midterm Flashcards

1
Q
  • What are the three main atmospheric elements?
A

o Nitrogen (78%)
o Oxygen (20.9%)
o Argon (0.93%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  • Do nitrogen levels vary a lot in the environment?
A

o No, nitrogen levels remain consistent in the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • What is happening to the concentration of nitrogen in the atmosphere because of human activity?
A

o Nitrogen concentrations are increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • What is the role of nitrogen in the environment?
A

o Limited direct role but serves as a precursor molecule of nitrate which is used by plants to synthesize molecules essential to life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • Why is having too much nitrogen in the atmosphere bad?
A

o Too much nitrogen results in algal blooms which suffocates the water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  • Why is oxygen important?
A

o Vital to almost all life
o Precursor for O3 which absorbs high energy UV light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • What is argon?
A

o An inert gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  • What are the trace gases that make up the rest of the atmosphere composition?
A

o Carbon dioxide
o Water vapor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  • What is the source of carbon from which all life is based?
A

o Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  • What chemical compound is the basis for the Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
A

o Carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • What is the Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
A

o The potential of any chemical to add to the global warming problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • What does it mean if methane has a GWP of 28?
A

o 1 molecule of methane contributes as much as 28 molecules of carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  • What compound is the most important greenhouse gas?
A

o Carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  • Why is carbon dioxide the most important greenhouse gas?
A

o Carbon dioxide accounts for the greatest portion of warming by anthropogenic activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  • T/F. Carbon dioxide levels are steady in the environment?
A

o False, carbon dioxide levels are increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  • When did carbon dioxide levels begin to rise?
A

o 1870, the industrial revolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  • Why do we have a huge increase in carbon dioxide levels beginning in 1960?
A

o The development of cars becoming cheaper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  • What is the most variable atmospheric component?
A

o Water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  • What is vapor pressure?
A

o The partial pressure of water vapor
o Humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  • What are the two types of humidity?
A

o Absolute
o Relative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  • As temperature increases, what happens to the ability of air to hold water?
A

o Air can hold more water at higher temps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What happens to relative humidity as the temperature increases

A

o Relative humidity decreases as temperatures increase
o Since air can hold more water at higher temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  • What are the components of the Psychrometric chart pictured on the right?
A

o Dry bulb
o Wet bulb
o Specific humidity
o Dew point
o Relative humidity
o Saturation line
o Humidity ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  • How do you get the dry bulb temperature?
A

o Hang a thermometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  • Where is the wet bulb temperature on the psychrometric chart?
A

o The top curved line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  • How do you get the wet bulb temperature?
A

o They take a thermometer and cover it with a wet cloth and as the water evaporates it cools off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  • What is the wet bulb temperature in comparison to the dry bulb temperature?
A

o Wet bulb temperature is always less than the dry bulb temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  • Where is the specific humidity on the psychrometric chart?
A

o Right side
o Shows the humidity ratio in pounds of water per pounds of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  • What is grains of water?
A

o Specific humidity
o How many grains of water you have in the pound of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  • What is dew point?
A

o 100% humidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  • Where is the dew point depicted on the psychrometric chart?
A

o Same line as wet bulb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  • Where is relative humidity depicted on the psychrometric chart?
A

o The curved line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  • At 100% relative humidity, what is the the relative humidity similar to?
A

o The wet bulb line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  • If you have a dry bulb temperature of 95 and a wet bulb temperature of 78, what is the relative humidity?
A

o The curve line at the intersection
o Look at the yellow dot
o 47%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  • What is the humidity ratio?
A

o From the yellow line, move directly ro the right to get 0.017

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  • What is the specific humidity?
A

o 0.017 x 7,000 = 119

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  • What is the dew point?
A

o Go straight across to the elft from the yellow dot
o 72 degrees F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  • What is the maximum amount of water that can be held at this point?
A

o We want the maximum amount of water that can be held at this 78 wet bulb
o From the tip of the left blue line at the 78 wet bulb point, go directly to the right to get 0.022

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  • If our dry bulb temp is 85 and the wet bulb temp is 73, what is the relative humidity? Humidity ratio? Specific humidity? Dew point? Maximum water held at 100% relative humidity?
A

o Relative humidity: 55%
o Humidity ratio: 0.013
o Specific humidity: 0.013 x 7,000 = 91
o Dew point: 65
o Maximum water held: 0.017 x 7,000 = 119

