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Disease and Ther. Final > Midterm 3 > Flashcards

Midterm 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Promethazine

A

H1 blocker
anticholinergic
Antinausea for motion sickness
treats meniere’s

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2
Q

Dexxamethasone

A

long acting steroid
inject into ear to reduce fluid
treats meniere’s

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3
Q

Antibiotics for Otitis Media

A

Amoxicillin
Amoxicillin + clavulanate
Cefaclor

Second level drugs: trimethoprim (sulfa)
Macrolides

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4
Q

Incorrect statement concerning open angle glaucoma

Associated with rapid closure of drainage canals for the aqueous humor
Accounts for 90% of the glaucoma cases
African Americans are especially vulnerable
Diabetes and high blood pressure are risk factors

A

Not associated with rapid closure of drainage canals

Subtle, slow closure

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5
Q

Which is not a risk factor for cataracts

Diabetes
Arthritis
Aging
Construction worker

A

Arthritis

Treatment for cataracts is surgical removal

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6
Q

Correct statements concerning Ag-related Macular degeneration

Occurs in 90% of patients older than 80
Almost never occurs in patients less than 50
Antioxidant treatment is very effective in preventing this condition
Progress of disease is fast if hemorrhage and fluid buildup are associated
Associated with loss of peripheral vision
Bevacizumab is used to treat the wet form of this disorder
Most common cause of severe loss of sight in patients older than 60

A

Almost never occurs in patients less than 50
Progress of disease is fast is hemorrhage and fluid buildup are associated
Bevacizumab is used to treat the wet form of this disorder
Most common cause of severe loss of sight in patients older than 60

  • Occurs in 10% of patients older than 80
  • Antioxidant treatment is minimally effective in preventing AMD
  • Associated with loss of central vision

Other: Smoking is a risk factor, associated with polymorphisms, No treatment for dry AMD

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7
Q

How predictive of breast cancer is mammography

25%
50
85
99

A

85%

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8
Q

Palpation gets how much breast cancer (that mammography doesn’t)

A

10%

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9
Q

Incorrect statement concerning breast carcinoma

50% chance to be the diagnosis of a lump found in breast of 23 year-old female
More likely to occur in women with a history of breast cysts
No apparent racial link
BRCA 1 and 2 are the most common genes associated with this condition

A

not 50% chance to be the diagnosis in 23 year old

Rare before 25 years (or before menopause)

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10
Q

Incidence of breast carcinoma by age 70

A

30% incidence by age 70

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11
Q

Which of the following are the survival rates for breast cancers classified as stage O and stage IV respectively

40% and 86%
99 and 5
55 and 10
92 and 13

A

92% and 13%

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12
Q

Obesity has been determined to be a link in which of the following

cervical cancer and breast cysts
endometrial polyps and endometrial adenocarcinoma
endometrial polyps and endometritis
ovarian cysts and ovarian carcinoma

A

endometrial polyps and endometrial adenocarcinoma

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13
Q

Endometrial Polyps occur when

A

late menopause
hypertension
Obesity

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14
Q

Cervical cancers risks

A 
HPV - multiple sex partners
immunosuppression
early age of first sexual contact
oral contraception for more than 5 years
nicotine use
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15
Q

Breast cyst age

A

20-40
fibrolytic changes
doesn’t really occur after menopause
can calcify/look like cancer

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16
Q

Endometrial adenocarcinoma risks

A

obesity
Diabetes
Hypertension

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17
Q

Endometritis risks

A

IUDs

infection

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18
Q

Ovarian cysts/masses (neoplastic)/cancer

A

contraceptives can decrease risk
treatment is total hysterectomy and surrounding tissue, chemotherapy
most are sporadic

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19
Q

Non-steroidal synthetic estrogen

steroidal

A

non steroidal - diethylstillbesterol

Steroidal - ethinyl estradiol

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20
Q

Which is not an effect of diethylstillbesterol

Increases CNS excitability
Maintains skin elasticity
Increases pigmentation around the eyes
Increases bone adsorption

A

does not increase bone adsorption
decreases bone adsorption

also: sexual maturity
increased endometrial and uterine growth
Increase blood coagulability

