Midterm Flashcards
Why did the Framers of the Constitution not create a direct democracy?
a. It was not the best way to resist manipulative politicians.
b. Direct democracy never been used before.
c. The people had expressed support for a government similar to a monarchy.
d. They were worried about the efficiency of ballot-counting.
e. They believed the rights of the minority would be suppressed by the dominating majority.
The people had expressed support for a government similar to a monarchy.
Which of the following best describes the government of the United States?
a. A direct democracy
b. A republic
c. A confederation
d. A constitutional monarchy e. An anarchy
A republic
Which of the following perspectives holds that society is ruled by a small number of people who exercise power to further their self-interest?
a. Creedal passion view
b. Pluralist view
c. Power elite view
d. Bureaucratic view
e. Class view
c
How did Aristotle define democracy?
a. Rule of the few
b. Rule of the one
c. Rule of the powerful
d. Rule of the many
e. Rule of the intelligent
d
In the U.S. political system, which of these most closely approximates Aristotle’s ideal of direct democracy?
a. Trade Unions
b. U.S. House of Representatives
c. New England town meeting
d. Constitutional Convention
e. Southeastern United States before the Civil War
c
Policies aimed at lessening income inequality and addressing the disproportionate power held by individuals with wealth are based on which theory of power?
a. The power elite view
b. The bureaucratic view
c. The pluralist view
d. The creedal passion view
e. The class view
e
Which of the following perspectives holds that society is ruled by a small number of people who exercise power to further their self-interest?
a. Creedal passion view
b. Pluralist view
c. Power elite view
d. Bureaucratic view
e. Class view
c
Which of the following terms is defined as the activity by which an issue is agitated or settled?
a. Government
b. Policy
c. Politics
d. Participation
e. Lobbying
b
In the United States, no government at any level would be considered legitimate if it were not in some sense which of these?
a. Democratic
b. Altruistic
c. Humanitarian
d. Elitist
e. Aristocratic
a
What is the impact of self-interest on the positions people take on important issues?
a. The self-interest of individuals is usually a complete guide to their actions.
b. Economic self-interest may be important, but it is usually not the only guide to people’s actions.
c. Organizational self-interest, rather than economic self-interest, is usually the best guide to people’s actions.
d. Political preferences can be predicted invariably by knowing an individual’s economic or organizational position.
e. Self-interest is rarely an important factor in understanding political attitudes and behavior.
b
According to the class view of power distribution, which of the following groups wields the most power in the United States?
a. Unions and laborers
b. Interest groups
c. Unelected bureaucrats
d. The people
e. Top executives of multinational corporations
c
. Which view about power distribution in the United States attributes the majority of political power to elected politicians?
a. The class view
b. The power elite view
c. The bureaucratic view
d. The creedal passion view
e. The pluralist view
e
Policies aimed at lessening income inequality and addressing the disproportionate power held by individuals with wealth are based on which theory of power?
a. The power elite view
b. The bureaucratic view
c. The pluralist view
d. The creedal passion view
e. The class view
e
Many farmers benefit substantially from agricultural price supports, but many consumers have no idea what these price supports cost them in taxes and higher food prices. Which type of politics does this suggest?
a. Minoritarian politics
b. Interest group politics
c. Client politics
d. Entrepreneurial politics
e. Majoritarian politics
c
The power of the Supreme Court to declare the actions of the other branches of government to be unconstitutional is known as which of the following?
a. Judicial review
b. Judicial activism
c. Judicial ratification
d. The supremacy doctrine
e. Due process
a
In the Declaration of Independence, Thomas Jefferson’s statement that “all men are created equal” is similar to which of the following theorist’s belief that government is based on the “consent of the governed”?
a. John Locke
b. Aristotle
c. Karl Marx
d. David Hume
e. Montesquieu
a
The Bill of Rights limits the power of which of the following?
a. The government over the rights and liberties of individuals
b. The national government over the rights of the states
c. State governments over the inherent powers of the national government
d. National and state governments to tax individuals
e. State governments to tax the national government
a
The Constitution would not have been ratified in several important states if the Federalists had not assured the states of which of the following?
a. A ban on the importation of slaves would be a focus of the first Congress.
b. Amendments to the Constitution would be passed to protect individual liberties against infringement by the national government.
c. Amendments to the Constitution would be passed to protect the rights of states against infringement by the national government.
d. An amendment would be passed to prohibit the manufacture, sale, and consumption of liquor.
e. Slaves who had escaped to free states would not to be returned to their owners in slave states.
b
During the constitutional deliberations, Alexander Hamilton, John Jay, and James Madison, to sway public opinion, wrote 85 essays known as which of the following?
a. The Antifederalist Papers
b. Common Sense
c. The Federalist Papers
d. The Mayflower Compact
e. The Pluralist Papers
c
In 1776, what was one important reason that colonists regarded independence as desirable?
