Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Key feature of infantile amnesia

A

It involves adults failing to recall autobiographical memories of their early life

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2
Q

Mobile conjugate reinforcement paradigm

A

(Rovee-Collier, 1989) Babies 2 to 3 month old babies showed evidence of retention; learning was context specific; evidence of declarative memory in infants younger than 7 months

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3
Q

Deferred imitation task

A

(Meltzoff, 1985) 14-month-old infants showed evidence of deferred imitation; improvement in deferred imitation as age increases; other studies (i.e. Collie & Hayne, 1999) showed evidence of deferred imitation in 6-month-olds

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4
Q

Declarative memory in infants

A

Shows up almost immediately; only accessible to language; develops rapidly over the first two years of life

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5
Q

Four principles of infant memory development

A

(Hayne, 2004) 1. Older infants typically encode or store information faster than younger ones 2. Older infants remember information for longer retention intervals than younger ones 3. Older infants make use of a greater variety of retrieval cues than do younger ones 4. Forgotten memories can be retrieved when a reminder is presented

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6
Q

Schacter and Moscovitch’s cognitive neuroscience theory of infant memory development (1984)

A

Implicit memory is controlled by an early-developming memory system in the brain that might be present at birth; Declarative memory depends on a late-developing memory system in the brain that reaches maturity between 8 to 10 months of age

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7
Q

Richmond and Nelson’s cognitive neuroscience theory of infant memory development (2007)

A

Studied the areas of the brain that are involved in implicit memory and in declarative memory and when they develop

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8
Q

Why does declarative memory in children become better during the process of development?

A

(Siegler, 1998) 1. Capacity of short-term memory or working memory may increase over the years 2. Children develop more memory strategies as they develop, and they learn to use those strategies more effectively 3. Older children possess more knowledge than younger ones, and this makes it easer for them to learn and to remember new information 4. Metamemory develops over the course of childhood

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9
Q

Developmental changes of working memory

A

Gathercole, Pickering, Ambridge, and Wearing (2004); Progressive improvements year by year in all three components of the working memory system; the structure of working memory was fairly constant across the years of childhood

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10
Q

Metamemory

A

Knowledge about one’s own memory and an ability to regulate its functioning

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11
Q

Verbatim trace

A

(Brainerd and Reyna, 2004); a memory trace that contains accurate and detailed information about to-be-remembered stimuli

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12
Q

Gist memory trace

A

(Brainerd and Reyna, 2004); a memory trace that contains a considerable amount of semantic information about to-be-remembered stimuli

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13
Q

When does increased age become associated with errors in memory?

A

(Brainerd and Reyna, 2004); 1. The learning task leads older children to produce more gist memory traces than younger ones 2. The memory test requires verbatim recall or recognition 3. Greater gist memory increases the likelihood of false recall or recognitions of information very similar in meaning to the to-be-recalled information

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14
Q

When is using gist memory a disadvantage?

A

When the memory test requires verbatim recall or recognition

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15
Q

Infantile Amnesia according to Howe and Courage (1997)

A

Infants can only form autobiographical memories, after they have developed a sense of self to whom events having personal significance can occur

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16
Q

Infantile Amnesia according to Fivush and Nelson (2004)

A

Social cultural developmental theory; language and culture both play central roles in the early development of autobiographical memory

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17
Q

Why do children produce systematically distorted reports of events when exposed to suggestive influences?

A

(Roebers & Schneider, 2005); Social compliance: young children might yield to social pressure and a lack of social support even when their own recollection is accurate; Cognitive incompetence: young children might come to believe their own distorted memory reports because of limitations in processing, attention, and language

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18
Q

Anterograde amnesia

A

A problem in encoding, storing, or retrieving information that can be used in the future

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19
Q

Retrograde amnesia

A

A problem accessing events that happened in the past

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20
Q

Post-traumatic amnesia (PTA)

A

Patients have difficulty forming new memories. Often follows a severe concussive head injury and tends to improve with time

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21
Q

Transient global amnesia (TGA)

A

Apparently normal individuals suddenly develop severe problems in forming and retrieving new memories. The cause is unknown and the condition tends to resolve relatively rapidly.

