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Scope and Quality Management > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following examples is NOT a typical or appropriate situation to employ project management?
    a) Improving existing work progress
    b) Installing a new computer system
    c) Conducting a routine, standard customer service operation
    d) Developing a new product
A

c) Conducting a routine, standard customer service operation

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following examples is NOT a typical or appropriate situation to employ project management
    a) Improving a soldering process in an assembly line
    b) Processing deposits and withdrawals in a bank
    c) Installing a new accounting application on a server
    d) Developing a new medical device for use by clinics
A

b) Processing deposits and withdrawals in a bank

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3
Q
  1. Projects often require trade-offs among all of the following EXCEPT:
    a) Scope
    b) Cost
    c) Schedule
    d) Programs
A

d) Programs

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4
Q
  1. Once projects are completed, they will typically yield all of the following results EXCEPT
    a) A unique product or service
    b) Make or buy decisions
    c) Stakeholders whose interests are affected by the outcome
    d) A primary deliverable along with supporting deliverables
A

b) Make or buy decisions

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding project life is most accurate?
    a) All research and development projects use the same four-stage project life cycle model.
    b) The project life cycle is the same for the diverse types of projects managed by an organization.
    c) Many different project life cycle models are used for different types of projects.
    d) Project life cycles are very similar regardless of the industry.
A

c) Many different project life cycle models are used for different types of projects.

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6
Q
  1. Projects are considered successful for all of the reasons below EXCEPT:
    a) members of the team learn new skills and/ or refine existing skills
    b) Organizational learning takes place and is captured for future projects
    c) The team has used heroics to meet project objectives
    d) The performing organization reaps business-level benefits
A

c) The team has used heroics to meet project objectives

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following actions will likely cause a project to fail?
    a) Dedicating valuable team member time to identify risk events
    b) Spending project funds to procure needed tools and spare parts
    c) Unclear or unrealistic stakeholder expectations
A

c) Unclear or unrealistic stakeholder expectations

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8
Q
  1. Typically, a steering team or leadership team is responsible for all of the following project related roles EXCEPT:
    a) Selecting, prioritizing and resourcing projects
    b) Standardizing project-related governance processes to facilitate sharing of methodologies, tools and techniques
    c) Ensuring accurate progress is reported and adjustments made
    d) Evaluating projects and portfolios midstream to ensure they produce expected results
A

d) Evaluating projects and portfolios midstream to ensure they produce expected results

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9
Q

9.Which of the following role sis typically associated with the project manager
a) Assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives
b) An ongoing manager of the organization with responsibility for a department or division
c) Supports projects by mentoring, training and assisting teams and facilitating sharing of resources and technologies
d) A senior manager serving in a formal role, given authority and responsibility for successful completion of a project.

A

a) Assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives

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10
Q
  1. Typically, the senior customer representative is responsible for which of the following project roles?
    a) Develops the project schedule and budget
    b) Determines how the project work will be accomplished
    c) Ensures requirements are clear and communications are maintained throughout the project
    d) Helps the project manager with running meetings and providing status reports
A

c) Ensures requirements are clear and communications are maintained throughout the project

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11
Q
  1. All of the following are advantages associated with managing projects in a projectized organization EXCEPT:
    a) One boss – the project manager
    b) Response times and decision-making are swift
    c) Departmental barriers are reduced
    d) Workers know they still have a job when they finish work on a project
A

d) Workers know they still have a job when they finish work on a project

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12
Q

12) Projectized organizations often adopt which of the following techniques where project team members are physically placed close to one another to improve communications and working relationships?
a) Collaboration
b) Co-location
c) Coordination
d) Consolidation