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  • What comprises the solar radiation the earth receives?
A

o Infrared: 49%
o Visible light: 42%
o UV radiation: 8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  • What does the amount of solar radiation received depend on?
A

o The angle of inclination of earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  • Does the solar radiation at the poles vary?
A

o The poles get the same amount of radiation all the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  • What do the differences in radiation cause?
A

o Differences in thermal energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  • What pressure results from warm air?
A

o High pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  • What pressure results in storms?
A

o Low pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  • In what air pressure is air more unstable?
A

o Low pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  • What causes climates?
A

o The movement of pressure from high to low
o Warm currents move poleward
o Cold currents move towards the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  • What are the vertical temperature gradients?
A

o Troposphere
o Tropopause
o Stratosphere
o Mesosphere
o Thermosphere
o Ionosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  • What are the characteristics of the troposphere?
A

o Unstable, leads to bad weather
o In the troposphere, the temperature decreases with increasing altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  • What are the characteristics of the tropopause?
A

o Isothermic: the temperature pauses
o Stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  • What are the characteristics of the stratosphere?
A

o Temperature increases with altitude due to UV absorption by ozone
o Relatively stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  • What are the characteristics of the Mesosphere?
A

o Temperature deceases with altitude
o Rapid vertical mixing as a result of cold temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  • Which sphere has the coldest temperatures?
A

o Stratosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  • What are the characteristics of the thermosphere?
A

o High temperatures due to absorption of short wavelength radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  • What is the characteristics of the ionosphere?
A

o Layer of atmosphere with ionic version of oxygen and nitrogen molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  • What happens to atmospheric pressure as the temperature increases?
A

o Atmospheric pressure increases due to the kinetic energy of the molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  • What is standard atmosphere?
A

o 760 mm Hg
o 1.01325 x 105 Pa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  • What kind of weather does high pressure lead to?
A

o Warmer, dry weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  • What kind of weather does low pressure lead to?
A

o Colder, more unstable weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  • What is air pollution?
A

o The introduction of harmful substances or products into the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  • What is natural air pollution?
A

o Pollution that occurs as a result of natural processes like volcanic activity, fires, decomposition, and ocean spray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  • T/F. Natural pollution is the greatest pollutant.
A

o True, but the effect as a pollutant is minimal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  • What are some causes of anthropogenic air pollution?
A

o Deforestation
o Industrial revolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  • What is haze?
A

o Particles suspended in air, reducing visibility by scattering light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  • What is fog?
A

o Water droplets suspended in the atmosphere in the vicinity of the earth’s surface that affect visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  • What is smog?
A

o Fog or haze combined with smoke and other atmospheric pollutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  • What is a primary pollutant?
A

o Pollutants from transportation, industry, waste disposal, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  • What are the two types of primary pollutants?
A

o Mobile
o Stationary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  • What are mobile pollutants?
A

o Pollutants that move such as automobiles, train, and planes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  • What are stationary pollutants?
A

o Pollutants that do not move such as power plants and industrial factories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  • What are the two types of sources for pollutants?
A

o Point source
o Area source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  • To limit air pollution, what did the CAA require?
A

o The development of the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  • What is the National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS)?
A

o The standard that sets limits on 6 “criteria” air pollutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  • What are the 6 criteria air pollutants se by NAAQS?
A

o CO
o NO2
o Pb
o O3
o PM10
o PM2.5
o VOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  • Even though we are significantly reducing emissions, why do we still see an increase in current emissions?
A

o Increase in population
o Increase in power use
o Increase in cars on the road

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  • What are the anthropogenic sources of CO2¬?
A

o Fossil fuel use
o Land conversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  • What is land conversion?
A

o The shift of vegetation into the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  • What are some examples of CO2 sinks?
A

o Deep sea
o Ocean sediment
o Fossil fuel reserves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  • Why do sinks contribute to the pollution problem?
A

o When the sinks are disturbed, CO2 is brought into the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  • Where do emissions of carbon monoxide come from?
A

o Biomass burning
o Combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  • What type of combustion results carbon monoxide release into the atmosphere?
A

o Incomplete combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  • How does incomplete combustion result in carbon monoxide release into the environment?
A

o During combustion, CO reacts with oxygen to produce CO2
o If there is insufficient O2, then there is excess CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  • Which has higher levels of carbon monoxide ambient concentrations or background levels in urban areas due to vehicle usage?
A

o Ambient concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  • How do carbon monoxide sinks occur?
A

o Uptake by soil
o Conversion to O3 in the troposphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  • How does methane emission occur?
A

o Digestion of cellulose by livestock
o Decomposition of organic material
o Coal
o Refineries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  • How do methane sinks occur?
A

o Methane conversion to water and a methyl group when there is a reaction with a hydroxyl group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  • What happens if there is too much carbon monoxide in the presence of methane?
A