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21
Q

Which of the following characteristics differ between progestins and ethinylestradiol

Used in oral contraception
Contraindicated in patients with severe heart disease
When used in combination the reduction in ovulation approaches 100%
Effects are blocked by tamoxifen

A

Effects are blocked by tamoxifen - blocks estrogen only

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22
Q

Effects of progestins

A

Increase aldosterone, increase Na and water retention, increase BP and blood volume
Increase fat deposition
decrease CNS excitability
Increase body temp

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23
Q

Clinical uses of progestins

A

Replacement therapy
Oral contraception
Long-term ovarian suppression - endometriosis and such

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24
Q

contraindications of progestins

A

Breast cancer

Severe hypertension or heart disease

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25
Q

Clinical uses of estrogen

A

Primary hypogonadism

Postmenopausal - smallest dose

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26
Q

Adverse effects of estrogen

A 
postmenopausal bleeding
nausea
hypertension
hyperpigmentation
increases some cancers (breast and endometrial)
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27
Q

Contraindications for estrogen

A

Liver disease
Breast/endometrial cancers
thrombolytic disorders

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28
Q

Used to treat breast cancers

A

Tamoxifen

blocks actions of estrogen

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29
Q

Morning after pill

A

MIfepristone

blocks progesterone and glucocorticoid receptor

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30
Q

Suppresses ovarian function

A

Danazol
masculinizing effect
treats endometriosis
treats fibrous changes in breast

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31
Q

Ovulation - inducing druge

A

Clomiphene

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32
Q

Minipill

A

progesterone only

fewer side effects, less effective

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33
Q

Autoimmune disorder often associated with ulcers and carditis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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34
Q

pyogenic infections often caused by staph aureus

A

osteomyelitis

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35
Q

can result in kyphosis and scoliosis

A

osteoporosis

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36
Q

due to tissue wear and tear and present in most people older than 65

A

osteoarthritis

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37
Q

type 1 collagen and dentin deficiency

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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38
Q

prevented by consuming citrus fruit

A

scurvy

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39
Q

Non-steroidal synthetic estrogen

steroidal

A

non steroidal - diethylstillbesterol

Steroidal - ethinyl estradiol

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40
Q

Which is not an effect of diethylstillbesterol

Increases CNS excitability
Maintains skin elasticity
Increases pigmentation around the eyes
Increases bone adsorption

A

does not increase bone adsorption
decreases bone adsorption

also: sexual maturity
increased endometrial and uterine growth
Increase blood coagulability

How well did you know this?
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2
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41
Q

Which of the following characteristics differ between progestins and ethinylestradiol

Used in oral contraception
Contraindicated in patients with severe heart disease
When used in combination the reduction in ovulation approaches 100%
Effects are blocked by tamoxifen

A

Effects are blocked by tamoxifen - blocks estrogen only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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42
Q

Effects of progestins

A

Increase aldosterone, increase Na and water retention, increase BP and blood volume
Increase fat deposition
decrease CNS excitability
Increase body temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Clinical uses of progestins

A

Replacement therapy
Oral contraception
Long-term ovarian suppression - endometriosis and such

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

contraindications of progestins

A

Breast cancer

Severe hypertension or heart disease

45
Q

Clinical uses of estrogen

A

Primary hypogonadism

Postmenopausal - smallest dose

46
Q

Adverse effects of estrogen

A 
postmenopausal bleeding
nausea
hypertension
hyperpigmentation
increases some cancers (breast and endometrial)
47
Q

Contraindications for estrogen

A

Liver disease
Breast/endometrial cancers
thrombolytic disorders

48
Q

Used to treat breast cancers

A

Tamoxifen

blocks actions of estrogen

49
Q

Morning after pill

A

MIfepristone

blocks progesterone and glucocorticoid receptor

50
Q

Suppresses ovarian function

A

Danazol
masculinizing effect
treats endometriosis
treats fibrous changes in breast

51
Q

Ovulation - inducing druge

A

Clomiphene

52
Q

Minipill

A

progesterone only

fewer side effects, less effective

53
Q

Autoimmune disorder often associated with ulcers and carditis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