A

b) Co-location

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with managing projects in a projectized organization?
    a) Response times and decision making are slow
    b) Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized and have idle time
    c) Team members have difficulty focusing on project issues
    d) Traditional department barriers are reduced
A

b) Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized and have idle time

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14
Q
  1. Project planning teams use project life cycle models because various types of projects have differing demands, Which of the following sequence of stages is most appropriate for a life-cycle model for construction projects.
    a) define – measure – analyse – improve – control
    b) concept definition – demonstration – development – production
    c) pre-planning – design – procurement – construction – start up
    d) concept – requirements – design – code – test – turnover
A

c) pre-planning – design – procurement – construction – start up

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15
Q
  1. Subject matter experts often perform specific project activities when necessary. Which of the following statements regarding subject matter experts is accurate?
    a) The number of subject matter experts is generally limited to fewer than the number of core team members
    b) The subject matter experts are typically assigned to the project from start to finish
    c) The subject matter is not a core team member and therefore is less important than other team members
    d) Subject matter experts are brought in for meetings and for performing specific project activities when necessary
A

d) Subject matter experts are brought in for meetings and for performing specific project activities when necessary

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is an advantage associated with the matrix organization?
    a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects
    b) Unity of command – one “boss” for each employee
    c) Shorter response times and quicker decisions
    d) Hard to monitor and control
A

a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects

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17
Q
  1. When trying to understand a corporate culture, it is helpful to understand the types of power that are used. In “power cultures”:
    a) Workers closely follow their appointed roles
    b) Supervisors exert a great deal of economic and political power
    c) More deference is paid to knowledge than formal authority
    d) Display an attitude that collaboration is satisfying and stimulating
A

a) Workers closely follow their appointed roles

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18
Q
  1. Through shared values, organizational cultures can informally do all the following EXCEPT:
    a) Motivate the ethical actions and communications of managers and subordinates
    b) Determine how people are treated, controlled and rewarded
    c) Establish how cooperation, competition, conflict and decision making are handled
    d) Eliminate politics in the workplace
A

d) Eliminate politics in the workplace

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19
Q
  1. Responsibilities of the Chief Projects Officer (CPO) for each individual serving on a project team include all of the following EXCEPT:
    a) That they follow the detailed project plan that the CPO has created
    b) That they capture lessons learned from completed projects
    c) That they use templates and standards when appropriate
    d) That they receive the training they need
A

a) That they follow the detailed project plan that the CPO has created

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20
Q
  1. During project execution, the project sponsor’s responsibilities include all of these EXCEPT:
    a) Ensure communications
    b) Charter the project
    c) Nurture key stakeholders
    d) Ensure quality
A

b) Charter the project

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21
Q
  1. According to PMI’s “Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct”, project managers should exhibit all of the following behaviors EXCEPT:
    a) Authority – exert economic and political power
    b) Fairness – make decisions and act impartially
    c) Honesty – understand the truth and act in a truthful manner
    d) Responsibility – take ownership for decision
A

a) Authority – exert economic and political power

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22
Q
  1. Project planning teams use project life cycle models because various types of projects have different demands. Which of the following sequences of stages is most appropriate for a life cycle model for research and development (R&D) projects?
    a) define – measure – analyze – improve – control
    b) project envisioning – requirements gathering – incremental implementation – production release
    c) pre-planning – design – procurement – construction – start up
    d) idea generation – idea screening – concept development – validation – transition
A

d) idea generation – idea screening – concept development – validation – transition

23
Q
  1. Which of the following organizational structures runs contrary to the unit of command principle – that each employee works for a single supervisor
    a) functional organization
    b) projectized organization
    c) matrix organization
    d) siloed organization
A

c) matrix organization

24
Q
  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes a communications management plan?
    a) a formal document that describes how the project will be initiated and planned
    b) a living document that considers stakeholders’ information desires and guides the project communications
    c) a formal document that defines how the project will be terminated and closed
    d) a formal document that focuses on how the project’s financial results will be tracked
    Explanation: A communications management plan is a dynamic, evolving document that ensures all stakeholders receive the information they need throughout the project.
A

b) a living document that considers stakeholders’ information desires and guides the project communications

25
Q
  1. During project execution, the project sponsor’s responsibilities include all of these EXCEPT:
    a) ensure communications
    b) charter the project
    c) nurture key stakeholders
    d) ensure quality
A

b) charter the project

26
Q
  1. Workers know they still have a job when they finish work on a project. Which of the following is an advantage associated with the matrix organization?
    a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects
    b) Unity of command – one “boss” for each employee
    c) Shorter response times and quicker decisions
    d) Hard to monitor and control
A

a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects

27
Q
  1. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with managing projects in a projectized organization?
    a) Response times and decision making are slow.
    b) Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized and have idle time.
    c) Team members have difficulty focusing on project issues.
    d) Traditional department barriers are reduced.
A

b) Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized and have idle time.

