranded end. can be targeted in therapeutics

95
Q

how do we know that telomeres shorten over cell proliferation?

A

we cut the DNA to be small enough to go into gel and do a southern blot. we see they get shorter as they divide

96
Q

the end replication problem

A

telomeres shorten with each S phase

because of the whole okazaki fragment thing where we need the RNA primer to be put down lol so we lose 50-200 bp DNA at each 3 prime end

these aren’t coding regions so they don’t impact our actual genetic passing on in each division

97
Q

what is the consequence of shortened telomeres?

A

eroded telomeres result in senescence which translates to aging in real life.

eventually when the telomores get so short and then we run out of telomeres they might do end to end fusion which causes senescence

98
Q

what happens when telomeres shorten to the point of unprotection?

A

cell will try to fix this by fusing the ends of the sister chromatids together. BUT THIS IS BAD. because when you try to go through mitosis again the centromeres will split because now you essentially have two causing a second breakage. then a new nonhomologous chromsome can get nice and comfy and try to fuse with the weird crazy chromsome that results.

tldr these crazy weird chromosomes happen from breakage-fusion-bridge repeat cycles

99
Q

dicentric chromsomes

A

when you have the fusion of the two ends to fix that the telomeres aren’t there and the centrosome is still in tact

100
Q

cancer cells escape crisis by expressing ________

A

telomerase

101
Q

telomerase

A

an enzyme which elongates and regenerates telomeres

in normal tissue we have it during early embryogenesis but then it gets silenced

102
Q

telomerase is elevated in _____ of human cancers

103
Q

you can override senescence/evade crisis by expressing ______

A

telomerase

104
Q

if you introduce a dominant negative telomerase (means that it will out-express native telomerase) into cancer cells, what happens?

A

telomeres start to shorten and they eventually stop dividing

105
Q

lag time correlates with _____

A

telomere length

106
Q

telomerase activity and prognosis in pediatric cancer

A

better outcome is telomerase activity is negative

converse also true

107
Q

in pediatric neuroblastoma, myc __________ telomerase

A

upregulates

myc is a transcription factor
the hTERT promoter has a myc recognition site

108
Q

DCIS

A

ductal carcinoma in situ

tldr 15% of these bois become cancer and scientists can’t tell which do. they have initiation but not completion of tumor development

details: larger number of pre malignant cells pass through results in considerable telomere erosion. they don’t upreg telomerase, they seem like they are done (went into senescence

109
Q

PIN

A

prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia

this is a precursor to prostatic carcinoma but many of the luminal epithelial cells lining the duct have lost telomeres while underlying basal epithelial cells have strong telomeric DNA signal

110
Q

shortening telomere length to a crucial length is detected as ______

A

DNA damage which creates stress response which could be senescence or apoptosis

111
Q

telomerase subunits

A

hTERT = human telomerase reverse transcriptase. synthesizes DNA from RNA template. has myc consensus sites that make it a transcriptional target of myc

hTR = human telomerase-associated RNA. RNA template that is required for it to work. Transfected with anti-sense and cells will lose telomeric DNA and begin to die after ~25 divisions
.
Processed in the spliceosome, previously thought to only process pre-mRNAs

112
Q

how does telomerase work?

A

replaces telomeres

it extends the end that already has the overhang and then DNA polymerase uses the extended part as a primer to start replicating so we don’t shorten

113
Q

TRAP assay

A

measures telomerase activity. telomerase extends the existing hexanucleotide repeat which after pcr amplification gives the ladder of bands

trap = telomeric repeat amplification protocol

if telomerase is present then films/bands would appear

if telomerase isn’t present then they would not

114
Q

what does seeing hTERT mRNA in a northern blot indicate?

A

that the telomerase genes are being expressed

115
Q

senescence requires ____ and ___

116
Q

karotypic chaos

A

due to breakage fusion bridge

when crazy combo chromosomes occur because of BFB

117
Q

TERT expression patterns

A

can be repressed or depressed if there are mutations in the regulatory region for the gene.

in normal cells it is unmethylated which favors repressor binding.

118
Q

what else besides telomere related things do telomerases do?

A

took metastatic melanoma cells from mice and downregulated telomerase expression. they stop proliferating and redifferentiate into melanocytes.

gene expression regulation, cell proliferation, apoptosis, wnt/b catenin signaling, nf-kb signaling, oncogenisis (myc driven), cell adhesion, cell migration, angiogenesis, epithelial mesenchumal transition (emt)

119
Q

promoter and reporter genes

A

promoters drive expression of reporter genes

120
Q

how does telomerase modulate WNT signaling?