o Carbon monoxide also uses hydroxyl groups that will reduce the ability for methane to react with it, increasing methane concentrations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  • How are sulfur compounds emitted into the environment?
A

o Volcanoes
o Combustion of fuel and biomass
o Sulfur-containing metal ores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  • Why has sulfur concentrations decreased over the years?
A

o Control technologies on industries
o Reduction of coal use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  • What are scrubbers?
A

o Attached to industrial buildings
o This is a limestone and water mixture that combines with sulfur to produce Gypsums which can then be recycled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  • Why can nitrogen be bad in the atmosphere if it is naturally found in high concentrations?
A

o The precursor molecules leads to various NOX which can cause ozone depletion, global warming, and oxidation of biogenic VOCs like isoprene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q
  • What is aerodynamic equivalent diameter (AED)?
A

o This is how we get the nomenclature for PM
o A method of standardization since all particles come in different shapes and sizes
o AED is based on the diameter of a spherical particle with a density of 1 g/cm3
o Particles with an AED of PM2.5, regardless of actual shape will settle at the same velocity as a spherical particles with 2.5 diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  • What are the two classes that atmospheric particles can be divided in?
A

o Coarse particles
o Fine particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
  • How are coarse particles generated?
A

o Mechanical means such as jack hammering and erosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
  • What kind of compounds tend to make up ultrafine particles?
A

o Sulfate and organic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
  • What is Aitken range?
A

o Produced by combustion, coagulation, and condensation of gas-phase particulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
  • What is dispersion?
A

o Pollutants mixing with air resulting in lower ground-level concentrations (dilution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
  • What is transport?
A

o Process by which air motions carry pollution from one region to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
  • What is deposition?
A

o Transfer of gas and particulate-phase substances to vegetation, water, and other surfaces (removal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
  • When pollutants are emitted into the atmosphere from a point or area source, what happens?
A

o Pollutents are dispersed (diluted) by air moving horizontally and vertically
o Transported from one location to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
  • Why is transport important?
A

o Transport enhances dilution and can allow mixing of various pollutants from otherwise distant sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q
  • Where does dispersion and transport occur?
A

o Planetary boundary layer (PBL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
  • What are the four scales of motion?
A

o Microscale
o Mesoscale
o Synoptic scale
o Global scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
  • What is the microscale?
A

o Local, no more than 24 hs
o Tornados, rainbos, soil temperature, tracking of air pollution
o What you see

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q
  • What is the mesoscale?
A

o A few days
o Includes thunderstorms, convective processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q
  • What is synoptic scale?
A

o Many days
o Thousands of kilometers
o Hurricanes, fronts, high and low pressure systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q
  • What is the global scale?
A

o Weeks to months
o Large areas of the globe
o Polar jet streams, trade winds, El Nino

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q
  • What is the mixing of the planetary boundary layer?
A

o The PBL is relatively well-mixed on a large scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q
  • What is the mixing on the local (microscale)?
A

o Not great mixing
o Air emissions can lead to harmful health conditions based on prevailing atmospheric conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q
  • What conditions affect mixing?
A

o Wind
o Turbulence
o Stability
o Inversions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q
  • What is wind speed affected by?
A

o Temperature and surface roughness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q
  • What is the wind surrounding urban areas?
A

o Urban areas tend to have lower velocity winds than suburban and rural due to more surface roughness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q
  • Why do we like large wind velocities?
A

o Greater wind velocities allow for more air volume to aid in dispersing of contaminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q
  • What is the rule of thumb for wind and dilution?
A

o Dilution is inversely proportional to wind speed
o If wind speed doubles, concentration of pollutants is cut in half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q
  • What is turbulence?
A

o Eddies that are produced by mechanical or thermal forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q
  • What is turbulence on the micro scale?
A

o Air movement over shorter time scales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q
  • What is turbulence on the meso scale?
A

o Air movement by wind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q
  • What causes mechanical turbulence?
A

o Turbulence caused by wind moving around structures and vegetation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q
  • What causes thermal turbulence?
A

o Heating and cooling of air near the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q
  • When does turbulence tend to occur?
A

o Both forms of turbulence occurs during daylight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q
  • How does turbulence affect dispersion?
A

o Turbulence enhances dispersion and decreases concentration of pollutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q
  • How does stability affect dispersion?
A

o As stability increases, dispersion decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q
  • What is lapse rate?
A

o The rate of temperature change with height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q
  • What is the tropospheric lapse rate?
A

o -6.5 C/km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q
  • What is adiabatic lapse rate?
A

o Theoretical change of temperature with height when no heat energy is transferred to air
o -10 C/km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q
  • What are the characteristics of a near adiabatic lapse rate?
A

