midterm Flashcards

1
Q
  • Adverse events
  • respective organizational units to prepare for,
    detect, react to, and recover
  • restore normal modes of operation with minimal
    cost
A

CONTIGENCY PLANNING

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2
Q
  • crucial foundation for the initial planning
    stages
  • serves as an investigation and assessment
    of the impact
  • systematic process to determine and
    evaluate the potential effects of an
    interruption to critical business operations
  • preparatory activity common to both CP and
    risk management.
  • helps the organization determine which
    business functions and information systems
    are the most critical to the success of the
    organization.
A

BUSINESS IMPACT ANALYSIS

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3
Q

When undertaking the BIA, the organization should
consider the following:

A

Scope
Plan
Balance
Objective
Follow-up

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4
Q

maximum amount of time that a system
resource can remain unavailable

A

RECOVER TIME OBJECTIVE

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5
Q

point in time before a disruption or system
outage to which business process data can
be recovered

A

RECOVERY POINT OBJECTIVE

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6
Q
  • total amount of time the system owner or
    authorizing official is willing to accept for a
    business process outage or disruption.
A

MAXIMUM TOLERABLE DOWNTIME

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7
Q

amount of effort (expressed as elapsed time)
needed to make business functions work
again after the technology element is
recovered.

A

WORK RECOVERY TIME

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8
Q

must be carefully planned and coordinated
* describe the overall process, and reaction
* planning and preparation efforts for
detecting, reacting to, and recovering from
an incident.

A

INCIDENT RESPONSE

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9
Q

describe the entire set of activities or a
specific phase in the overall reaction.
* focuses on the immediate response to an
incident.
* actions taken

A

INCIDENT RESPONSE PLAN

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10
Q

detailed step-by-step methods of preparing,
detecting, reacting to, and recovering from
an incident.
* During the incident - planners develop and
document the procedures that must be
performed during the incident.
* After the incident - must be performed
immediately after the incident has ceased.
* Before the incident — draft a third set of
procedures

A

IR PROCEDURES

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11
Q

Recognition that an incident is
under way

A

Detection

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12
Q

Responding to the incident in a
predetermined fashion to contain and
mitigate its potential damage

A

Reaction

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13
Q

— Returning all systems and data
to their state before the incident

A

3Recovery

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14
Q

A combination of
on-site and off-site tape-drive, hard-drive,
and cloud backup methods

A

Traditional Data Backups

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15
Q

—transfers data in bulk
batches to an off-site facility

A

Electronic Vaulting—

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16
Q

transfers only
transaction data in near real time to an offsite facility.

A

Remote Journaling

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17
Q

transfers duplicate
online transaction data and duplicate
databases to a remote site on a redundant
server

A

Database Shadowing

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18
Q

recommends the creation of at least three
copies of critical data (the original and two
copies)

A

3-2-1 BACKUP RULE

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19
Q
  • events represent the potential for loss, they
    are referred to as adverse events.
A

INCIDENT CANDIDATE

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20
Q

adverse event that could result in a loss of
information assets

A

INCIDENT

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21
Q
  • composed of technical IT, managerial IT, and
    InfoSec professionals who are prepared to
    detect, react to, and recover from an incident;
    may include members of the IRPT.
A

COMPUTER SECURITY INCIDENT RESPONSE
TEAM

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22
Q

— Relates to risk management and
governance

A

Identify

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23
Q

Relates to implementation of
effective security controls (policy, education,
training and awareness, and technology)

A

Protect

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24
Q

Relates to the identification of
adverse events

A

Detect

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25
Q

Relates to reacting to an incident

A

Respond

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26
Q

Relates to putting things “as they
were before” the incident

A

Recover

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27
Q

NIST CYBERSECURITY FRAMEWORK

A

Identify
Protect
Detect
Respond Recover

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28
Q

organization’s set of planning and
preparation efforts for detecting, reacting to,
and recovering from a disaster.

A

DISASTER RECOVERY

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29
Q

which focuses on restoring operations at the
primary site

A

DISASTER RECOVERY PLAN

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30
Q

policy document that guides the
development and implementation of DR
plans and the formulation and performance
of DR teams.