A

tldr telomerase helps stabilize b catenin

the promoters for wnt targets such as cyclin D1 and myc drive expression of a reporter gene luciferase.

licl stabilizes b catenin by inhibiting gsk3b tert increases the activity of both promoters

121
Q

licl means _______

A

stabilize b catenin

122
Q

how does telomerase help stabilize b catenin?

A

by associating with brg1 a chromatin remodeler that is involved in WNT signaling

use CHIP

BRG1 is a chromatin remodeler known to be involved in WNT signaling and known to form a
protein complex with TERT

b catenin tert and brg1 all occupy myc and cyclin D promoters after b catenin is stabilized by licl

123
Q

CHIP = chromatin immunoprecipitation

A

see if transcription factors are binding to promoters

which proteins occupy a particular promoter

124
Q

what did chip analysis show about telomerase

A

myc and cyclin d have MORE occupation when you have TERT and BRG1 (chromatin remodeling protein)

125
Q

hallmarks of cancer

A

1) self sufficiency in growth signals
2) insensitivity to antigrowth signals
3) evasion of apoptosis
4) limitless replicative potential
5) sustained angiogenesis
6) tissue invasion and metastatis

126
Q

cancer metabolism: how is it a different strategy than our normal?

A

only 1% of glucose will be oxidated all the way down to ATP.

they basically do non-oxidative phosphorylation to make all of the other shit that is necessary for many cells like amino acids fatty acids etc.

127
Q

cancer cells express more ____ and _____ in comparison to normal cells

A

GLUT1 (glucose) and Pk-M2 which diverts pyruvate to LDH rather than PDH to do oxidative phosphorylation

128
Q

Pk-m2

A

different pyruvate isoform that allows for all of this stuff to go into non-aerobic metabolism

but back up happens like
traffic where it goes slower

129
Q

cancer incidence increases as we ___

130
Q

___ increase in lung cancer smokers compared to non smokers

131
Q

relationship between cancer incidence and carcinogen exposure

A

duration of exposure determines onset, regardless of age. exposure raises rate of tumor progression orders of magnitude above spontaneous rate

132
Q

histopathology provides evidence of _______

A

multi step tumor formation

133
Q

in situ

A

in place

cancer didn’t cross basal lamina yet and cannot infiltrate underlying tissue, enter bloodstream, or metastasize to distant sites

134
Q

benign polyps are _______ to ________

A

precursors; dangerous invasive cancers

135
Q

wide majority of cancers are result from ____

A

loss of apc

136
Q

steps to colon cancer (apc pathway)

A

Loss of APC–>DNA hypomethylation–>activation of KRas—>loss of p53

137
Q

how is cancer development like darwinian evolution (clonal succession)

A

first cell gets a mutation that starts cell toward hyperplasia. then it proliferates maybe more or faster. then another mutation happens etc. these mutations could provide an advantage and be selected for

creates large population

138
Q

____ + _____ leads to tumor progression

A

mutations and epigenetic mechanisms

initiation –> promotion –> tumor progression

139
Q

how do tumor cells complicate the darwinian evolution theory?

A

not all cells have same proliferative capacity

some tumors can contain small groups of cells that are cancer stem cells

only some eventually time out of division

means that some must revert back to stem cells for it to keep dividing indefinitely

140
Q

explanation for how a cell could infinitely divide other than darwinian theory?

A

that differentiated (transit amplifying) cells revert back to stem cells in mutation

OR all mutations are in stem cells only

141
Q

transit amplifying (progenitor) cell

A

committed to a particular differentiated state but continue to divide. descendents will be committed

142
Q

FACS analyses to determine how tumors happen (and determine between theories post darwin)

A

fluorescence activating cell sorting (sort cells based on fluorescence

intratumor heterogeneity is the mixture of genetically distinct regions in a single tumor

143
Q

intratumor heterogeneity suggests

A

not all cells within a tumor are as tumorigenic

144
Q

how can we tell tumor formation is a multi step process

A

epidemiology –> population studies

pathology –> we can visualize cells when they are in each of the stages

genetics –> we can see different mutations correspond to different phases

145
Q

what happens when activated ras gene is expressed in primary cells?

