Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the perspectives of Lifespan developmental psychology?

A

1.Multidirectional – Development doesn’t go in a straight line. People grow in some ways and decline in others. For example, as you get older, you might get better at solving problems but slower at remembering names.

  1. Multicontextual – Many different situations affect development, like where you live, your family, or historical events. A child growing up in a wealthy city will have different experiences than one in a poor rural area.
  2. Multicultural – Culture shapes how people grow and behave. For example, in some cultures, children are taught to be independent, while in others, they are encouraged to rely on their families.
  3. Multidisciplinary – Many fields of study help us understand development, like psychology, biology, and sociology. A psychologist studies emotions, a biologist looks at brain changes, and a sociologist examines how society influences people.
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2
Q

What are the developmental domains?

A

Biosocial Domain: Studies the influence of social factors on biological development.

Cognitive Domain: Studies the thought processes, perceptual abilities, and language that influence our behavior and development.

Psychosocial Domain: Studies the interpersonal relationships that influence development.

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3
Q

What are the factors that affect development?

A
  1. Internal factors: things that are unique to the individual that can influence development.
  2. External factors: things that are outside of the individual that can influence development.
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4
Q

How do we learn?

A

Habituation & Dishabituation: These are forms of non-associative learning, where a person or animal changes their response to a stimulus without linking it to a reward or punishment.

• Classical Conditioning (Pavlov): A form of associative learning, where a neutral stimulus becomes linked to a response (e.g., Little Albert learning to fear a white rat).

• Operant Conditioning (Skinner): Another form of associative learning, where behavior is shaped by rewards or punishments.

• Social Learning Theory (Bandura): A form of observational learning, where people learn by watching others (e.g., children imitating aggressive behavior in the Bobo doll experiment).

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5
Q

What is ecological approach and who was it discovered by?

A

Definition: development occurs as a result of interactions with the environment.
Urie Brofenbrenner

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6
Q

What are the six levels of ecological approach?

A
  1. Individual – The person’s unique characteristics, such as genetics, personality, and health. Example: A child’s temperament or cognitive abilities.
  2. Microsystem – The immediate environment where direct interactions happen, such as family, school, and friends. Example: A child’s relationship with their parents and teachers.
  3. Mesosystem – The connections between microsystems. Example: How a child’s home life affects their school performance.
  4. Exosystem – Indirect environments that impact development, even if the person isn’t directly involved. Example: A parent’s stressful job affecting family life.
  5. Macrosystem – The broader cultural and societal influences, such as traditions, laws, and economic conditions. Example: Growing up in a country that values individualism vs. collectivism.
  6. Chronosystem – The role of time and major life events in shaping development. Example: Experiencing a parents’ divorce or living through a global pandemic.
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7
Q

What is Freuds theory of psychosexual development?

A

Personality develops based on changes in the libido (sexual energy) and fixation on erogenous zones and is determined by the first 3 stages and is fixed by the age of 5.

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8
Q

What are the stages of psychosexual development?

A
  1. Oral Stage (0–1 year)
    • Erogenous Zone: Mouth
    • Key Activities: Sucking, biting, and swallowing
    • Developmental Task: Weaning off breastfeeding or bottle-feeding
    • Fixation Outcome: Overindulgence or frustration may lead to oral fixation, such as smoking, nail-biting, overeating, or excessive dependency in adulthood.
  2. Anal Stage (1–3 years)
    • Erogenous Zone: Anus
    • Key Activities: Bowel and bladder control (toilet training)
    • Developmental Task: Learning self-control and independence
    • Fixation Outcome:
    • Anal-retentive personality: Overly organized, stubborn, perfectionistic (if toilet training is too strict).
    • Anal-expulsive personality: Messy, careless, rebellious (if toilet training is too lenient).
  3. Phallic Stage (3–6 years)
    • Erogenous Zone: Genitals
    • Key Activities: Exploration of genital differences, attachment to the opposite-sex parent
    • Developmental Task: Resolving the Oedipus complex (boys’ unconscious desire for their mother) and the Electra complex (girls’ unconscious desire for their father).
    • Fixation Outcome: Unresolved conflicts may lead to excessive vanity, sexual anxiety, or problems with authority in adulthood.
  4. Latency Stage (6–12 years)
    • Erogenous Zone: Dormant sexual feelings
    • Key Activities: Socialization, learning, and skill development
    • Developmental Task: Developing friendships, school performance, and cultural values
    • Fixation Outcome: Freud believed this stage was a period of relative calm, but lack of social development could result in difficulties with relationships later in life.
  5. Genital Stage (12+ years, puberty onward)
    • Erogenous Zone: Genitals (mature sexual interests)
    • Key Activities: Developing romantic relationships, forming a stable identity
    • Developmental Task: Establishing intimate relationships and contributing to society
    • Fixation Outcome: If earlier conflicts were not resolved, individuals may struggle with intimacy, sexual dysfunction, or forming meaningful relationships.
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9
Q