o Small decrease in temp with height
o Air cools as it expands but still close to adiabatic lapse rate
o Found in cloudy or windy conditions
o Dispersion is relatively good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q
  • What are the characteristics of a super adiabatic lapse rate?
A

o Greater decrease in temp with height than A
o Parcel of air will rise rapidly
o Very unstable, strong vertical air motion
o Found on clear days with light winds
o Dispersion is excellent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q
  • What are the characteristics of an isothermal layer?
A

o Temperature does not change with heigh
o Parcel of air rises slowly
o Stable atmosphere
o Moderate dispersion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q
  • What are the characteristics of an inversion layer?
A

o Temperature increases with heigh
o Inverted temperature changes
o Very stable atmosphere with no vertical air motion
o Found on clear nights with light winds
o Dispersion is poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What happens during an inversion?

A

o When lapse rates are positive
o Temperature increases with height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q
  • What are the four types of inversions?
A

o Frontal
o Advective
o Radiational
o Subsidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q
  • What is a frontal inversion?
A

o Warm front flows over cold front
o Limited effect on air quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q
  • What is an advective inversion?
A

o Refers to horizontal transfer
o Warm air flows over cold surface
o Advective is day to day inversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q
  • What causes radiational inversions?
A

o Colling of the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q
  • When do radiational inversions form?
A

o On clear nights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q
  • When do radiational inversion break up?
A

o As the sun starts to warm up the ground and air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q
  • T/F. Radiational inversions on flat terrain greatly impact the air quality.
A

o False, it has limited impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q
  • What type of inversion has the greatest impact on river valleys?
A

o Radiational inversions
o More important in valleys than in flat terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q
  • What parts of a stack impact air quality?
A

o Height of stack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q
  • What causes subsidence inversion?
A

o Subsidence of air from widespread high pressure system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q
  • Where is subsidence inversion common?
A

o Northern regions and subtropical areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q
  • When do subsidence inversions affect air quality?
A

o When close to the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q
  • What do point source plumes release?
A

o A combination of gas-vapor particulates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q
  • Which part of the plum will settle close to the source?
A

o Particulates >20 micrometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q
  • Which particulates will disperse similarly to gases and vapors from a plume?
A

o AED<1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q
  • How do pollutants move?
A

o From high concentrations to low concentrations and dispersion may occur by diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q
  • What direction do plumes spread?
A

o Vertically and horizontally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q
  • What part of the stack is dispersion affected by?
A

o Physical height
o Plume rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q
  • What is plume rise?
A

o The distance from the top of the stack to the center of the plume (horizontal plume)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q
  • What is effective stack height?
A

o Height from the base of the stack to the center of the plume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q
  • What happens when you increase stack height?
A

o Dispersion increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q
  • How do high winds affect stack height?
A

o High winds can decrease the effective stack height by decreasing plume rise, and the distance to where the contaminant may be brought to the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q
  • What are the three major types of plumes?
A

o Coning
o Fanning
o Looping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q
  • When does a coning plume form?
A

o Lapse rates are neutral to isothermal
o Cloudy or windy days, or at night
o Slightly unstable air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q
  • When do fanning plumes form?
A

o Stable conditions
o Little vertical movement, but can have great horizontal movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q
  • When do looping plumes form?
A

o Lapse rate is superadiabatic
o Calm winds
o Looping motion comes from rise and fall of air currents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q
  • What is dry deposition?
A

o Direct transfer of substances to water, vegetation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the 3 methods of dry deposition?

A

o Impaction
o Sedimentation
o Uptake by plants

159
Q
  • What affects deposition?
A

o Deposition velocity

160
Q
  • What increases deposition velocity?
A

o High for coarse particles and nitric acid

161
Q
  • What is wet deposition?
A

o Transfer to earth via aqueous form (rain, snow, dew)

162
Q
  • What do sinks do to pollutants?
A

o They remove them

163
Q
  • Sinks do not perfectly remove pollutants from the environment, what can occur if pollutants remain in the environment?
A

o Long and short term changes to the environment

164
Q
  • What are the long and short-term changes of chemicals composition in the environment dependent on?
A

o Concentration of contaminants
o Half-lives of pollutants
o Dispersion
o Transport