A

proliferation but not transformation

when we got taught about ras causing tumors in lab before it was because those were in cell lines that already lost their tumor suppressors

146
Q

transformation usually requires _____

A

2 or more mutant genes collaborating

ex. focus formation and tumorigenicity required a ras like and a myc like oncogene in rodent cells

147
Q

what does ras cause?

what does myc cause?

A

ras: anchorage independence, loss of contact inhibition, morphological changes
myc: immortalization, growth factor independence

148
Q

mice experiments that show tumorigenicity in myc only ras only and the combo

A

the combo had tumor phenotype much more apparent much earlier. then loss of ras alone was bad then loss of myc.

LAG OCCURS DUE TO LOSS OF P53

149
Q

What is the lag in the mice myc, ras, combo experiment caused by?

A

loss of p53

150
Q

what are the 5 pathways needed to mess up to have cancer in humans?

A
ras
pRb
p53
telomeres
PP2A
151
Q

A. hTERT + SV40 LT

A
  1. Rb, p53 inactivation, = immortalization

2. Then Ras can transform them

152
Q

PP2A

A

holoenzyme with multiple subunits (C catalytic, A scaffold, B substrate)

removes phosphates that kinase adds

(kinases tend to promote proliferation so these bois normally prevent prolif but if you fuck them up we get cancer)

153
Q

what is the reason that rodents only need 2 mutations but humans need 5 mutations to get cancer?

A

because there must have been some evolutionary benefit to tumor suppression that we received because our life span is longer

154
Q

tumor progression model: initiators and promoters

A

initiators are mutagens
promoters are non-mutagenic agents = mitogens, cytotoxins, and the inflammatory response

if cells sustain DNA damage but don’t proliferate rapidly, it will take a very long time to get them to be a tumor.

so initiators do the damage BUT promoters give you the conditions to proliferate

155
Q

evidence for initiator promoter model

A

in mouse
DMBA is initiator
croton oil is the promoter

if you apply DMBA to mouse skin, you don’t see anything

if you apply croton oil you see irritation but no tumor

if you apply both you see tumors

*must be initiated and promoted in the SAME spot

156
Q

example of initiator and promoter model in humans

A

smoking and drinking

both together lead to 100x increase of mouth and throat cancer

smoke = initiator
alcohol = promoter it is a toxin which kills epithelial cells and promotes stem cells to regenerate in epithelium (this is for hard liquor
157
Q

another example of initiator and promoter model in humans

A

hormones are mitogenic agents and can function as tumor promoters

the periodic stimulation of mammary epithelial cell proliferation under the control of progesterone prolactin and estrogen appears in breast cancer

158
Q

chronic inflammation creates a _______

A

chronic proliferative environment

159
Q

inflammation symptoms

A

redness
warmth
pain
swelling

because immune system cells charge the affected region in the acute phase

failure to resolve in the acute phase causes chronic inflammation

160
Q

nf-kb & its pathway

A

transcription factor that is sequestered in the cytoplasm by its inhibitor (ikb).

Signaling promotes phosphorylation and degradation of the inhibitor which allows it to travel to the nucleus and transcribe target genes (similar to b catenin)

ikk is the kinase that phosphorylates the inhibitor (stimulated by all the immune factors like tnf-alpha il1beta lps ros)

targets of this pathway are anti apoptotic and pro proliferative

rarely mutated but often constitutively activated in cancer cells
-because it is more about sequestration than anything else

161
Q

_____ is a key mediator of the inflammatory response

A

tnf-alpha

was one of the responses to irritants in the mouse example where we painted on the skin

162
Q

people who took aspirin had ___________

A

reduced risk of cancer

163
Q

animal model chronic inflammation example

A

mdr = multiple drug resistance pump, if upregulated cells become resistant to chemo, cells collect bile acids, and chronically inflame.

mdr pump is essential to protecting the hepatocytes from the bile acide

Mdr -/- is a mouse animal model with chronic liver inflammation, leading to hepatic dysplasia and HCC
-immune cells that infiltrate release tnfalpha and other hepatocytes are activated by paracrine actions –> nfkb pathway

164
Q

mdr pump _____ hepatocytes from ______

A

protects; bile acids and chronic inflammation

165
Q

in presence of ______ loss of nfkb signaling results in _______ of pre-neoplastic hepatocytes

A

inhibitors

apoptosis

166
Q

what does the idea that in the presence of inhibitors loss of nfkb signaling resulting in apoptosis of pre-neoplastic hepatocytes indicate for inflammation’s role in cancer?