What is psychosocial theory and who discovered it?

A

Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development consists of eight stages, each defined by a key conflict that influences psychological growth. Each stage centers on a challenge that must be faced to develop a specific strength or virtue.

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10
Q

What are the stages of psychosocial development?

A
  1. Trust vs. Mistrust (Infancy, 0–1 year)
    Infants learn whether they can trust their caregivers and the world. Successful resolution leads to trust and hope.
    1. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (Early Childhood, 1–3 years)
      Children learn to assert their independence. Success builds confidence, while failure leads to self-doubt.
    2. Initiative vs. Guilt (Preschool, 3–6 years)
      Children start to take initiative and make decisions. Success leads to a sense of purpose, while failure leads to guilt.
    3. Industry vs. Inferiority (School Age, 6–12 years)
      Children develop competence in various skills. Success fosters a sense of industry, while failure results in feelings of inferiority.
    4. Identity vs. Role Confusion (Adolescence, 12–18 years)
      Teenagers explore their identities. Successful resolution leads to a strong sense of self, while failure results in confusion about who they are.
    5. Intimacy vs. Isolation (Young Adulthood, 18–40 years)
      Young adults form intimate relationships. Success leads to love and connection, while failure results in isolation.
    6. Generativity vs. Stagnation (Middle Adulthood, 40–65 years)
      Adults focus on contributing to society and future generations. Success leads to generativity, while failure results in stagnation.
    7. Integrity vs. Despair (Late Adulthood, 65+ years)
      Older adults reflect on their lives. Success leads to a sense of integrity and wisdom, while failure leads to regret and despair.
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11
Q

What is Cognitive development and who discovered it?

A

Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development focuses on how children’s thinking evolves in stages as they interact with the world around them. Piaget believed that children actively construct their understanding of the world through their experiences, and their cognitive abilities change as they grow.

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12
Q

What are the stages of cognitive development?

A
  1. Sensorimotor Stage (Birth to 2 years)
    • Key Feature: Infants explore the world through their senses and motor actions.
    • Cognitive Development: Development of object permanence (understanding that objects continue to exist even when not seen).
    • Example: A baby learns that a toy hidden under a blanket still exists, even though they can no longer see it.
  2. Preoperational Stage (2 to 7 years)
    • Key Feature: Children begin to use symbols, like words and images, to represent objects and ideas.
    • Cognitive Development: Egocentrism (difficulty in seeing things from other perspectives) and centration (focusing on one aspect of a situation, ignoring others).
    • Example: A child may think that because they know something, everyone else must know it too (egocentrism). They might also focus on the height of a glass of water but ignore its width (centration).
  3. Concrete Operational Stage (7 to 11 years)
    • Key Feature: Children develop logical thinking and can perform operations on concrete objects.
    • Cognitive Development: Mastery of conservation (understanding that quantity doesn’t change even if its appearance changes) and reversibility (understanding that objects can be changed and then returned to their original form).
    • Example: A child understands that if you pour water from one glass into another, the amount of water stays the same, even though the shape of the glass has changed.
  4. Formal Operational Stage (12 years and up)
    • Key Feature: Adolescents begin to think abstractly and logically about hypothetical situations.
    • Cognitive Development: Ability to think about abstract concepts, reason logically, and solve complex problems.
    • Example: An adolescent can think about hypothetical scenarios, such as considering the potential outcomes of various actions in a complex situation.
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13
Q

What is zone of proximal development and who discovered it?