28
Q
  1. Which of the following executive roles is responsible for overall priority setting, project selection and prioritization, general guidance, and encouragement?
    a) Steering Team
    b) Sponsor
    c) Project Management Office
    d) Chief Projects Officer
A

d) Chief Projects Officer

29
Q
  1. Which of the following are among the challenges faced by project managers?
    a) They frequently have more authority than responsibility.
    b) They must effectively deal with networks of people both within and outside the parent company.
    c) They must learn how to accomplish project work unilaterally on their own
    d) They are not allowed to be flexible about how the project should be accomplished
A

b) They must effectively deal with networks of people both within and outside the parent company.

30
Q
  1. Projectized organizations often adopt which of the following techniques where project team members are physically placed close to one another to improve communications and working relationships?
    a) collaboration
    b) co-location
    c) coordination
    d) consolidation
A

b) co-location

31
Q
  1. Which of the following roles and attributes do NOT describe the core team members on a project?
    a) Core team members often make project decisions jointly with the project manager.
    b) Core team members are the small group of people who are usually on the project from start to finish.
    c) Core team members join the project on a temporary basis to perform specific project activities as necessary.
    d) Core team members may supervise the work of subject matter experts who are brought in on an as-needed basis.
A

c) Core team members join the project on a temporary basis to perform specific project activities as necessary.

32
Q
  1. Subject matter experts often perform specific project activities when necessary. Which of the following statements regarding subject matter experts is accurate?
    a) The number of subject matter experts is generally limited to fewer than the number of core team members.
    b) The subject matter experts are typically assigned to the project from start to finish.
    c) The subject matter is not a core team member and is therefore less important than other team members.
    d) Subject matter experts are brought in for meetings and for performing specific project activities when necessary.
A

d) Subject matter experts are brought in for meetings and for performing specific project activities when necessary.

33
Q
  1. Project planning teams use project life cycle models because various types of projects have differing demands. Which of the following sequences of stages is most appropriate for a life cycle model for construction projects?
    a) define-measure - analyze - improve - control
    b) concept definition - demonstration - development - production
    c) pre-planning-design - procurement - construction - start up
    d) concept-requirements - design - code - test-turnover
A

c) pre-planning-design - procurement - construction - start up

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is an advantage associated with the matrix organization?
    a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.
    b) Unity of command - one “boss” for each employee.
    c) shorter response times and quicker decisions.
    d) Hard to monitor and control.
A

a) Increased knowledge transfer between projects.

35
Q
  1. This technique is an iterative process that identifies and defines the work to be completely accomplished in the near term and plans the future work at a higher level.
    a) Rolling wave planning.
    b) Decomposition.
    c) Traceability
    d) Agile.
A

a) Rolling wave planning.

36
Q
  1. Work Breakdown Structures typically include one or more intermediate levels. Which of the following statements correctly describes the nature of these intermediate levels?
    a) They generally represent items that need to be created in order to produce the final deliverables.
    b) They generally represent the raw materials required to create the final deliverables.
    c) They generally represent the resource assignments to create the final deliverables.
    d) They generally represent the sequence and timing of work packages
A

a) They generally represent items that need to be created in order to produce the final deliverables.

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a format that is typically used to represent a Work Breakdown Structure?
    a) Hierarchical or “org chart”
    b) Indented outline
    c) Requirements Traceability Matrix
    d) Free format
A

c) Requirements Traceability Matrix

38
Q
  1. Which of the following items best describes a project Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
    a) an organizational chart depicting who will perform project work
    b) a schedule depicting when project work will be performed
    c) a tool that the team uses to progressively divide deliverables into smaller and smaller pieces
    d) a list of activities to complete the project work packages
A

c) a tool that the team uses to progressively divide deliverables into smaller and smaller pieces

