Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the basic steps of a criminal trial by jury?

A
  • Jury empaneled (Voir Dire and peremptory strikes)
  • Prosecution presents evidence
  • Defense presents evidence
  • Closing statements
  • Judge instructs the jury
  • Jury deliberates and decides
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2
Q

Why does the prosecution present evidence first in a criminal trial?

A

Because of the assumption of innocence

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3
Q

What is the standard of proof in a criminal trial?

A

Beyond a reasonable doubt

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4
Q

What is the difference between speculative doubt and reasonable doubt?

A

Speculative doubt lacks a basis in evidence, while reasonable doubt is based on the evidence presented

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5
Q

What does sufficiency of evidence refer to in a trial?

A

Whether the evidence shows the defendant guilty beyond a reasonable doubt

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6
Q

What is the role of an appellate court in terms of evidence sufficiency?

A

To decide whether there was enough evidence for a rational trier of fact to find a defendant guilty

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7
Q

In Owens v. State, what was the key issue regarding circumstantial evidence?

A

Whether the circumstances are consistent with a reasonable hypothesis of guilt

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8
Q

What is the consequentialism/utilitarian framework in punishment theory?

A

Punishment justified if it produces a greater net good than alternatives

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9
Q

What does ‘deterrence’ mean in the context of punishment?

A

Preventing future offenses by discouraging potential offenders

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10
Q

What is the goal of rehabilitation in punishment?

A

To integrate the defendant back into society to prevent future crimes

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11
Q

What is incapacitation in the context of punishment?

A

Locking up individuals to prevent them from committing further crimes

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12
Q

What are the costs considered in utilitarian punishment theory?

A
  • Financial costs
  • Social costs
  • Societal costs
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13
Q

What is the retributive (deontological) framework?

A

Punishment is justified independent of its social utility; it is based on moral culpability

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14
Q

According to Moore, why is punishment justified?

A

Because the person who commits the crime deserves it

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15
Q

What does the ‘Eye for an Eye’ principle signify in retributive theory?

A

Suffering is deserved because a person did something wrong

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16
Q

What is unique about hybrid theories of punishment?

A

They combine retributive limits with consequentialist reasoning to determine punishment

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17
Q

What was the outcome of People v. Du regarding sentencing?

A

Defendant received probation instead of jail time due to unusual case factors

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18
Q

What does the 8th Amendment’s proportionality clause entail?

A

A sentence must be ‘grossly disproportionate’ to violate the clause

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19
Q

What is the three-factor test for analyzing the proportionality of a sentence?

A
  • Gravity of the offense
  • Comparison of punishment with sentences imposed on others
  • Comparison of sentences for the same crime in other jurisdictions
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20
Q

What is the principle of legality?

A

Ensures individuals can obtain notice of prescribed conduct and protects against arbitrary state action

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21
Q

What is the ‘void for vagueness’ doctrine?

A

Criminal statutes must be clear enough to give adequate notice and avoid arbitrary enforcement

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22
Q

What does the ex post facto clause prohibit?

A

Statutes that punish actions retroactively

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23
Q

What is the significance of the Mendoza-Martinez factors?

A

Guidelines for determining if a statute acts like a criminal statute

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24
Q

What is the cardinal rule of statutory interpretation?

A

Determine the intent of the legislature

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25
Q

What are the steps in Oregon statutory interpretation according to the PGE/Gains method?

A
  • Examine text/context of statute
  • Examine legislative history
  • Apply general maxims of statutory construction
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26
Q

What does ‘ejusdem generis’ mean in statutory interpretation?

A

A principle that limits general terms to things of the same kind as those specifically enumerated

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27
Q

What is the significance of the Gains decision in relation to legislative history?

A

Prior to Gains, Oregon courts only examined legislative history if the intent was not obvious from the text/context inquiry.

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28
Q

What is no longer a prerequisite to consider legislative history offered by the parties?

A

Ambiguity in the text of statute.

29
Q

What are general maxims of statutory construction?

A

Broad principles relied on in past cases to interpret statutes.

30
Q

What is the principle of ejusdem generis?

A

When a nonspecific phrase follows a list of items, the nonspecific phrase refers to other items of the same kind.

31
Q

What is the primary goal of statutory interpretation?

A

Determine the intent of the legislature.

32
Q

What is Actus Reus?

A

Physical component of a crime.

33
Q

What is Mens Rea?