A

Refers to the range of tasks that a child can perform with the help of a more knowledgeable person, such as a teacher, parent, or peer, but cannot yet complete independently. The ZPD lies between what the child can do alone and what they cannot do, even with assistance. (Another word is scaffolding)
Discovered by: lev vygotsky

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14
Q

What is moral development and who discovered it?

A

Moral development refers to the process by which individuals learn to distinguish between right and wrong, develop values, and make ethical decisions. It is influenced by cognitive, emotional, and social factors, and it progresses as people grow older and gain experience.
Discovered by: Lawrence Kolhberg

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15
Q

What are the stages of moral development?

A

• Level 1: Preconventional Morality (typically seen in young children):
• Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment Orientation: People make decisions based on avoiding punishment. For example, a child might not take a cookie because they fear getting in trouble.
• Stage 2: Self-Interest Orientation: People make decisions based on what benefits them personally. For example, a child might share their toy only if they expect to get something in return.

• Level 2: Conventional Morality (adolescents and many adults):
• Stage 3: Interpersonal Accord and Conformity: Moral decisions are based on gaining approval from others and maintaining good relationships. For example, a teenager might follow rules to be seen as “good” by their parents.
• Stage 4: Authority and Social Order: People follow laws and rules to maintain order in society. For example, an adult might follow traffic laws because it is important for the safety of everyone.

• Level 3: Postconventional Morality (few adults reach this level):
• Stage 5: Social Contract Orientation: People understand that laws and rules are based on mutual agreement for the greater good, but sometimes laws can be changed for the welfare of all. For example, someone might protest an unjust law.
• Stage 6: Universal Ethical Principles: Moral reasoning is based on abstract principles like justice, equality, and human rights. For example, someone might act against an unjust system, even if it’s illegal, because they believe it’s the morally right thing to do.

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16
Q

What are chromosomes made of?

A

Chromosomes are made up of genes, which are composed of DNA

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17
Q

How many chromosomes do human cells contain?

A

Human cells contain 23 matching pairs of chromosomes (46 total).

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18
Q

What is a genome?

A

A genome is the complete set of instructions to construct a living organism.

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19
Q

What are the two types of cell reproduction?

A

Mitosis and meiosis.

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20
Q

What is the primary function of mitosis?

A

Mitosis allows cells to replicate for growth and repair.

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21
Q

What is the primary function of meiosis?

A

Meiosis is the process by which sex cells (gametes) are created.

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22
Q

What is “crossing-over” in meiosis?

A

It is the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, increasing genetic diversity.

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23
Q

How many chromosomes do gametes contain?

A

23 single, unpaired chromosomes.

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24
Q

What determines the sex of a zygote?

A

The presence of an X or Y chromosome from the sperm.