39
Q
  1. The method of dividing the project scope into many parts that, when combined, would constitute the project deliverable is called
    a) rolling wave planning
    b) decomposition
    c) collect requirements
    d) requirements traceability
A

b) decomposition

40
Q
  1. Which of the information below would NOT typically be included in the WBS dictionary for a specific work package?
    a) description of the work
    b) communication requirements
    c) activities
    d) expected duration
A

b) communication requirements

41
Q
  1. Work Breakdown Structures can be displayed in a variety of formats including which of the following?
    a) a sequential process diagrams
    b) an inverted pyramid
    c) an indented outline formats
    d) fishbone or cause and effect diagram
A

c) an indented outline formats

42
Q
  1. A ______________ is a written request or formal proposal to propose changes to any project planning component such as a document, project deliverable, or baseline (scope, cost, and time).
    a) scope statement
    b) change request
    c) project charter
    d) request for proposal (RFP)
A

b) change request

43
Q
  1. Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to control quality. Which of the following items is consistent with his quality control guidance?
    a) identify all team members and their needs
    b) establish measurement systems
    c) prove effects
    d) expend necessary efforts to exceed requirements
A

b) establish measurement systems

44
Q
  1. During which DMAIC phase would you find the objectives of: identify possible root causes, collect data, and confirm root causes through data analysis?
    a) Define
    b) Measure
    c) Analyze
    d) Improve
A

c) Analyze

45
Q
  1. Which of the following documents describes how the project team will implement the performing organization’s quality policy?
    a) quality benchmarking plan
    b) quality control plan
    c) quality management plan
    d) quality audit plan
A

c) quality management plan

46
Q
  1. Which of these would NOT typically be found in a Quality Management Plan?
    a) Team selection criteria
    b) Quality roles and responsibilities
    c) Plan for reporting quality control and assurance problems
    d) Key project deliverables and processes to be reviewed for satisfactory quality level
A

a) Team selection criteria

47
Q
  1. The decision process for developing relevant quality standards on a project includes all of the following activities EXCEPT:
    a) identify all stakeholders
    b) understand the prioritized stakeholders’ requirements
    c) design work systems
    d) make trade-off decisions
A

c) design work systems

48
Q
  1. Normal or random variations that are considered part of operating the system at its current capability are ___________
    a) special cause variations.
    b) common cause variations.
    c) systemic variations.
    d) life cycle variations
A

b) common cause variations.

49
Q
  1. All of the following items contribute to developing empowered performance in an organization EXCEPT:
    a) setting an expectation for managers to encourage associates to treat risk events as learning opportunities
    b) accepting the fact that the project manager has total decision-making authority
    c) training and equipping workers so that they’re willing to take risks
    d) helping develop specialists who can aid anyone in the organization
    Explanation: Empowered performance encourages collaboration and shared decision-making rather than concentrating authority solely in the hands of the project manager.
A

b) accepting the fact that the project manager has total decision-making authority

50
Q
  1. Joseph Juran provided guidance regarding how to conduct quality planning, quality control, and quality improvement. Which of the following items is NOT part of Juran’s Quality Trilogy?
    a) identify all customers and their needs, develop requirements, and develop methods to satisfy those requirements.
    b) work to identify root causes, not just symptoms
    c) determine what to control, establish measurement systems, establish standards and compare performance to standards.
    d) select and support improvement projects, select and implement solutions, and maintain control of improved processes.
A

c) determine what to control, establish measurement systems, establish standards and compare performance to standards.

51
Q
  1. Which of the following quality management thought leaders is generally credited with contributing the insight that team learning is necessary to improve quality?
    a) Ishikawa
    b) Senge
    c) Taguchi
    d) Harrington
A

b) Senge

52
Q
  1. Which of the following activities are typically included in a project kick-off meeting?
    a) The project manager evaluates team member performance.
    b) The project team collects lessons learned for use on future projects.
    c) The project manager outlines the project goals.
    e) The project sponsor brings in a facilitator to conduct a brainstorming exercise
A

c) The project manager outlines the project goals.

53
Q
  1. It is important to assign a unique name and a unique number to every component in the project Work Breakdown Structure.
    a) true
    b) false
A

a) true

54
Q
  1. Stakeholders include all of the following people EXCEPT:
    a) those who work on the project
    b) those who provide people or resources for the project
    c) those whose routines may be disrupted by the project
    d) those who will not be impacted by the project
A

d) those who will not be impacted by the project

Scope and Quality Management (1 decks)

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