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22
Q

Classic amnesia profile

A

Preserved intellect and language coupled with a dense impairment in the capacity for episodic learning, whether tested visually or verbally, and whether by recall or recognition

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23
Q

Possible causes of amnesia

A

Bilateral damage to the temporal lobes and hippocampus, Korsakoff syndrome, prolonged anoxia, and encephalitis resulting from brain infection

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24
Q

Korsakoff syndrome

A

Patients have difficulty learning new information, although events from the past are recalled. There is a tendency to invent material to fill memory blanks. Most common cause is alcoholism, especially when this has resulted in a deficiency of vitamin B1.

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25
Q

Do amnesiacs show normal classical conditioning?

A

Yes

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26
Q

Working memory in amnesiacs

A

Preserved

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27
Q

Semantic memory in amnesiacs

A

Preserved; although the capacity to add new information to semantic memory is typically defective

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28
Q

Implicit memory in amnesiacs

A

Preserved, as measured by studies of priming, procedural learning, or classical conditioning (Warrington and Weiskrantz, 1968; Corkin, 1968; Cohen & Squire, 1980)

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29
Q

Rate of forgetting in amnesiacs

A

Unimpaired

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30
Q

Source amnesia

A

Characteristic difficulty that amnesic patients experience in recollecting the source of a given memory

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31
Q

Ribot’s law

A

Older memories are more durable than those acquired more recently

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32
Q

Personal semantic memory

A

Factual knowledge about one’s own past

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33
Q

Assumption of the standard model of retrograde amnesia

A

The hippocampus and surrounding regions play a crucial role in memory consolidation. These regions also act as an intermediary, detecting and storing novel information at a relatively rapid rate, then holding it while it is gradually transferred to more cortical areas.

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34
Q

System consolidation

A

The process whereby information is consolidated within the brain by a process of transfer from one anatomically based system to another

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35
Q

Multiple Trace Hypothesis

A

(Nadel and Moscovitch, 1997, 1998); Alternative theory of retrograde amnesia; argues that the hippocampus plays a role in both retrieval and encoding; assumes that the process of long-term consolidation sets up recorded traces of experience within the hippocampal complex, rather than the neocortex.

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36
Q

Traumatic brain injury (TBI)

A

Caused by a blow or jolt to the head, or by a penetrating head injury. Normal brain function is disrupted. Severity ranges from “mild” to “severe”

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37
Q

What happens when patients recover from the temporary condition of PTA?

A

Typically, first recover personal knowledge, place, and temporal orientation; persistent problems of episodic memory tend to remain

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38
Q

Positivity bias

A

The tendency, increasing over the lifespan, to recall more pleasant memories than either neutral or unpleasant ones

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39
Q

Mather and Carstensen (2005)

A

Argue that as we get older and life grows short, people focus more on maintaining a sense of well-being, and less on goals concerning knowledge and the future

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40
Q

Emotion regulation

A

Goal-driven monitoring, evaluating, altering, and gating one’s emotional reactions and memories about emotional experiences

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41
Q

Repression

A

In psychoanalytic theory, a psychological defense mechanism that banishes unwanted memories, ideas, and feelings into the unconscious in an effort to reduce conflict and psychic pain. Theoretically, it can be either conscious or non conscious.

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42
Q

Intentional forgetting

A

Forgetting arising from processes initiated by a conscious goal to forget it

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43
Q

Psychogenic amnesia

A

Profound and surprising episodes of forgetting the events of one’s life arising from psychological factors, rather than biological or dysfunction.

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44
Q

Directed forgetting

A

The tendency fo an instruction to forget recently experienced items to induce memory impairment for those items

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45
Q

Item-method directed forgetting findings

A

(Basden) Recall for to-be-forgetten words is often substantially impaired, relative to to-be-remembered items; reflects deficits in episodic encoding

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46
Q

Explanation behind findings of item-method directed forgetting

A

Remember instruction: triggers elaborate semantic encoding; Forget instruction: gives permission to simply release the word from rehearsal

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47
Q

List-method directed forgetting findings

A

(Basden) 1. When participants believe that they can forget the first list, they often do much better at recalling the second list on the final test, compared to the remember group, 2. “Forget” instructions impair people’s recall of items from the first list, compared to performance in the remember condition, reflecting a cost of a forget instruction; reflects a retrieval deficit

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48
Q

Mechanisms underlying list-method directed forgetting

A

Retrieval inhibition hypothesis and context shift hypothesis

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49
Q

Retrieval inhibition hypothesis

A

An instruction to forget the first list inhibits list-one items, impairing recall; inhibition merely limits retrieval by reducing activation of unwanted items

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50
Q

Context shift hypothesis

A

Instructions to forget mentally separate the to-be-forgotten items from the second list; to-be-forgotten items should be recalled more poorly because the new context is a poor retrieval cue for them

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51
Q

Motivated context shift

A

Occurs as an effort to limit awareness of a memory by avoiding contexts that may act as cues for the memory.