A

DISASTER RECOVERY POLICY

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31
Q

DISASTER CLASSIFICATION

A
  • Fire
  • Flood
  • Earthquake
  • Lightning
  • Electrostatic Discharge (ESD)
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32
Q

when the damage is major or will affect the
organization’s functioning over the long term
* ensures that critical business functions can
continue if a disaster occurs.

A

BUSINESS CONTINUITY PLAN

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33
Q

CONTINUITY STRATEGIES

A

Hot Site Cold Site Warm Site

34
Q

Real-time data synchronization.
Most Expensive

35
Q

No data backup and No data
synchronization. Least Expensive

36
Q

Data is synchronized daily or
weekly. Cost Effective

37
Q

6 KEY CONTIGENCY PLAN STEPS

A

IDENTIFY
CHOOSE
LEARN
DETERMIINE
DEVELOP
EDUCATE

38
Q

collects information about the organization
and the threats it faces
* consists of a coordinating executive,
representatives from major business units,
and the managers responsible for each of the
other three teams.
* It should include the following personnel:
* Champion—high-level manager
(COO/CEO/PRESIDENT)
* Project manager—mid-level operations
manager

A

CONTIGENCY PLANNING MANAGEMENT TEAM

39
Q

The team responsible for IR plan -
organization’s preparation, reaction, and
recovery from incident

A

Incident Response Planning Team (IRPT)

40
Q

The team responsible for DR plan -
organization’s preparation, response, and
recovery from disasters

A

Disaster Recovery Planning Team (DRPT)

41
Q

The team responsible for BC plan -
establishing primary operations at an
alternate site until the disaster recovery
planning team can recover the primary site

A

Business Continuity Planning Team (BCPT)

42
Q
  • functional areas of the organization assigned
    to develop and implement the CM plan.
A

Crisis Management Planning Team (CMPT)

43
Q
  • Focuses on the effects that a disaster has on
    people than its effects on other assets.
A

CRISIS MANAGEMENT

44
Q

systems determine whether and how to
admit a user into a trusted area of the
organization

A

ACCESS CONTROL

45
Q

provide the ability to share resources in a
peer-to-peer configuration, which allows
users to control and possibly provide access
to information or resources at their disposal.

A

DISCRETIONARY ACCESS CONTROLS (DACS)

46
Q

are managed by a central authority in the
organization.

A

NONDISCRETIONARY ACCESS CONTROLS
(NDACS)

47
Q

users are assigned a matrix of authorizations
for particular areas of access.

A

LATTICE-BASED ACCESS CONTROL (LBAC)

48
Q

position or temporary assignment like project
manager

A

ROLE-BASED ACCESS CONTROLS (RBACS

49
Q

are tied to a particular chore or responsibility
such as a department’s printer administrator

A

TASK-BASED ACCESS CONTROLS (TBACS)

50
Q

use data classification schemes; they give
users and data owners limited control over
access to information resources.

A

MANDATORY ACCESS CONTROLS (MACS)

51
Q

grants or denies access to resources based
on attributes of the user, the resource, and
the environment

A

ATTRIBUTE-BASED ACCESS CONTROLS
(ABACS)

52
Q

unverified or unauthenticated entities who
seek access to a resource provide a unique
label by which they are known to the system.
* I am a user of the system.

A

IDENTIFICATION

53
Q
  • process of validating an unauthenticated
    entity’s purported identity.
  • I can prove I’m a user of the system.
  • Something you know, Something you have,
    Something you are
A

AUTHENTICATION

54
Q

involves confirming that a person or
automated entity is approved to use an
information asset by matching them to a
database

A

AUTHORIZATION

55
Q

also known as auditability
* every action performed on a computer
system or using an information asset can be
associated with an authorized user or
system.