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25
What chromosome do all ova contain?
All ova contain one X chromosome.
26
How do monozygotic (MZ) twins form?
They originate from the same zygote that splits into two identical zygotes.
27
How do dizygotic (DZ) twins form?
They result from two separate ova being fertilized by two different sperm.
28
What factors increase the likelihood of dizygotic twins?
In vitro fertilization, maternal age, and multiple births.
29
What is the difference between dominant and recessive genes?
Dominant genes are always expressed, while recessive genes are only expressed if paired with another recessive gene.
30
What is incomplete dominance?
A genetic pattern where both alleles influence the trait, such as in sickle cell anemia.
31
What is polygenic inheritance?
Traits influenced by multiple genes, such as height and intelligence.
32
What is genomic imprinting?
The expression of a gene depends on whether it is inherited from the mother or father.
33
What is a mutation?
A sudden change or abnormality in the structure of genes.
34
What is the range of reaction?
The concept that genes set limits on traits, but environment influences their expression.
35
What is canalization?
The idea that some traits are biologically programmed and can only be changed by powerful environmental forces.
36
What is an example of an environmental factor that can influence gene expression?
Diet, toxins, injuries, and parenting styles.
37
What are the three types of gene-environment correlations?
Passive, reactive, and active
38
What is the epigenetic framework?
The interaction between genes and environment that influences development.
39
What does "dorsal" refer to in brain anatomy?
The back side or top of the brain.
40
What does "ventral" refer to?
The stomach side or bottom of the brain.
41
What does "medial" mean?
Towards the middle.
42
What does "lateral" mean?
Away from the middle.
43
What does "anterior" mean in anatomical terms?
Towards the front.
44
What does "posterior" mean in anatomical terms?
Towards the back.
45
What is a horizontal section?
A cut made from the top down, separating the upper and lower parts of the brain.
46
What is a transverse section?
A cut perpendicular to the neuraxis.
47
What is a sagittal section?
A sideways cut that divides the brain into left and right halves.
48
Name the four lobes of the brain.
Frontal, Parietal, Temporal, Occipital.
49
What is the function of the frontal lobe?
It is involved in reasoning, problem-solving, and voluntary movement.
50
Which lobe is responsible for sensory information processing?
The parietal lobe.
51
What role does the temporal lobe play?
It processes auditory information and is involved in memory.
51
What is the primary function of the occipital lobe?
It processes visual information.
52
What is neuralation?
The process by which the neural tube forms from the neural plate.
52
At what stage does neural tube formation begin?
Around 18 days after fertilization.
53
What are the three layers of the embryonic disc?
Ectoderm, Mesoderm, and Endoderm.
54
What structure forms around the fluid-filled cavity in the neural tube?
The central nervous system (CNS).
55
What is spina bifida?
A condition where the spinal cord fails to close properly.
56
What is anencephaly?
A condition where the neural tube fails to close at the cephalic (head) end, leading to an underdeveloped brain and skull.
57
What are the three main initial swellings of the neural tube?
Forebrain, Midbrain, and Hindbrain.
58
What two structures does the forebrain divide into?
Telencephalon and Diencephalon.
59
What does the midbrain develop into?
The Mesencephalon.
60
What two structures does the hindbrain divide into?
Metencephalon and Myelencephalon.
61
What is synaptogenesis?
The formation of synaptic connections between neurons.
62
Why is synapse elimination important?
It helps refine neural circuits by removing unnecessary synapses.
63
What is selective cell death (apoptosis)?
A process where certain neurons die to enhance neural efficiency.
64
What is microcephaly?
A condition where the head and brain are smaller than normal.
65
What causes microcephaly?
Conditions like Fetal Alcohol Syndrome, Brachmann-de Lange Syndrome, and Williams Syndrome.
66
What is macrocephaly?
A condition where the head is abnormally large.
67
What is Down syndrome?
A genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21.
68
What is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
A metabolic disorder where the body cannot break down the amino acid phenylalanine.
69
What is Fragile X syndrome?
A genetic condition that causes intellectual disability, linked to the X chromosome.
70
What causes Fetal Alcohol Syndrome?
Prenatal exposure to alcohol.
71
What is brain plasticity?
The brain's ability to change and adapt due to experience and injury.
72
What are common symptoms of FAS?
Growth deficiencies, facial abnormalities, and cognitive impairments.
73
What happens when a brain injury occurs in childhood versus adulthood?
The developing brain has more plasticity and can recover better than an adult brain.
74
What is the main difference between psychological testing and psychological assessment?
Testing involves standardized measures, while assessment includes multiple methods like interviews, observations, and informal techniques.
75
Why are standardized procedures important in psychological testing?
They ensure consistency in test content, administration, and scoring to reduce examiner bias.
76
Name three main types of psychological assessments.
Norm-referenced tests, interviews, and observations.
77
What is the purpose of informal assessment procedures?
To gain insights into behavior through flexible and non-standardized methods.