A

that tumor-promoting activity of inflammation is the suppression of apoptosis

167
Q

chronic inflammation: _____ is always on/secreted which induces ___ pathway

A

tnf-alpha; nfkb

168
Q

how do anti inflammatories work?

A

NSAIDs (non-steroidal anti inflammatories)

inhibit cox-2 by acetylating serine residue within enzymes catalytic cleft

cox2 is a transcriptional target of nf-kb

169
Q

cox2

A

responsible for synthesizing prostaglandins

prostaglandins are lipids that are used in autocrine and paracrine mediators. signaling molecules

we will focus on PGE2

170
Q

PGE2

A

key mediator of inflammation

cox 2 converts arachidonic acid into pge2

animals support a correlation between pge2 levels and cancerous lesions

associated with cancer phenotype (increased prolif but also all the things with ras activation)

  • loss of ecadherin
  • anchorage independent prolif
  • loss of contact inhib
171
Q

if you inhibit the cox enzyme

A

no inflamm response because no pge2 because no nfkb.

in presence of cox inhibitor you see increased apoptosis and decrease proliferation

172
Q

cox2 is a ______ of nfkb pathway

A

transcriptional target

173
Q

nfkb antagonizes ___ & ____

A

p53 and Rb

p53 by inhibiting apop
Rb by promoting things like cyclin D which will inactivate Rb

174
Q

nfkb pathway produces:

A

tnf alpha
cyclin d1 (myc for prolif)
bclx (protection from apop)

175
Q

tumor promotion is likely to be a determinant of ______

A

the rate of tumor progression (how fast we go from mutated weirdness to full send cancer)

all tumor promotes can enable clonal expansion and subsequent additional mutations

repeated cell division allows for replication errors

repeated prolif leads to telomere erosion (BFB)

inflamm cells such as macrophages and neutrophils deploy ROS and RNS which can function as mutagens

176
Q

t or f: obesity is associated with increased cancer

A

yeah! true

177
Q

expanding adipose tissue is ________

A

dysfunctional. it starts to secrete signalling molecules that normal wouldn’t. they secrete chemo-attractants that increase inflammation

178
Q

obesity mimics ________

A

low grade inflammation

179
Q

hypoxia within adipose tissues activates ______

A

hif 1 alpha which also increases macrophage infiltration ecm remodeling and angiogenesis

180
Q

obesity is associated with _______

A

insulin resistance

which is also associated with pro-proliferative stuff

181
Q

what are upregulated in obesity and what is it associated with?

A

associated with pro prolif and anti apop

leptin - regulates appetite and metabolism (resistance associated with obesity) MAPK and PI3K
PAI-1 - serine protease inhib
TNF a and IL6- pro inflam

182
Q

what is downreg in obesity and what does it do?

A

adiponectin

anti-inflamm
insulin sensitizing
decreases ROS (which activates mapk)
inhibits angiongenesis by promoting apop

183
Q

colon tumor progression

A

The loss of Apc gene is the first thing that happens, always
■ LOH 5q
■ The epithelial cells become hyperplastic because the B-catenin pathwayis always on

DNA hypomethylation means the genes that should be silenced by hypermethylation of their promoter regions might not be silenced
■ Also, the integrity of centromeres (heterochromatic; the genome is highly methylated and condensed in that area) is affected
● Mitosis can’t happen properly

Mutation of codon 12 in ras occurs
■ Intermediate adenomas form (pre-cancerous growths or polyps)
■ Three pathways of ras are activated
● MAPK
○ Cyclin D and phosphorylation of Rb, no R checkpoint
● PI3K
○ Anti-apoptotic signaling
● Ral-GEF
○ Cells become more invasive and mobile

LOH 18Q
AKA TSG (tumor suppressing gene) or DCC (deleted in colon cancer)
● Deletion contained a few different genes and scientists weren’t sure which gene loss led to cancer
■ Now, evidence points to Smad4
● This is a gene that’s part of a pathway that begins with the membrane receptor for TGF-B (anti-mitogen)
○ Normally Smads are sequestered in the cytoplasm, TGF-B signaling allows them into the nucleus
○ They are TFs that turn on CDKI genes for p21, p16 etc

p53 is the last loss before full-on carcinoma
■ Associated with LOH 17p
■ You lose the ability to perform apoptosis in the presence of stress, like
hypoxia, contact inhibition, anoikis, etc.
■ Once you lose p53, there’s nothing you can do to stop progression to
cancer