a. They no longer had confidence that the British government would protect their liberties.
b. They could no longer afford the price of British exports.
c. They had come to reject the philosophy of John Locke.
d. They had come to reject British ideas of individual rights.
e. They were struggling economically.
a
What was the effect of Shays’s Rebellion on the attendance of delegates at the planned Constitutional Convention of 1787?
a. It encouraged attendance because delegates feared the collapse of state governments.
b. It encouraged attendance because delegates feared intervention by the British.
c. It discouraged attendance because delegates feared a public outcry against any strengthening of the Articles of Confederation.
d. It discouraged attendance because delegates feared intervention by the British.
e. It discouraged the attendance of delegates who fought in the Revolutionary War.
a
What was one primary feature of most early state constitutions?
a. A detailed bill of rights
b. A plan for land use and improvement
c. A strong executive branch
d. A disregard for individual rights
e. Economic regulation of free markets
a
How did Pennsylvania’s government, which was considered “radically democratic,” differ from other state governments?
a. It had no constitution.
b. It had no written laws.
c. It had no elected officials.
d. It had no legislature.
e. It had no governor.
e
Madison’s confidence in the usefulness of the separation of powers rested on what assumption?
a. The strongest would survive.
b. Human nature was basically good.
c. No one would purposely seek power.
d. Ambitions would counteract each other.
e. Government would create virtuous citizens.
d
The goal of the Framers of the U.S. Constitution was to create what type of system?
a. A political system in which majority rule was supreme
b. A pure democracy modeled after the New England town meeting
c. A pluralist democracy ruled by the common people
d. An autonomous collective
e. A republic based on a system of representation
b
In the Constitution, what powers are given exclusively to the national government?
a. Enumerated
b. Reserved
c. Concurrent
d. Federalist
e. Unitary
a
In the Constitution, what powers have been given exclusively to the states?
a. Enumerated
b. Reserved
c. Concurrent
d. Federalist
e. Antifederalist
b
What does the “state of nature” refer to?
a. Society without government
b. Government without society
c. The formation of government along the lines of natural law
d. The clash between government and society
e. The very highest form of government
a
In the United States, what are programs such as the interstate highway system and services to the unemployed most accurately considered?
a. State functions that operate without any involvement on the part of the federal government
b. Federal functions, although state governments pay some of the costs
c. State functions that are designated under the Tenth Amendment
d. Federal functions that operate without any involvement on the part of state governments
e. State functions, although the federal government seeks to regulate them
b
An interest group with a strong following in only one region of the country would have the best chance of achieving its goals under which type of system?
a. Democratic
b. Republican
c. Federal
d. Unitary
e. Provincial
c
What is the primary purpose of the intergovernmental lobby?
a. To provide federal jobs
b. To increase taxes
c. To lower taxes
d. To reduce federal spending
e. To get more federal money
e
The push toward devolution has resulted in what?
a. Less adherence to government rules and regulations
b. Much more liberal policies
c. Fewer government rules and regulations
d. More government rules and regulations
e. The states having a surplus of funding
c
In the last sixty years, the fastest-growing grants to states have been what?
a. Income security
b. Education
c. Transportation
d. Health care
e. Community development
d
When did the grants-in-aid system begin to grow rapidly?
a. In the 20th century
b. In the 19th century
c. During the Civil War
d. Immediately after the U.S. Constitution was ratified
e. After September 11, 2001
a
What was the first form of grants-in-aid from the national government to the states?
a. Cash grants-in-aid
b. Block grants
c. Revenue sharing
d. Categorical grants
e. Land grants
e
During the 1960s, federal grants to states were increasingly based on what?
a. The demands of the individual states
b. What state officials perceived to be important state needs
c. The power of organized interest groups
d. What federal officials perceived to be national needs
e. The demands of coalitions of states
d
During the 1960s, federal grants to states were increasingly based on what?
a. The demands of the individual states
b. What state officials perceived to be important state needs
c. The power of organized interest groups
d. What federal officials perceived to be national needs
e. The demands of coalitions of states
d
Which type of grant is offered for a specific purpose defined by federal law, such as building an airport or a college dormitory?
a. In-kind
b. Categorical
c. Distributive
d. Incentive
e. Formulative
b
Which term describes a decision by an administrative agency granting another party permission to violate a law or administrative rule that would otherwise apply to it?
a. Due Process
b. Waiver
c. Letter of intent
d. Mandate
e. Administrative law
b
What are terms set by the national government that states must meet whether they accept federal grants or not?
a. De facto orders
b. Formulation
c. Mandates
d. Distributive
e. De jure orders
c
How has the Supreme Court ruled regarding mandates?
a. The 10th Amendment provides states and local officials no protection from mandates.
b. State and local officials are immune from lawsuits.
c. Mandates are unconstitutional.
d. Mandates cannot be in conflict with state constitutions.
e. Mandates may only be applied to the environmental decisions of the various states.
a