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52
Q

Why does using a motivated context shift work?

A
  1. By avoiding reminders, the person deprives a memory of retrievals that ordinarily strengthen and preserve it (Erdelyi, 2006); 2. By changing environmental context, the incidental context within which one operates should mismatch the one in which the event took place, hindering retrieval
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53
Q

Cognitive control

A

The ability to flexibly control thoughts in accordance with our goals, including our ability to stop unwanted thoughts from rising to consciousness

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54
Q

Think/no-think (TNT) paradigm

A

A procedure designed to study the ability to volitionally suppress retrieval of a memory when confronted with reminders.

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55
Q

Total memory control effect

A

(Anderson and Levy, 2008); a person’s intention to control retrieval alters retention; occurs as a result of TNT

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56
Q

Positive control effect

A

The enhanced memory for “think” items above baseline recall; caused by intentional recall; occurs as a result of TNT

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57
Q

Negative control effect

A

The memory deficit for “no think” items below baseline recall; due to participants intentionally shutting down retrieval; occurs as a result of TNT

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58
Q

Brain mechanisms underlying retrieval suppression

A

(Anderson et al, 2004); Reduced hippocampal activity, indicates that people can intentionally regulate hippocampal activation to disengage recollection

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59
Q

Psychogenic fugue

A

A form of psychogenic amnesia typically lasting a few hours or days following severe trauma, in which afflicted individuals forget their entire life history including who they are

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60
Q

Spontaneous recovery

A

(Pavlov, 1927; Rescorla, 2004); the term arising from the classical conditioning literature give to the reemergence of a previously extinguished conditioned response after a delay; similarly, forgotten declarative memories have been observed to recover over time

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61
Q

Reminiscence

A

(Ballard); the remembering again of the forgotten, without learning or a gradual process of improvement in the capacity to revive past experiences

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62
Q

Hypermnesia

A

(Erdelyi); The improvement in recall performance arising from the repeated testing sessions on the same material

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63
Q

What factors affect hypermnesia?

A

Visualization, reconstruction; largest on free recall tests; increases with increasing number of recall tests

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64
Q

Incidental forgetting

A

Memory failures occurring without the intention to forget

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65
Q

Motivated forgetting

A

A broad term encompassing intentional forgetting as well as forgetting triggered by motivations, but lacking conscious intention

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66
Q

Forgetting curve/retention function

A

The logarithmic decline in memory retention as a function of time elapsed, first described by Ebbinghaus

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67
Q

Permastore

A

(Bahrick, 1984); used to describe stable language learning performance; appears that forgetting occurs only up to a certain point, but beyond that memory traces appear to be frozen

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68
Q

What is overall retention determined by?

A

The level of initial learning

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69
Q

Accessibility

A

The ease with which a stored memory can be retrieved at a given point in time

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70
Q

Availability

A

The distinction indicating whether a trace is or is not stored in memory

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71
Q

Jost’s law

A

If two memories are equally strong at a given time, then the oldest of the two will be more durable and forgotten less rapidly

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72
Q

Consolidation

A

The time-dependent process by which a new trace is gradually woven into the fabric of memory and by which its components and their interconnections are cemented together

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73
Q

Synaptic consolidation

A

The imprint of experience takes time to solidify because it requires structural changes in the synaptic connections between neurons

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74
Q

Systemic consolidation

A

The hippocampus is initially required for memory storage and retrieval but its contribution diminishes over time until the cortex is capable of retrieving the memory on its own

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75
Q

How can you keep personal memories resistant to forgetting?