78
What is the shape of a normal distribution in statistics?
A bell curve.
79
What does it mean if a test score is 2 SDs below the mean?
It may indicate a clinically significant delay or disorder.
80
How does standard deviation affect psychological test interpretation?
It helps determine how much an individual’s score deviates from the average population.
81
List some factors that can affect test performance in children.
Fatigue, anxiety, cultural background, environmental distractions.
82
Why is examiner behavior important in psychological testing
Nonverbal cues, rapport, and test administration skills can impact test validity.
83
What should an examiner be aware of when testing young children?
The need for flexibility, breaks, and a comfortable environment.
84
What is rapport in psychological assessment?
A positive relationship between examiner and child that encourages cooperation.
85
Name some effective techniques for establishing rapport.
Using acknowledgments, reflections, descriptive statements, and praise.
86
What behaviors should an examiner avoid when establishing rapport?
Sarcasm, lecturing, interrupting, commands, and lack of eye contact.
87
What are the three main types of interviews used in psychological assessment?
Unstructured, semi-structured, and structured.
88
What is the main advantage of an unstructured interview?
It allows children or parents to tell their story naturally.
89
What is a structured interview typically used for?
Standardized diagnosis and research.
90
Why might a structured interview interfere with rapport?
It limits flexibility and does not capture family interactions.
91
What are the main components of a developmental interview?
History of presenting problem, onset, duration, interventions attempted, prior assessments, parental observations.
92
When can confidentiality be breached?
If there is a threat to self or others, suspected abuse, or legal requirements.
93
What are common legal exceptions to confidentiality?
Homicidal threats, suicidal intent, abuse (physical/sexual), court orders, insurance requests.
94
What prenatal and perinatal factors are assessed in a developmental interview?
Pregnancy complications, labor and delivery details, birth weight, Apgar scores.
95
What are important medical history factors to consider?
Major illnesses, injuries, ear infections, neurological conditions, genetic disorders.
96
What developmental history is considered in young children?
Temperament, play behavior, aggression, interests.
97
What additional factors are assessed in adolescence?
Friendships, dating, family relationships, self-concept, drug/alcohol use, goals.
98
How are young children (under age 6) typically interviewed?
With their parents present, followed by a separate parent interview.
99
How are older children and adolescents usually interviewed?
Often as a family first, then separately.
100
What is an exception to parental presence in child interviews?
Cases involving suspected sexual abuse.
101
What aspects of behavior are observed during an assessment?
Interaction with parents, examiner, and test materials.
102
Why is attention and concentration assessed?
It helps determine cognitive and developmental functioning.
103
What are signs of age-appropriate behavior during testing?
Following directions, engaging with tasks, appropriate social responses.
104
What is informal assessment?
Non-standardized methods such as observations and open-ended questions.
105
What is multimodal assessment?
Using multiple sources (e.g., tests, interviews, observations) for a comprehensive evaluation.
106
What are the final steps in psychological assessment?
Integrating test data, making diagnostic decisions, and providing recommendations.
107
What key areas must a psychologist be knowledgeable in for effective assessment?
Psychological tests, psychopathology, interviewing, statistics, development, hypothesis testing, and self-awareness.
108
The ability to adjust testing conditions based on a child’s needs demonstrates: a) Standardization b) Ethical violations c) Flexibility d) Experimental bias
c) Flexibility
109
Which of the following is NOT a type of psychological assessment? a) IQ tests b) Observations c) Dream analysis d) Interviews
c) Dream analysis
110
What are the three stages of the prenatal period?
1. Germinal period (0-2 weeks), 2. Embryonic period (2-8 weeks) 3. Fetal period (week 9-birth).
111
Where does fertilization take place?
Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube.
112
What is a morula?
A morula is a ball of cells formed from the dividing zygote, resembling a mulberry.
113
What does the morula develop into?
The morula forms a cavity and becomes a blastocyst.
114
What happens during implantation?
The blastocyst implants into the uterine wall, and the primitive placenta begins to form.
115
What major brain structures have developed by 11 weeks of pregnancy?
the cerebrum, thalamus, parts of the brainstem (including the pons, cerebellum, and medulla oblongata) have developed.
116
What is the function of the cerebrum
The cerebrum is responsible for higher brain functions such as thought, memory, and voluntary movements.
117
What does the thalamus do?
The thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory and motor signals to the appropriate parts of the brain.
118
What is the role of the pons in the brainstem?
The pons helps with breathing, communication between different parts of the brain, and controlling facial movements.
119
How does the cerebellum contribute to brain function?
The cerebellum is involved in coordinating movement and balance.
120
What is the function of the medulla oblongata?
The medulla oblongata controls basic life functions like heart rate, breathing, and blood pressure.