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Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Term for the chemical forces that cause drug to associate with receptor.

A

affinity

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2
Q

Term for chemical structure (nature) or a drug that causes the receptor to change when the drug is bound.

A

Efficacy (intrinsic activity)

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3
Q

What is the equation for standard safety margin?

A

LD1/ED99

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4
Q

What is the equation for therapeutic index?

A

LD50/ED50

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5
Q

What is used instead of therapeutic index for non lethal drugs?

A

Therapeutic ratio: Toxic conc/Effective conc

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6
Q

Molecule that associates and dissascoiates freely and competes with an agonist ppresent for available binding sites?

A

competitive antagonist (reversible)

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7
Q

Molecule that binds more aggressively and do not disassociate freely. Receptors are unavailable for competitive binding to agonist molecules.

A

Irreversible antagonists (non-competitive)

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8
Q

What type of antagonism is when two drugs, an agonist and an antagonist bind to the same receptor?

A

receptor antagonism (pharmacological)

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9
Q

What type of antagonism inolves receptors in opposing systems simultaneously?

A

physiologic antagonism (functional)

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10
Q

What type of antagonism is when a drug forms bonds with 2 or more molecules?

A

chemical antagonism

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11
Q

What is the term for acute diminished response in an organ after repeated exposure to an agonist?

A

tachyphylaxis

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12
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

quantitative study of the time course of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion (What body does to drug)

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13
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

what drug does to body

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14
Q

Liquid oral dosage form that is in aqueous suspensions.

A

magmas

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15
Q

What is the injectable drug form that is to be reconstituted with sterile water ust priior to admin?

A

lyophilized form

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16
Q

What injectable drug form is designed to use IM or SQ and absorption is prolonged?

A

repository

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17
Q

What are the 3 factors for absorption of a drug IM and SC?

A

SA of capillaries, blood flow, and solubility in interstitial fluids

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18
Q

What pH are weak acids ionized at?

A

pH above their pKa

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19
Q

What pH are weak bases ionized at?

A

ionized at pH below their pKa

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20
Q

What are the 3 major reactions involved in phase 1 metabolism?

A

Oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis

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21
Q

What major reaction is involved in phase 2 metabolism?

A

conjugation

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22
Q

What pharmacokinetic model is used if elimination mechanisms of a drug are saturated?

A

zero-order process (non linear kinetics)

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23
Q

What pharmacokinetic model is used to show the rate of transfer between compartments and elimination is proportional to drug in body?

A

first order or linear kinetics

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24
Q

What is the equation for volume of distribution?

A

Vd = IV dose/C0

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25
Q

What is the equation for biological half life?

A

t1/2 = 0.693/k

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26
Q

What is the equation for systemic clearance?

A

Cls = IV dose/AUC0-inf

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27
Q

What are the 2 choline esters?

A

carbachol and bethanechol

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28
Q

What 2 problems is bethanacol used to treat?

A

tx of urinary retiontion in cats and dogs and a prokinetic in horses

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29
Q

What are the side effects of choline esters?

A

SLUD - salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation

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30
Q

What are the 3 naturally occuring cholinomimetic alkaloids?

A

pilocarpine, muscarine, arecoline

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31
Q

What are the 5 directly acting cholinomimetic drugs?

A

carbachol, bethanechol, pilocarpine, muscarine, arecoline

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32
Q

What are the 4 reversible anticholinesterases?

A

physostigmine, neostigmine, edrophonium, pyridostigmine

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33
Q

What group of drugs produces irreversibile inhibition of cholinesterase?

A

organophosphates

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34
Q

Which reversible anticholinesterase is used primarily orally?

A

pyridostigmine

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35
Q

Can reversible cholinesterase inhibitors treat nondepolarizing NM blockers or depolarizing NM blockers??

A

only nondepolarizing

not depolarizing due to SYNERGISM

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36
Q

What drug is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis in dogs and cats?

A

edrophonium

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37
Q

What 2 drugs are used to treat myasthenia gravis in dogs and cats?

A

neostigmine and pyridostigmine

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38
Q

What reversibile cholinesterase inhibitor is a topical miotic agent and reduces intraocular pressure?

A

physostigmine

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39
Q

What are organophosphate compounds treated with?

A

atropine (competitive antagonist to AcH)

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40
Q

What drug can dissosociate organophosphates with the AchE enzyme?

A

pralidoxime (2-pam, protopam)

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41
Q

Which species have a short half life of atropine?

A

rabbits and goats - have atropinase

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42
Q

What can atropine treat in the GI tract?