A

Retrieve them periodically

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76
Q

Interference

A

The phenomenon in which the retrieval of a memory can be disrupted by the presence of related traces in memory

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77
Q

Trace decay

A

The gradual weakening of memories resulting from the mere passage of time

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78
Q

Factors that encourage incidental forgetting

A

Passage of time, contextual fluctuation, interference

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79
Q

Contextual fluctuation

A

The gradual drift in incidental context over time, such that distant memories deviate from the current context more so than newer memories, thereby diminishing the former’s potency as a retrieval cue for older memories

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80
Q

Competition assumption

A

(Anderson, Bjork, and Bjork, 1994); The theoretical proposition that the memories associated to a shared retrieval cue automatically impede one another’s retrieval when the cue is presented

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81
Q

Cue-overload principle

A

(Watkins, 1978); The observed tendency for recall success to decrease as the number of to-be-remembered items associated to a cue increases

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82
Q

Retroactive interference

A

The tendency for more recently acquired information to impede retrieval of similar older memories

83
Q

Findings related to retroactive interference

A

(Barnes and Underwood, 1959); 1. Introducing a highly related second list impairs the ability to recall items from the first list compared to the control 2. Increased training on the second-list items continues to harm retention of first-list items further, as training progresses

84
Q

Proactive Interference

A

The tendency for older memories to interfere with the retrieval of more recent experiences and knowledge

85
Q

Findings related to proactive interference

A

(Underwood, 1957); 1. People are more likely to forget items from a list when a prior list has been studied 2. The amount of interference is greatest when the two lists share a common cue 3. Interference effects are most severe when recall is tested rather than recognition

86
Q

Part-set cuing impairment

A

(Mueller and Brown, 1977); The tendency for target recall to be impaired by the provision of retrieval cues drawn from the same set of items in memory

87
Q

Collaborative inhibition

A

(Weldon and Belinger, 1997); A phenomenon in which a group of individuals remembers significantly less material collaboratively than does the combined performance of each group member individually when recalling alone

88
Q

Retrieval-induced forgetting

A

(Anderson et al., 1994); The tendency for the retrieval of some target items from long-term memory to impair the later ability to recall other items related to those targets

89
Q

Retrieval practice paradigm

A

A procedure used to study retrieval-induced forgetting

90
Q

Findings associated with RIF

A

Retrieval practice enhances recall of practiced items but it impairs related items; Selectively reviewing facts impairs nonreviewed material, particularly related material

91
Q

Associative blocking

A

(Anderson, et al, 1994); A theoretical process hypothesized to explain interference effects during retrieval, according to which a cue fails to elicit a target trace because it repeatedly elicits a stronger competitor, leading people to abandon efforts to retrieve the target.

92
Q

Core assumption of the blocking hypothesis

A

The idea that memories compete for access to awareness when their shared cue is provided

93
Q

Strength-dependent competition

A

The degree of interference should increase as the cue grows more strongly associated to the competition

94
Q

How does blocking explain the cue-overload principle

A

The more memories associated to a cue, the more likely it should be to accidentally retrieve a wrong answer, setting the blocking process in motion.

95
Q

Unlearning hypothesis of retroactive interference

A

(Melton and Irwin, 1940); The association between a stimulus and a trace will be weakened whenever that trace is retrieved inappropriately; involves punishment of the inappropriate retrieval

96
Q

How does the unlearning hypothesis explain RIF and retroactive interference?

A

During retrieval practice, competing items intrude and are punished

97
Q

Inhibition hypothesis

A

(Levy and Anderson, 2002); The need to overcome interference during retrieval triggers inhibition; active retrieval on practiced items should be necessary to induce forgetting of competitors

98
Q

Properties of RIF

A
  1. Cue independence 2. Retrieval specificity 3. Strength independence 4. Interference dependence
99
Q

Cue independence

A

The tendency for forgetting caused by inhibition to generalize to novel test cues on the independent probe test

100
Q

Retrieval specificity

A

Active retrieval from long-term memory is necessary to induce forgetting of related information

101
Q

Strength independence

A

The degree to which competitors are strengthened by retrieval practice is unrelated to the size of the RIF deficit. Thus, strengthening an item by presenting the intact pairing does not induce RIF, whereas engaging in an impossible retrieval attempt still results in forgetting of unpracticed competitors

102
Q

Interference dependence

A

Interference by competitors during retrieval of targets is necessary for RIF of those competitors to occur. Therefore, high-frequency competitors, which pose greater competition than low-frequency competitors are more likely to be inhibited than vice versa.

103
Q

Retrieval

A

The process of recovering a target memory based on one or more cues, subsequently bringing that target into awareness

103
Q

Inhibitory control view of forgetting

A

Much of the forgetting that we experience arises from the need to control the retrieval process in the face of competition. It is the process by which we combat interference that precipitates forgetting, not the mere presence of other traces in memory

104
Q

Retrieval cues

A

Snippets of information that allow you to access a memory

105
Q

Associations

A

Structural linkages between traces that vary in strength

106
Q

Content addressable

A

Any aspect of the content of a memory can serve as a reminder that could access the experience

107
Q

Activation level

A

The variable internal state of a memory trace that contributes to its accessibility at a given state.