54
Q

pyogenic infections often caused by staph aureus

A

osteomyelitis

55
Q

can result in kyphosis and scoliosis

A

osteoporosis

56
Q

due to tissue wear and tear and present in most people older than 65

A

osteoarthritis

57
Q

type 1 collagen and dentin deficiency

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

58
Q

prevented by consuming citrus fruit

A

scurvy

59
Q

Carisoprodol

A

muscle relaxant

can develop dependence, sedative

60
Q

abnormal keratization located deep in dermia

A

dyskeratosis

61
Q

elevated dome or flat topped less than 5mm

A

papule

62
Q

flat and circumscribed discolored area less than 5mm

A

macule

63
Q

Effective against VSV

A

Famcyclovir
longer lasting than acyclovir
thymidine kinase dependent

64
Q

Correct statements concerning acne vulgaris and its treatment

Its inflammatory state typically consists of opened comedones known as blackheads
It is usually associated with increased testosterone activity in both males and females
Abscesses form from ruptured sebaceous glands
Associated with trapped fungus in the sebaceous glands
Salicylic acid is used for treatment due to its ability to dry and destroy the sebaceous gland
Benzoyl peroxide is effective in treatment of acne due to its keratolytic effects
Isotretinoin is a very effective systemic treatment for long-term improvement of acne
The most serious side effect of isotretinoin treatment is dry skin

A

corrected wrong answers:
Inflammatory state i is closed comodones and white heads
Associated with trapped bacteria, not fungus
Salicylic acid only opens gland by removing keratin, does not destroy gland (Retinol destroys)
Most serious side effect of isotretinoin is birth defects

65
Q

elevated dome more than 5 mm

A

nodule

66
Q

traumatic breakage of skin (from scratching)

A

excoriation

67
Q

Which best describes uticaria

A

hypersensitivity-related hives in response to antigens such as pollens and drugs
mediated by IgE

68
Q

Cellular memory of a reaction to an antigen such that future repeated exposures causes increased dermatitis reaction

A

Allergic contact dermatitis

69
Q

Wide range of reactions to infections and drugs including blisters and necrosis with varying severities of expression

A

Erythema multiforma

70
Q

Delayed hypersensitive reaction that can be pruritic, edematous and oozing

A

Eczematous dermatitis

71
Q

Select the incorrect statement concerning psoriasis

Caused by use of NSAIDS
Treated by immunosuppressant drugs
Associated with well-marked pink to salmon colored plaques
Can be accompanied by increased hear attacks

A

not caused by NSAIDS

caused by auto-rejection, or environmentally induced
epidermal acnthosis- hyperplasia
treated with NSAIDS and immunosuppressant drugs

72
Q

the leading cause of cancer-induced death in USA

A

lung cancer

73
Q

Which of the following is the most common expression of skin cancer

basal cell carcinoma
squamous cell carcinoma
non-metastatic melanoma
metastatic melanoma

A

basal cell carcinoma - least aggressive, slow growing, no metastasis

squamous cell - 2nd most common, usually no metastasis, red scaly plaques, locally aggressive
Metastatic - most rare, most aggressive, metastasizes

74
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be associated with high doses of COX 1 and 2 non-selective, treating inflammatory disorders

diabetes
hypertension
altered liver functions
asthma
renal insufficiency
A

diabetes

others: tinnitus, nausea, bleeding

75
Q

Which of the following muscle relaxants is classified as a desensitizing nicotinic ganglionic blocker

succinylcholine
dantrolene
baclofen
D-tubocurarine
carisoprodol
A

Succinylcholine - depolarizes by desensitizing, fast acting, causes twitch
not inhibited by acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

76
Q

Alters Ca trafficking

A

Dantrolene

muscle relaxant

77
Q

Baclofen

A

Non-depolarizing, GABA B agent

muscle relaxant

78
Q

D-tubocurarine

A

Inhibited by acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
competitive for ACh, blocks nicotinic receptor
muscle relaxant