A

ACCOUNTABILITY

56
Q
  • information security program
  • software service running on an existing
    router or server
57
Q
  • examines the header information of data
    packets that come into a network.
  • scan network data packets looking for
    compliance with the rules of the firewall’s
    database or violations of those rules.
A

PACKET-FILTERING MODEL

58
Q

THREE (3) SUBSETS OF PACKET-FILTERING
FIREWALLS ARE:

A

Static Packet Filtering
Dynamic Packet Filtering
Stateful Packet Inspection (SPI)

59
Q

that requires the
configuration rules to be manually created,
sequenced, and modified within the firewall.

A

. Static Packet Filtering

60
Q

can react to
network traffic and create or modify its
configuration rules to adapt.

A

Dynamic Packet Filtering

61
Q

keeps
track of each network connection between
internal and external systems using a state
table and that expedites the filtering of those
communications.

A

Stateful Packet Inspection (SPI)

62
Q

also known as an application firewall
* is frequently installed on a dedicated
computer separate from the filtering router,
but it is commonly used in conjunction with a
filtering router.

A

APPLICATION LAYER PROXY FIREWALLS

63
Q

designed to operate at the media access
control sublayer of the network’s data link
layer (Layer 2).

A

MEDIA ACCESS CONTROL LAYER FIREWALLS

64
Q

combine the elements of other types of
firewalls—that is, the elements of packetfiltering, application layer proxy, and media
access control layer firewalls.

A

HYBRID FIREWALLS

65
Q

All firewall devices can be configured in
several network connection architectures

A

FIREWALL ARCHITECTURES

66
Q
  • An architecture can be implemented as a
    packet-filtering router, or it could be a firewall
    behind a router that is not configured for
    packet filtering.
A

SINGLE BASTION HOSTS

67
Q
  • A networking scheme in which multiple real,
    routable external IP addresses are converted
    to special ranges of internal IP addresses,
    usually on a one-to-one basis; that is, one
    external valid address directly maps to one
    assigned internal address.
A

Network Address Translation (NAT)

68
Q

combines the packet-filtering router with a
separate, dedicated firewall

A

SCREENED HOST ARCHITECTURE

69
Q

The dominant architecture today is the
screened subnet used with a DMZ.

A

SCREENED SUBNET ARCHITECTURE (WITH
DMZ)

70
Q

Firewalls operate by examining a data packet
and performing a comparison with some
predetermined logical rules.

A

FIREWALL RULES

71
Q

is another utility that can help protect an
organization’s systems from misuse and
unintentional denial-of-service problems.

A

CONTENT FILTER

72
Q

The connections between company
networks and the Internet use firewalls to
safeguard that interface.

A

REMOTE ACCESS

73
Q
  • is a technology that enables the creation of a
    secure and encrypted connection between
    your device and the internet.
  • NORDVPN
  • PROTON
  • MULLVAD
  • EXPRESSVPN
A

VIRTUAL PRIVATE NETWORKS (VPNS)

74
Q

also known as a legacy VPN, uses leased
circuits from a service provider and conducts
packet switching over these leased circuits.

A

TRUSTED VPN

75
Q

use security protocols like IPSec to encrypt
traffic transmitted across unsecured public
networks like the Internet.

A

SECURE VPNS

76
Q
  • combines the trusted and secure
    technologies, providing encrypted
    transmissions (as in secure VPN) over some
    or all of a trusted VPN network.
A

HYBRID VPN

77
Q

of incoming and outgoing data, in which the
native protocol of the client is embedded
within the frames of a protocol that can be
routed over the public network and be usable
by the server network environment.

A

ENCAPSULATION

78
Q
  • of incoming and outgoing data to keep the
    data contents private while in transit over the
    public network, but usable by the client and
    server computers and/or the local networks
    on both ends of the VPN connection.
A

ENCRYPTION

79
Q

of the remote computer and perhaps the
remote user as well. Authentication and
subsequent user authorization to perform
specific actions are predicated on accurate
and reliable identification of the remote
system and user

A

AUTHENTICATION

80
Q

the data within an IP packet is encrypted, but
the header information is not.

A

TRANSPORT MODE

81
Q
  • establishes two perimeter tunnel servers to
    encrypt all traffic that will traverse an
    unsecured network.
A

TUNNEL MODE