165
Q
  • What scale are the long and short-term changes?
A

o Local
o Regional
o Global

166
Q
  • What is the most recognizable effect of air pollution?
A

o Visibility reduction

167
Q
  • What are natural sources of visibility reduction?
A

o Volcanic eruptions
o Haze

168
Q
  • What are anthropogenic reductions in visibility?
A

o Smog
o Ozone
o Particulate formation

169
Q
  • What causes reduction in visibility?
A

o Absorption and scattering of light by particulates and gases

170
Q
  • What part of the EM spectrum can we see?
A

o 400-700 µm portion

171
Q
  • Why do we see white colors?
A

o All the colors are reflected off a substance

172
Q
  • Why do we see black colors?
A

o All the colors are absorbed
o All the wavelengths are absorbed

173
Q
  • Why do we see one color?
A

o All the other colors have been absorbed and only the one color is being reflected back to us

174
Q
  • What is the brightest object perceived as?
A

o White because it reflects the most light
o All other colors are perceived in comparison

175
Q
  • If you are in a room and shine only a red light onto blue pants, what color will the pants be?
A

o Black

176
Q
  • When does Rayleigh scattering occur?
A

o When light waves interact with atmospheric particles that are smaller in size than the wavelength of the light

177
Q
  • How does Rayleigh scattering occur?
A

o As sunlight passes through the atmosphere, it scatters off objects such as air molecules, dust, gases and vapors, and other particulate matter
o Light will then scatter in all direction
o The light will bounce of small particles
 Smaller than the wavelength (400-700 nm range)

178
Q
  • Why do we mostly see a blue sky?
A

o Blue and violet have the shortest wavelength and most particles are smaller than 400 µm
o Due to the small size of the atmospheric matter, particles will tend to scatter the wavelengths of light that are closer in size
o Well blue is at the bottom of the light spectrum at 400 µm
o Because blue light is preferentially scattered, we perceive the sky as blue

179
Q
  • What happens when you look at an area with different molecules in the atmosphere or where that molecules are larger in size like a volcanic eruption?
A

o The particles tend to be large, closer to the 700 µm range
o Because light scatters at a wavelength closer to particle size, larger particles will scatter more red and orange light due to the higher wavelength

180
Q
  • What happens to Reyleigh scattering as the atmospheric density decreases?
A

o Reyleigh scattering decreases
o Only the smallest wavelengths tend to be scattered because there’s fewer molecules

181
Q
  • How does altitude effect Reyleigh scattering?
A

o Although the horizon at sea level will look blue it may seem lighter because the light has to pass through more of the atmosphere and is scattered more
 As the sun gets to sea level, it has to travel through the atmosphere
 There is more small particulate matter at the top to scatter

182
Q
  • What wavelengths are scattered at high altitude?
A

o Only the smallest wavelength because higher altitude have smaller particles

183
Q
  • Why is space black?
A

o Space has no air and particles to scatter light

184
Q
  • What makes the blue ridge mountains blue?
A

o The large number of conifers releasing isoprene, a natural hydrocarbon and pollutant
o Not all mountains look like this because not all mountains have these trees

185
Q
  • T/F. Rayleigh scattering only comes from artificial pollutants.
A

o False, the blue ridge mountains are an example of natural scattering

186
Q
  • What has caused the uptick in pollution?
A

o Human activity

187
Q
  • What is plume blight?
A

o The stuff that come from the plume

188
Q
  • What kind of human activity has resulted in increased pollution and decreased visibility?
A

o Smog
o Plume blight
o Haze

189
Q
  • What caused an increase in pollution in pristine areas over the arctic circle and southeast Asia?
A

o Pollution that has transported

190
Q
  • How does smog affect visibility?
A

o It reduces it

191
Q
  • What does the air quality index measure?
A

o Ground level ozone
o Particulate matter pollution
o Carbon monoxide
o Sulfur dioxide
o Nitrogen dioxide

192
Q
  • What warning does the AQI provide?
A

o The air quality index is divided into 6 categories that is used to warn populations of air pollution levels and possible health issues that can result

193
Q
  • What is arctic haze?
A

o A form of air pollution that is found in pristine areas

194
Q
  • What causes the arctic haze?
A

o Anthropogenic pollution, specifically the burning of coal and petroleum products (sulfur and carbon, some metals)
o Due to limited removal process (snow and rainfall) the pollutants can remain in the atmosphere for a longer time period

195
Q
  • When is the arctic haze found?
A

o In the spring months due to the limited removal process
o No rain or snow in the atmosphere so the pollutants stick around longer

196
Q
  • What is arctic haze an example of?
A

o An atmospheric effect from pollution in an area where you would not expect to see it

197
Q
  • What is turbidity?
A

o A measurement of the vertical extinction of light scattering
o As the sun moves, it has a lot of space to travel with the air getting denser

198
Q
  • How does turbidity affect sunlight that reaches the ground?
A

o Light scattering gets extinguished so this leads to decreased sunlight at ground level