79
Q

Carisoprodol

A

muscle relaxant

can develop dependence, sedative

80
Q

Non-thymidine kinase dependent antiviral

A

Foscarnet

81
Q

Correct statement concerning liver disorders

  • Obstruction caused by gallstones can result in cholecystitis
  • Viral infections are the #1 cause of hepatotoxicity
  • Fibrosis is more likely to result in cirrhosis than steatosis
  • Most hepatotoxic events occur around the central hepatic vein
  • There is a cure for hepatitis C, but no immunization
  • Hep A and E viruses cause both an acute and chronic hepatitis
  • Fatty liver disease and resulting cirrhosis is caused entirely by alcoholism
  • Wilson’s disease is a hepatitis caused by a calcium metabolic defect
A

Wrong answers corrected
Drugs are #1 cause of hepatotoxicity - not virus

Hep A and E cause only acute, not chronic (BCD are both)

Fatty liver disease and resulting cirrhosis caused by alcoholism, diabetes and obesity

Wilson’s disease is a copper metabolic defect, not calcium

82
Q

Most effective for herpes 1 and 2

less on VZV

A

Acyclovir

thymidine kinase dependent

83
Q

Effective against VSV

A

Famcyclovir
longer lasting than acyclovir
thymidine kinase dependent

84
Q

Correct statements concerning acne vulgaris and its treatment

Its inflammatory state typically consists of opened comedones known as blackheads
It is usually associated with increased testosterone activity in both males and females
Abscesses form from ruptured sebaceous glands
Associated with trapped fungus in the sebaceous glands
Salicylic acid is used for treatment due to its ability to dry and destroy the sebaceous gland
Benzoyl peroxide is effective in treatment of acne due to its keratolytic effects
Isotretinoin is a very effective systemic treatment for long-term improvement of acne
The most serious side effect of isotretinoin treatment is dry skin

A

corrected wrong answers:
Inflammatory state i is closed comodones and white heads
Associated with trapped bacteria, not fungus
Salicylic acid only opens gland by removing keratin, does not destroy gland (Retinol destroys)
Most serious side effect of isotretinoin is birth defects

85
Q

Cellular mechanisms that result in tumors

A

Inhibit apoptosis
Stimulates growth factor oncogenes
Stimulates production of telomerases to prevent cellular senescence
Suppresses the P53 gene
Increases angioneogenesis by enhancing release of vascular endothelial growth factor

86
Q

Ames test

A

determines the carcinogenic properties of a chemical by measuring the bacterial DNA responses to substance

87
Q

typically found in younger patients and associated with Reed Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

88
Q

a very aggressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma of B lymphocytes with a poor prognosis

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

89
Q

associated with elevated HCG

A

Choriocarcinoma

90
Q

mesenchymal cancer typically found in AIDS patients

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

91
Q

Malignant tumors of columnar cells and able to form glands

A

adenoid carcinoma

92
Q

the leading cause of cancer-induced death in USA

A

lung cancer

93
Q

Correct statements concerning cancer treatments

  • Imatinib is a tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor used to treat multiple types of cancer such as myelogenous leukemia
  • Cyclophosphamide is a nitrosourea that is used to treat brain tumors because of its ability to pass through the blood brain barrier
  • Methyltrexate is a folic acid analog that interferes with the formation of key DNA in cancer cells such as those associated with breast cancer
  • Vincristine is a natrual product that interferes with tubulin polymerization
  • Doxorubicin is a form of 5-fluorouracil that inibits thymidine synthases
  • The secondary cancer most likely to occur as a complication of cancer treatment with alkylating agents is myelogenous leukemia
  • Stage I breast cancers only have an approximate 10% cure rate
A

wrong statements corrected
Cyclophosphamide is not a nitrosourea
Procarbazine is nitrosourea that passes BBB and treats brain tumors (and Hodgkin’s lymphoma)

Doxorubicin is an anti-biotic that treats cancer, forms free radicals
Bleomycin too

Stage I breast cancers have 92% survival/cure rate
State IV has 10%

94
Q

Cyclophosphamide

A

Alkylating agent
treats: Leukemia, Hodgkin’s, Breast cancer, Multiple myeloma
Transfers alkyl group to cell parts like DNA, breaks DNA