A

Mental component of a crime.

34
Q

What does the term ‘strict liability’ refer to?

A

Crimes that do not require proof of mens rea.

35
Q

What is the ‘omission’ in the definition of actus reus?

A

The failure to get rid of something possessed.

36
Q

What does the 8th Amendment prohibit in relation to criminalization?

A

Criminalization of mere states of being.

37
Q

What case established that a state statute criminalizing addiction was unconstitutional?

A

Robinson v. California (1962).

38
Q

What is the rule regarding ignorance of the law in criminal defense?

A

Ignorance of the law is generally not a valid defense.

39
Q

What must a defendant prove in a mistake of law defense?

A

The mistaken belief must be based on an official statement of the law.

40
Q

What is the ‘but-for’ test in causation?

A

A test for factual causation.

41
Q

What is proximate causation?

A

Whether the outcome/result was reasonably foreseeable.

42
Q

What is ‘malice aforethought’ in the context of murder?

A

Unlawfully causing death with intent to kill or awareness of causing death.

43
Q

What is the difference between express and implied malice?

A

Express involves intent to kill; implied involves extreme recklessness.

44
Q

What is voluntary manslaughter?

A

Murder mitigated by legally adequate provocation.

45
Q

What is involuntary manslaughter?

A

Unlawfully causing death with criminal negligence.

46
Q

What is the legal definition of burglary?

A

Breaking and entering the dwelling house of another at night with intent to commit a felony.

47
Q

What constitutes the actus reus in the context of possession?

A

Knowingly procuring or receiving the thing possessed.

48
Q

What is the significance of the case Muscarello v. United States?

A

Defined ‘carries a firearm’ to include possession in a vehicle.

49
Q

What is the standard for determining mens rea when it is not explicitly stated?

A

Presume mens rea unless clearly stated otherwise.

50
Q

What is the rule regarding mens rea in public welfare offenses?

A

They are typically strict liability offenses.

51
Q

What are the four levels of mens rea according to the Model Penal Code?

A
  • Purposely
  • Knowingly
  • Recklessly
  • Negligently
52
Q

What does the term ‘general intent’ refer to?

A

The basic mental state needed to commit a crime.

53
Q

What is extreme recklessness also known as?

A

Depraved indifference, abandon and malignant heart

54
Q

Define voluntary manslaughter.

A

Murder that is mitigated by legally adequate provocation (heat of passion)

55
Q

What constitutes involuntary manslaughter?

A

Unlawfully causing the death of a human being with criminal negligence

56
Q

In State v. Guthrie, what was the key issue regarding premeditation?

A

There must be evidence that the Defendant considered and weighed his decision to kill

57
Q

What was the holding in State v. Guthrie regarding premeditation?

A

There must be some period between the formation of the intent to kill and the actual killing

58
Q

What was the main issue in Midgett v. State?

A

Is the evidence of premeditation and deliberation sufficient to support a conviction of first-degree murder?

59
Q

What was the conclusion of Midgett v. State regarding first-degree murder?

A

A conviction requires deliberate and premeditated killing; evidence of ongoing abuse was insufficient

60
Q

What are the five categories under old common law for voluntary manslaughter?

A
  • Aggravated assault or battery
  • Seeing a serious crime against a close relative
  • Illegal arrest
  • Mutual combat
  • Seeing wife in act of adultery
61
Q

What is the subjective component of the ‘reasonable person’ test in voluntary manslaughter?

A

Defendant actually acted in heat of passion

62
Q

What is the objective component of the ‘reasonable person’ test?

A

Facts and circumstances were sufficient to provoke a reasonable person to act from passion rather than reason

63
Q

What does the causal connection in the ‘reasonable person’ test refer to?

A

Connection between provocation, passion, and killing

64
Q

In People v. Berry, what was the nature of the provocation that could suffice for manslaughter?

A

Verbal provocation may be sufficient

65
Q

What is the mens rea for MPC negligent homicide?

A

Defendant failed to perceive that her conduct created a substantial and unjustifiable risk of death

66
Q

What is the basic formula for felony murder under old common law?

A

Death + felony = murder

67
Q

What additional formula applies for involuntary manslaughter?

A

Death + misdemeanor = involuntary manslaughter

68
Q

What does the MPC state about felony murder regarding recklessness?

A

Recklessness and indifference are presumed because they are engaged in felonious behavior