199
Q
  • What causes turbidity in the troposphere?
A

o Human activities and aerosol pollution

200
Q
  • What leads to turbidity in the stratosphere?
A

o Natural processes such as volcanic activity

201
Q
  • How does turbidity in the stratosphere affect global temperatures?
A

o Turbidity in the stratosphere can decrease global temperatures

202
Q
  • What is a heat island?
A

o An urban area which has elevated temperatures when compared to surrounding areas

203
Q
  • What causes heat islands to form?
A

o Decreased air movement from increased surface roughness of buildings
o Solar energy absorption
o Heat storage
o Energy utilizing processes

204
Q
  • How do heat islands effect the weather?
A

o Less fog and snow
o Lower relative humidity
o Fewer nocturnal inversions
o More rain downwind

205
Q
  • What is the scientific name for acid rain?
A

o Acid deposition

206
Q
  • Why is acid deposition used instead of acid rain?
A

o Because the phenomenon includes wet and dry deposition, acid fog, clouds and dew
o This name encompasses all acidic deposition

207
Q
  • Why is rain acidic with a pH of 5.65 if water has a pH of 7?
A

o The CO2 will equilibrate with water and become more acidic

208
Q
  • In the northern US, what has caused the acidic deposition?
A

o Sulfur and nitric acid from power plants, boilers, smelters, and cars

209
Q
  • Over the past years, sulfur emissions have not increased but are the sulfer in the air has, why?
A

o Cars producing NOx
o This precursor molecule causes photochemical changes which become H2SO4 and HNO3
o This is why we still have to worry about NOx

210
Q
  • What has caused acidic deposition in the western US?
A

o Nitric acid from cars

211
Q
  • How has acidic deposition affected the lakes?
A

o Acidic deposition has led to chronic acidification of lakes and streams

212
Q
  • What element is a major contributor of aquatic acidification?
A

o Sulfur from acidic deposition

213
Q
  • Where is aquatic identification found?
A

o Northeast and Florida

214
Q
  • What happens to the pH of an aquatic acidification area as distance from the source to receiving water increases?
A

o Neutralization will increase
o The water will move through the environment and rock and become less acidic

215
Q
  • How does acidification affect the soil?
A

o By leaching base cations and toxic metals

216
Q
  • What are the anthropogenic sources of nitrogen?
A

o NOx from fossil combustion
o NH3 from fertilizers and animals

217
Q
  • Where are nitrate depositions commonly found?
A

o Northeastern and mid-Atlantic states

218
Q
  • Where are ammonia depositions found?
A

o Farming states

219
Q
  • How do human emissions of NOx compare to natural emissions?
A

o Human NOx emissions are 3 times higher than natural emissions

220
Q
  • How does nitrogen affect the ecological environment?
A

o Nitrogen is an essential plant nutrient
o Algal blooms will result from too much nitrogen increasing growth and suffocating everything else

221
Q
  • Why is Mercury a major public health concern?
A

o Bioaccumulation
o Mercury is bioaccumulated and can be thousands of times greater in fish and birds in their prey

222
Q
  • Where is mercury naturally found?
A

o Rocks and minerals

223
Q
  • What human activity has increased mercury deposition?
A

o Combustion of coal, medical, and hazardous waste
o Thermometer and barometers
o Manufacturing process (electrical equipment, chlorine)

224
Q
  • T/F. Elemental mercury does not travel far from the source.
A

o False, elemental mercury is very mobile and can travel great distances

225
Q
  • How soluble is ionic mercury?
A

o Very soluble

226
Q
  • What is ionic mercury transformed to by microorganisms that make it toxic?
A

o Methyl mercury

227
Q
  • Why are pesticides, PCBs, dioxins, and furans concerning in the environment?
A

o These compounds are highly persistent in the environment with half live ranging from 10 to 20 years
o Very mobile due to high vitalization
o Bioaccumulate in the food chain

228
Q
  • What are the health concerns of pesticides, PCBs, dioxins, and furans?
A

o Neurotoxins, carcinogens, endocrine disruptors
o Dioxin is a teratogen

229
Q
  • Are PCBs found in the US?
A

o PCB are banned in the US

230
Q
  • How were PCBs, dioxins, and furans released into the environment?
A

o PCBs and pesticides were manufactured internationally
o Dioxin and furans are by products

231
Q
  • Why what the super sonic transport and nuclear testing questioned?
A

o Emission of NO molecules destroy O3

232
Q
  • Where is the reaction of NO of most concern?
A

o In the stratosphere
o In the troposphere, NO does not make it to the stratosphere due to the short half-life