108
Q

Spreading activation

A

“Energy” flowing through connections linking traces

109
Q

When does a trace’s activation level increase?

A
  1. When something related to it is perceived in the world 2. When attention is focused directly on the trace
110
Q

Encoding specificity principle

A

The more similar the cues available at retrieval are to the conditions present at encoding, the more effective the cues will be

111
Q

Research on dual cuing found that . . .

A

Having two cues is often far more beneficial than you would expect than if you simply added the probability of retrieving the target from each cue separately

112
Q

Retrieval mode

A

The cognitive set, or frame of mind, that orients a person towards the act of retrieval, ensuring that stimuli are interpreted ad retrieval cues

113
Q

According to research on retrieval mode, for retrieval to be effective it is necessary . . .

A

To adopt a cognitive set that ensures that stimuli will be processed as probes of episodic memory

114
Q

Context cues

A

Retrieval causes that specify aspects of the conditions under which a desired target was encoded, including the location and time of the event

115
Q

Mood context

A

The emotional state that a person was in when the event took place

116
Q

Physiological context

A

The pharmacological/physical state that one has thought about the temporal vicinity of the event

117
Q

Cognitive context

A

A particular collection of concepts that one has thought about in the temporal vicinity of the event

118
Q

Direct or explicit memory tests

A

Tests that ask people to retrieve their past; require context as a cue

119
Q

Free recall

A

Relies on context the most heavily because people must retrieve an entire set of studied items without overt cues, freely; necessitates the use of strategies for generalizing the answers in some order

120
Q

Cued recall

A

Provides additional cues than free recall; focuses on particular items in memory; requires context as a cue, but context is supplemented with specific information that focuses search

121
Q

Indirect memory tests

A

Memory tests that measure the influence of experience

122
Q

Repetition priming

A

Enhanced processing of a stimulus arising from recent encounters with that stimulus, a form of implicit memory

123
Q

Context dependent memory

A

The finding that memory benefits when the spatio-temporal, mood, physiological, or cognitive context at retrieval matches that present at encoding.

124
Q

Smith and Vela (2001) conclusions on context dependent memory

A
  1. People show sensitivity to environmental context when they need to pay some attention to the physical enveionment at encoding 2. Effects grow in size as the delay between encoding and retrieval increases 3. The mere mental reinstatement of context greatly reduces the effects
125
Q

When does state dependent memory show up?

A

When memory is tested by recall

126
Q

Mood congruent memory

A

Bias in recall of memories such that negative mood makes negative memories more readily available than positive and vice versa; does not affect the recall of neutral memories.

127
Q

Mood dependent memory

A

A form of context dependent effect whereby what is learned in a given mood, whether positive or negative, or neutral, is best recalled in that mood

128
Q

Reconstructive memory

A

An active and inferential process of retrieval whereby gaps in memory are filled in based on prior experience, logic, and goals

129
Q

Important points concerning reconstructive memory

A

(Baddeley); there is an automatic retrieval process whereby information pops up for no oblivious reason; when appropriate information does not spring to mind, we seem to take in fragments and use them like a detective might use a clue

130
Q

Recognition memory

A

A person’s ability to correctly decide whether they have encountered a stimulus previously in a particular context

131
Q

Signal detection theory

A

A model of recognition memory that proposes that memory traces have strength values that reflect their activation in memory, which dictate how familiar they seem; assumes that new items will have familiarity, although usually less than items that have been studied

132
Q

Why is signal detection theory important?

A

Provides mathematical tools for estimating a person’s ability to discriminate old from new items and their guessing strategies; provides a conceptualization of how recognition judgements take place

133
Q

Familiarity based recognition

A

A fast, automatic recognition process based on the perception of a memory’s strength. Independent of the contextual information characteristic of recollection

134
Q

Recollection

A

The slower, more attention demanding component of recognition memory in dual process models, which involves retrieval of contextual information about the memory

135
Q

Dual process theories if recognition

A

A class of recognition models that assumes that recognition memory judgements can be based on two independent forms of retrieval process: recollection and familiarity

136
Q

Remember/know procedure

A

A procedure used on recognition memory tests to separate the influences of familiarity and recollection on recognition performance