A

antispasmodic - GI hypermotility

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43
Q

When is atropine contraindicated in the eye?

A

KCS - decreased tear production

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44
Q

What drug is 2-4 times more potent than atropine but less likely to penetrate BBB?

A

glycopyrrolate

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45
Q

What antispasmodic and anticholinergic drug is used for IV in horses with colic?

A

N-butylscopolammonium bromide

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46
Q

What are the 2 synthetic catecholamines?

A

isoproterenol and dobutamine

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47
Q

What are the presnyaptic and postsynaptic actions of alppha 2 receptors?

A

pre- stops norepinephrine release

post - stimulates systemic vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, etc

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48
Q

Where are beta 3 receptors found?

A

on adipocytes, mediates lipolysis

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49
Q

What does activation of D1 receptors cause?

A

diuresis and naturiuresis

50
Q

What does activation of D2 receptors cause?

A

decreases BP and HR, vasodilation in renal an mesenteric beds, receptors found in the CNS

51
Q

What sympathomimetic drug induces positive inotropic response in the heart?

A

dobutamine

52
Q

What causes epinephrine reversal?

A

epinephrine admin after pretx with alpha antagonist –> hypovolemic shock

53
Q

What drug is a irreversible inhibitor of alpha 1 and 2 receptors?

A

phenoxybenzamine

54
Q

What is the drug of choice for urethral hyperreflxia in dogs and cats?

A

phenoxybenzamine

55
Q

What is phenoxybenzamine used to treat in horses?

A

laminitis and secretory diarrhea

56
Q

What cancer can be treated with phenoxybenzamine?

A

pheochromocytoma (epinephrine tumor)

57
Q

What is used as a reversal agent for xylazine in horses, dogs, cats, and birds? What receptors does it act on?

A

tolazoline (competitive alpha 2 and alpha 2 antagonist)

58
Q

What are the 3 alpha 1 antagonists?

A

prazosin, terazosin, trimazosin

59
Q

What are alpha 2 agonists used for in vm?

A

sedation, analgesia, muscle relaxation

60
Q

What is the MOA for alpha 2 agonists?

A

decrease in norepinephrine and dopamine

61
Q

What are the 3 actions of alpha 2 agonists in the CNS?

A

potentiate opiods, barbiturates, and inhalant anesthetics
antinociceptive activity (decrease pain)
skeletal muscle relaxation

62
Q

How can bradycardia be reversed when it was induced with alpha 2 agonist?

A

atropine or glycopyrrolate - controversial, arrythmias

63
Q

What is the most sensitive animal to xylazine? least sensitive animal?

A

most - ruminant

least - swine

64
Q

What 3 drugs can reverse alpha 2 adernergic agonists?

A

Yohimbine
Tolazoline - horses
Atipamezole - expensive

65
Q

What are the 2 osmotic diuretics?

A

glycerin and mannitol

66
Q

What drug can be used to acidify urine?

A

ammonium chloride

67
Q

What are the adverse effects of ammonium chloride to acidify urine?

A

metabolic acidosis, gastric irritation, nausea and vomiting

68
Q

What are the 2 MOA of CAIs?

A

inhibit CA in the brush border –> alkaline urine

inhibit CAI inside PCT ->no protons for reabsorption of Na

69
Q

What are the four CAI drugs? Which one is topical?

A

Acetazolamide
Methazolamide
Dichlorphenamide
Dorzolamide - topical

70
Q

What kind of acidosis does CAIs cause?

A

hypochloremic acidosis

71
Q

What 2 things do CAI treat?

A

glaucoma

metabolic alkalosis + glaucoma

72
Q

What diuretic group produces the most significant hypokalemia?

A

thiazide diuretics

73
Q

What is the MOA of thiazides?

A

inhibit Na reabsorption in DCT

74
Q

What can thiazide diuretics cause in subclinial diabetes mellitus? diabetes insipidus?

A

mellitus - increase blood sugar

inspidus - reducing urine flow (good)

75
Q

What are the 3 loop diuretics?

A

furosemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid

76
Q

What is the MOA of loop diuretics?

A

inhibit uptake of Na, K, and Cl in ascending loop

77
Q

What are the 3 potassium sparing diuretics?

A

spironolactone, amiloride, triamterene

78
Q

What is the MOA of potassium sparing diuretics?

A

act on collecting tubule to diminish Na reabsoprtion adn K excretion

79
Q

Which diuretic is a competitive aldosterone antagonist?

A

spironolactone

80
Q

Which 2 groups of drugs are allosteric modulators of the GABAa?