233
Q
  • Why was there a global phase out of CFCs?
A

o Scientist noticed it resulted in an increase in the ozone hole

234
Q
  • Why is the ozone hole over antarctica?
A

o The polar vortex prevents Antarctic air from mixing with Earth’s atmosphere
o The extreme cold causes frozen clouds which form an electrostatic attraction with CFC and other molecules

235
Q
  • What is directly correlated with the size of the ozone hole?
A

o Strength of the polar vortex

236
Q
  • What is the primary source of CFCs?
A

o They are anthropogenic

237
Q
  • What is the cycle of ozone in the stratosphere?
A

o Ozone is constantly being created and destroyed resulting in a net zero reaction

238
Q
  • T/F. The ozone layer is even around the planet.
A

o False, it varies spatially and temporally over the planet

239
Q
  • If more ozone is produced in the tropics, why are ozone levels higher in the poles?
A

o Transport

240
Q
  • What signifies the production and destruction of ozone?
A

o The Chapman cycle?

241
Q
  • What is the Chapman cycle?
A

o A photon of light initially reacts with oxygen to produce 2 free radical oxygens
o The free radical can react with molecular oxygen to produce ozone
o Step 3 is the sink. Ozone is being naturally destroyed

242
Q
  • What is the source of ozone?
A

o When a free radical oxygen reacts with oxygen to create ozone

243
Q
  • What is the sink of ozone?
A

o When a photon reacts with ozone to eliminate ozone

244
Q
  • Where are chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) found?
A

o Refrigerants
o Air conditioners
o Aerosol sprays
o Paints
o Chemical solvents

245
Q
  • Why are CFCs extremely dangerous?
A

o Ther are extremely stable and can stick around long enough to be transported to the stratosphere
o They do not get broken down in the troposphere

246
Q
  • What is the CFC ozone destroying cycle?
A

o Chlorine is a catalyst that destroys ozone molecules
o One chlorine can destroy thousands of molecules
o CFCs act as a catalyst

247
Q
  • What does nitrogen do in the stratosphere?
A

o Act a catalyst

248
Q
  • What does nitrogen do in the troposphere?
A

o Half life is too short to be transported to the stratosphere

249
Q
  • What is expected as a result of the reduction in ozone depleting substances emissions?
A

o The ozone layer is expected to almost completely recover by the middle of the century
o The length of time is due to the natural sink processes for current ODS in the stratosphere
 Natural sink process takes a very long time

250
Q
  • What does global warming refer to?
A

o Average global temperatures

251
Q
  • Why are we in global warming?
A

o Average global temperatures have increased by 1.1 degrees C since pre industrial era

252
Q
  • What does climate change refer to?
A

o The changes in global weather patterns leading to an increase in length of hurricane season, more intense fires, tornadic actions, loss of winter
o We are now dealing with weather extremes

253
Q
  • What is the difference between global warming and climate change?
A

o Global warming is the gradual increase of earth’s surface temperature
o Climate change is the long-term change in global weather patterns

254
Q
  • T/F. Global temperatures have remained steady over the last 2,000 years.
A

o False, global temperature have risen faster over the last 50 years than anytime in the last 2000 years

255
Q
  • What was the hottest month and year ever recorded?
A

o 2023 was the hottest year
o August 2023 was the hottest month ever

256
Q
  • When have the 10 warmest years on record occurred?
A

o Between 2014 to 2023

257
Q
  • What is the 2 degree threshold?
A

o It is a general scientific consensus that reaching a 2 degree Celsius rise in temperature will lead to irreversible changes to our atmosphere and planet and is considered a critical threshold

258
Q
  • What has the 2 degree threshold been lowered to?
A

o 1.5 degrees C

259
Q
  • What is radiative forcing?
A

o The change in the net, downward minus upward, radiative flux (expressed in W/m2) due to a change in an external driver of climate change

260
Q
  • What does positive forcing do to the earth?
A

o Heats it

261
Q
  • What does negative forcing do to the earth?
A

o Cool it
o More outgoing than incoming

262
Q
  • What are contributors to radiative forcing?
A

o Greenhouse gasses
o Aerosols
o Sulfor dioxide
o Organic carbon
o Black carbon

263
Q
  • What do aerosols cause?
A

o Cooling

264
Q
  • What is radiative effectiveness similar to?
A

o Global warming potential
o Carbon dioxide is 1 and everything else is compared to it
o The numbers are pretty close to each other

265
Q
  • What are the effects of global warming?
A

o Economic collapse
o Marshall island vanishing
o Food and water security will lead to more conflict
o Long periods of extreme heat
 Nights are not cooling off
o Vector borne illness ranges will shift northward as habitats change