137
Q

Process dissociation procedure (PDP)

A

A technique for parceling out the contributions of recollection and familiarity within a recognition task

138
Q

Generalizations made by Yonelinas (2002) regarding retrieval processes

A
  1. Estimates of whether someone can recollect a stimulus appear to be far more sensitive to disruption by distraction
139
Q

Source monitoring

A

The process of examining the contextual origins of a memory in order to determine whether it was encoded from a particular source

140
Q

Autobiographical memory

A

Memory across the lifespan for both specific events and self-related information

141
Q

Four functions of autobiographical memory (proposed by Williams, Conway, and Cohen, 2002)

A
  1. Directive function 2. Social function 3. Self-representation 4. Cope with adversity
142
Q

Reminiscence bump

A

A tendency in participants over 40 to show a high rate of recollecting personal experiences from their late teens and 20s

143
Q

Life narrative

A

A coherent and integrated account of one’s life that is claimed to form the basis of autobiographical memory

144
Q

Autobiographical knowledge base

A

Facts about ourselves and our past that form the basis for autobiographical memory

145
Q

Components of autobiographical memory

A
  1. Experienced self 2. Knowledge base 3. Working self
146
Q

Working self

A

A concept proposed by Conway to account for the way in which autobiographical knowledge is accumulated and used; a way to encode information about what is, what was, and what can be

147
Q

Autonoetic consciousness

A

A term proposed by Tulving for self awareness, allowing the remembered to reflect on the contents of episodic memory

148
Q

Flashbulb memory

A

Term applied to the detailed and apparently highly accurate memory of dramatic experience

149
Q

“Now print” mechanism

A

The process underlying flashbulb memory development whereby extreme emotion was assumed to lead to an almost photographic representation of the event and its physical context

150
Q

Why do flashbulb memories develop?

A
  1. Highly dramatic incidents are highly distinctive, with little danger of being confused with other events 2. We tend to talk about such events and watch them repeatedly, rehearsing them 3. The events tend to be important events that potentially change some aspect of our lives and surroundings 4. The tend to give rise to emotions
151
Q

False memory syndrome

A

Term applied to cases, particularly of child abuse, in which the remember becomes convinced of an event that did not happen

152
Q

Reappearance hypothesis

A

The view that under certain circumstances, such as flashbulb memory and PTSD, memories can be created that later reappear in exactly the same way

153
Q

Why do involuntary memories occur?

A
  1. More recent 2. More arousing 3. More likely to occur for positive events 4. Likely to show the reminiscence bump
154
Q

Main characteristics of fugue

A
  1. Typically preceded by stress 2. Depressed mood is common 3. There is often a history of transient organically based amnesia 4. It is often difficult to discount the possibility of an ulterior motive
155
Q

Confabulation

A

Occurs when the autobiographical information is false but not intentionally misleading

156
Q

Delusions

A

False beliefs, often found in schizophrenic patients, that seem well founded to the patient but implausible to a neutral observer

157
Q

Hierarchical network model of semantic memory (Collins and Quillian, 1969)

A

Assumes that semantic memory is organized into a series of hierarchical networks; replaced by spreading activation model

158
Q

Spreading activation model (Collins and Loftus, 1975)

A

Assumes semantic memory is organized on the basis of semantic relatedness or semantic distance

159
Q

Sensory functional theory of semantic memory

A
  1. Living things are distinguished from each other mainly on the basis of their visual or perceptual properties 2. No living things are distinguished from each other mainly on the basis of their functional properties 3. There are three times as many visual units within the semantic system as there are functional units
160
Q

Cree and McRae’s multiple property approach to semantic memory

A

The brain is organized so that any given type of property is stored in a particular region of the brain

161
Q

Script

A

A type of scheme relating to the typical sequences of events in various common situations

162
Q

Frame

A

A type of scheme in which information about objects and their properties is stored

163
Q

Why is schematic knowledge useful?