95
Q

Which is most common cancer in children

A

Acute lymphoblast leukemia (ALL)

96
Q

most common G.I. malignancy

A

Colorectal cancer

97
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

Plasma cell malignancy

Most commonly in bone marrow

98
Q

Most common acute leukemia of adult

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia

99
Q

Identify the incorrect statements concerning gastrointestinal disorders

  • Infectious esophagitis can be associated with infection by the cytomegalovirus (herpes and candida included)
  • Barrett esophagus can be associated with reflux esophagitis
  • Chronic gastritis is most often caused by herpes simplex virus
  • Hirschprung disease is a congenital defect associated with auto-immune gastritis
  • Celiac sprue can be associated with enamel defects and delayed eruption of teeth
  • Crohn’s disease is associated with an expression of intestinal inflammation that is more consistently expressed throughout the intestines than ulcerative colitis
  • Invasive colonic adenocarcinoma is responsible for 15% of all cancer deaths in the USA
  • Reflux esophagitis is most likely to occur in young adults
A

Wrong answers corrected:

Chronic gastritis is caused by H. pylori, not herpes

hirschsprung disease is a congenital defect of G.I. innervation, not auto-immune

Crohn’s disease is associated with intestinal inflammation that is more patchy, not consistent

Reflux esophagitis is more common in older adults

100
Q

More one Chronic gastritis, celiac, chrohns, irritable bowel

A

j

101
Q

Correct statement concerning liver disorders

  • Obstruction caused by gallstones can result in cholecystitis
  • Viral infections are the #1 cause of hepatotoxicity
  • Fibrosis is more likely to result in cirrhosis than steatosis
  • Most hepatotoxic events occur around the central hepatic vein
  • There is a cure for hepatitis C, but no immunization
  • Hep A and E viruses cause both an acute and chronic hepatitis
  • Fatty liver disease and resulting cirrhosis is caused entirely by alcoholism
  • Wilson’s disease is a hepatitis caused by a calcium metabolic defect
A

Wrong answers corrected
Drugs are #1 cause of hepatotoxicity - not virus

Hep A and E cause only acute, not chronic (BCD are both)

Fatty liver disease and resulting cirrhosis caused by alcoholism, diabetes and obesity

Wilson’s disease is a copper metabolic defect, not calcium

102
Q

Correct statements concerning drugs used to treat G.I. and liver disorders

  • Aluminum salts are not very effective in the treatment of GERD
  • Cimetidine and ranitidine are OTC H1 blockers used to treat acid reflux
  • Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor often combined with H2 blockers to treat peptic ulcer disease
  • Prevpac is primarily used to treat severe diarrhea
  • Bisacodyl is a fast acting smooth muscle stiumlant used to treat constipation
  • Loperamine is principally used to treat stomach cramps
  • Irritable bowel syndome is a common disorder in young adults primarily treated by relieving symptoms
  • Crohn’s disease is treated with antiviral medications such as acyclovir
  • If exposed to HBV, a dentist should immediately begin treatment with the HBV vaccine series
  • Linaclotide is FDA-approved to treat the diarrhea associated with irritable bowel syndrome
A

Wrong answers corrected

Cimetidine and ranitidine are H2 blockers, do treat acid reflux

Prevpac is used to treat peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori

Loperamine is used to treat diarrheas, not cramps

Crohn’s disease is treated with anti-inflammatories and antibiotics

Linaclotide is FDA-approved to treat Constipation associated with irritable bowel syndrome

103
Q

Treatment for Crohn’s

A

Mess on the Metro with Cortney

Mesalamine, metronidazole, corticosteroids

104
Q

Cimetidine

A

H2 blocker
treats GERD
drowsiness

105
Q

Rantidine

A

H2 blocker
treats GERD
drowsiness

106
Q

Docusate

A

causes diarrhea, water retention, stool softener

107
Q

Atropine

A

anti-cholinergic
treats diarrhea
and nerve gas

108
Q

Loperamide

A

treats diarrhea

mild opioid

109
Q

Bismuth subsalicylate

A

Peptobismal

treats diarrhea

Disease and Ther. Final (7 decks)

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