A

benzodiazepines and barbiturates

81
Q

What are the 3 adverse side effects of using phenobarbital?

A

bone marrow dyscrasias (dogs)
thyroid hormones metabolized quicker
superficial necrolytic dermatitis (and facial pruritis in cats)

82
Q

What should be used in overdose of phenobarbital?

A

artificial respiration, stimulate resp, alkalinize urine

83
Q

What is the MOA of phenytoin sodium?

A

binds to Na influx channels –> use-dependent block

84
Q

What are the SE of phenytoin sodium?

A

do not use in cats
moderate in dogs - ataxia, vomiting
not used much in vet med

85
Q

What is the drug of choce for emergency tx of seizures?

86
Q

What can happen if cats are on diazepam orally?

A

fatal hepatic necrosis

87
Q

What is the reversal agent for diazepam?

A

flumazenil

88
Q

What is the most powerful drug in terms of autoinduction of CYp450?

A

phenobarbital

89
Q

Which 3 drugs can inhibit phenobarbital metabolism?

A

chloramphenicol, cimetidine, ketoconazole

90
Q

Which benzodiazepine is a pro-drug and can be given orally?

A

clorazepate

91
Q

What benzodiazepine is used for short term in dogs and long term adjunctivee therapy in cats for seizures?

A

clonazepam

92
Q

Which benzodiazepine is given IV, IM, or intranasally to dogs only?

93
Q

What is the supposed MOA of bromide?

A

replacement of Cl ions result in hyperpolarized cells

94
Q

What can increase bromide excretion through the kidney?

A

dietary salt

95
Q

What is a side effect in 35% of cats given bromide?

A

allegic pneuonitis (NAVLE Q)

96
Q

What antiepileptic drug has a short half life and unknown MOA?

A

Levetiracetam

97
Q

What is the MOA of doxapram?

A

stimulates respiratory by stimulation of aortic and carotid chemoreceptors and directly stimulating medullary respiratory center

98
Q

What analeptic can be used in animals for relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle in myocardial failure and/or pulmonary edema?

A

methylxanthine derivatives

99
Q

What is the half life of phenobarbital?

A

32-75 hours

100
Q

How do you calculate a new dose of phenobarbital based on concentration?

A

Old dose/old Cp = New dose/new Cp

101
Q

How do oxybarbiturates differ from thiobarbiturates?

A 
Oxy = oxygen at C2
Thio = sulfur at C2
102
Q

How does acidosis affect injectable anesthesia?

A

acidosis increases cell penetration

103
Q

Are oxy or thiobarbs more lipid soluble?

104
Q

What length of time do these injectable anesthetics last? Phenobarbital, pentobarbital, thiopental.

A

Pheno - long
pento - short
thio - ultra short

105
Q

Which injectable anesthetic causes ventricular bigeminy in dogs?

A

thiopental

106
Q

Which injectable anesthetic is safe for sight hounds and may cause excitement during recovery?

A

methohexital

107
Q

What is the MOA of dissasociative anesthetics?

A

non competitive inhibition of NMDA and GABA agonist

108
Q

What type of analgesia do dissasociatives give?

A

somatic, not visceral

109
Q

What respiratory pattern can occur in cat, pig, and sheep if given disassociatives?

A

apneustic respiration pattern

110
Q

How is ketamine metabolized in the dog? cat?

A 
dog = liver
cat = unchanged and by liver or kidney
111
Q

What can happen in up to 20% of cats given ketamine? What can treat it?

A

tennis match cats - head bobbing

give iv diazepam

112
Q

What side effect is seen in cats given propofol repeatedly?

A

heinz body anemia

113
Q

What anesthetic injectable inhibits adrenal steroidogenesis?

114
Q

What prodrug anesthetic is used together with magnesium sulfate to produce anesthesia in LA?

A

chloral hydrate

115
Q

What anesthetic can immobolize cold blooded animals?

A

tricaine methanesulfonate

116
Q

What pKa of a local anesthetic will have rapid onset of action?

A

near body’s pH

117
Q

Which pKa of local anesthetics have a slower onset of action?

118
Q

What is the MOA of local anesthetics?

A

blocks voltage gated sodium channels

119
Q

What 2 conditions lead to low levels of esterase to metabolize local anesthetics?

A

pregnancy

spinal fluid

120
Q

What local anesthetic should never be given IV because it will cause death?

A

bupivacaine (cardiotoxic)

121
Q

What species may develop methemoglobinemia due to local anesthetics?

122
Q

What is the IV drug of choice for tx of ventricular arrythmias in dogs and cats?

UI Pharmacology (2 decks)

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