A
  1. Allow us to form expectations 2. Play an important role in reading and listening because they allow us to fill in gaps so we can enhance our understanding 3. Assist us when we perceive visual scenes
164
Q

Consistency bias

A

People remember information consistent with their own views better than inconsistent information

165
Q

Three components of episodic memory

A
  1. A system that allows you to encode that particular experience in a way that will distinguish it from others 2. A method of storing events in a durable form 3. A method of searching the system and retrieving a particular memory
166
Q

Features of Bartlett’s theory of episodic memory

A
  1. Effort after meaning 2. Schemas
167
Q

Dual-coding hypothesis

A

Highly imageable words are easy to learn because they can be encoded both visually and verbally

168
Q

Levels of processing hypothesis

A

(Craik and Lockhart, 1972); Information is taken in by the organism and processed to varying depth

169
Q

Depth of processing

A

The proposal by Craik and Lockhart that the more deeply an item is processed, the better will be its retention

170
Q

How is depth of processing explained?

A

For positive items, the word to be recalled was integrated more closely with the encoding question, particularly in the semantic condition

171
Q

Transfer-appropriate processing (TAP)

A

Proposal that retention is best when the mode of encoding and mode of retrieval are the same

172
Q

Incidental learning

A

Learning situation in which the learner is unaware that a test will occur

173
Q

Maintenance rehearsal

A

A process of rehearsal whereby items are kept in mind but not processed more deeply

174
Q

Elaborative rehearsal

A

Process whereby items are not simply kept in mind, but are processed either more deeply or more elaborately

175
Q

Intentional learning

A

Learning when the learner knows that there will be test retention

176
Q

Which type of rehearsal enchances delayed long-term learning?

A

elaborative rehearsal

177
Q

Subjective organization

A

A strategy whereby a learner attempts to organize unstructured material so as to enhance learning

178
Q

What factors encourage chunking?

A

Semantic categories, hierarchical structure, linking information in a coherent stories, visual imagery

179
Q

Hemispheric Encoding and Retrieval Asymmetry hypothesis

A

Tulving’s proposal that the encoding of episodic memories involves the left frontal lobe whereas their retrieval depends on right frontal areas

180
Q

Modal model of working memory

A

Environmental input –> Sensory registers –> Short term store –> Long term store

181
Q

Short term store

A

a crucial part of the working memory system that is responsible for selecting and operating strategies, for rehearsal, and a global workspace

182
Q

Multicomponent model of working memory

A

Consists of phonological loop, the central executive, the visuo-spatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer

183
Q

Phonological loop

A

Term applied by Baddley and Hitch to the component of their model responsible for temporary storage of speech-like information

184
Q

Visuo-spaital sketchpad

A

A component of the Baddley and Hitch model that is assumed to be responsible for the temporary maintenance of visual and spatial information

185
Q

Central executive

A

An attentionally limited system that selects and manipulates material in the subsystems, serving as a controller that runs the whole show

186
Q

Semantic coding

A

Processing an item in terms of its meaning, hence relating it to other information in long-term memory

187
Q

What is the purpose of the phonological loop?

A

facilitates the acquisition of vocabulary, grammar and reading

188
Q

Episodic buffer

A

A component of the Baddley and Hitch working memory model, which assumes a multidimensional code, allowing various subcomponents of working memory to interact with long-term memory

189
Q

Visual cache

A

A component of Logie’s model of visual working memory. It forms a counterpart to the phonological store and is maintained by the inner scribe, a counterpart to phonological rehearsal

190
Q

Supervisory attentional system

A

A component of the model proposed by Norma and Shallice to account for the attentional control of action

191
Q

Binding

A

Term used to refer to the linking of features into objects or of events into coherent episodes

192
Q

How many chunks of information can the episodic buffer hold?

A

4

193
Q

How is information retrieved from the episodic buffer?

A

Through conscious awareness

194
Q

Cowan’s embedded processes theory of working memory

A

Working memory depends on activation that takes place with the LTM and is controlled by attentional processes

195
Q

Engle’s inhibitory control theory

A

Performance on a complex span task is made difficult by the need to protect the memory of the presented items from proactive interference

196
Q

Proactive interference

A

The tendency for earlier items to compete at retrieval with the items to be recalled

197
Q

Inhibition

A

A general term applied to mechanisms that suppress other activities

198
Q

Resource sharing

A

Use of limited attentional capacity to maintain two or more simultaneous activities

199
Q

Task switching

A

A process whereby a limited capacity system maintains activity on two or more tasks by switching between them

200
Q

Long term working memory

A

Concept proposed by Ericsson and Kintsch to account for the way in which long term memory can be used as a working memory to maintain complex cognitive activity

201
Q

Spatial working memory

A

System involved in temporarily retaining information regarding spatial location

202
Q

Object memory

A

System that temporarily retains information concerning visual features such as color and shape