266
Q
  • What is episodic air pollution?
A

o These are characterized by short-term increases in air pollution that are significantly greater than normal daily levels

267
Q
  • What can the episodic air pollution lead to?
A

o Scientific documentation has provided solid evidence that these episodes can lead to illness, both acute and chronic, even death

268
Q
  • When can interaction effects occur?
A

o During transportation and deposition of pollutants, there is opportunity for the mixture of gases and particulates to interact and change the physiological effects of each other

269
Q
  • What are the types of interaction effects?
A

o Additive
o Antagonistic
o Synergistic

270
Q
  • What are additive effects?
A

o Doubling the effect of the pollutant

271
Q
  • What are antagonistic effects?
A

o Decrease in the effect in the presence of a second chemical

272
Q
  • What are synergistic effects?
A

o Increase in the effect in the presence of another chemical that is greater than the sum
o This can be instances such as making the effect go faster

273
Q
  • T/F. Pollutants affects every part of the body.
A

o False, pollutants are primarily organized to have impacts on specific organs

274
Q
  • What are the two types of effects pollutants can have on the body?
A

o Direct
o Indirect

275
Q
  • What are some examples of direct effects of pollutants on the body?
A

o Particles impacting surface of the eye and causing irritation, redness, etc.

276
Q
  • What are some examples of indirect effects of pollutants on the body?
A

o Pollutants that are initially inhaled but then are pulled into the bloodstream and deposited in other organ systems

277
Q
  • Why do we care about PM 2.5?
A

o Particles with an aerodynamic diameter of 2.5 can penetrate all three respiratory systems (inhalable, respirable, and thoracic)
o PM2.5 has a high deposition fraction in the pulmonary region

278
Q
  • What are the three regions of the respiratory system?
A

o Nasopharyngeal region
o Tracheobronchial region
o Pulmonary region

279
Q
  • What happens as size of the particle increases?
A

o The area where the particle will have its effect will be different

280
Q
  • Why do we care about PM10?
A

o Deposition of PM7.5 mainly occurs the greatest in the upper region of the lung and the tracheobronchial region

281
Q
  • What is the economic cost of air pollution?
A

o $4.6 trillion globally

282
Q
  • Why do we care about air pollution?
A

o Air pollution is a major threat to human health with major disparities related to socioeconomic indicators
o PM2.5 or less has been shown to have the strongest correlation (when compared to other pollutants such as the NQAAS)

283
Q
  • How many deaths due to stroke, lung cancer, and heart disease, are due to air pollution?
A

o 1/3 of deaths

284
Q
  • What are the health risks associated with breathing dirty air?
A

o Respiratory infections
o Cardiovascular disease
o Stroke
o Chronic lung disease
o Lung cancer

285
Q
  • What are the different NAAQS (criteria air pollutants)?
A

o Carbon monoxide
o Lead
o Nitrogen dioxide
o Ozone
o PM2.5
o Particle pollution
o PM10
o Sulfur Dioxide

286
Q
  • Why are NAAQS created?
A

o They are recommendation designed to protect human health
o Due to clean air act
o Over time it has become more strict

287
Q
  • What has been the trend in pollution because of these regulations?
A

o Air quality has greatly gotten better
o Lead is the best example
o Every pollutant has gone down

288
Q
  • What is PM2.5?
A

o The atmospheric particulate matter (PM) that have an aerodynamic diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers, which is about 3% the diameter of a human hair

289
Q
  • What is the WHO annual mean standard for PM2.5?
A

o 10 micrograms/m3

290
Q
  • What is the WHO 24 hour mean standard for PM2.5?
A

o 25 micrograms/m3

291
Q
  • What is the US annual and 24 hr mean for PM 2.5?
A

o Annual: 12 micrograms/m3
o 24 hour: 35 micrograms/m3
o But the US has gone down below the national standard (not every state because this is average)

292
Q
  • Why do we care about the aerodynamic diameter?
A

o Aerodynamic diameter controls where the particle settles in the body

293
Q
  • T/F. Particles are perfectly round.
A

o False, which is why we use aerodynamic diameter

294
Q
  • What happens to compact particles?
A

o They settle better

295
Q
  • What happens to particles that are spread out? Molecularly
A

o They settle higher

296
Q
  • PM pollution contributes to how much global risk factors for disease?
A

o 4 out of the 10 global risk factors

297
Q
  • Where can PM particles go?
A

o Every region of the body including lungs, heart, kidney, brain, with the highest exposure route from air (water and food are about equal)
o The smaller the particle, the farther it does

298
Q
  • What does deposition efficiency depend on?
A

o Particle size

299
Q
  • Particulate air pollution can cut global life expectancy by how many years?
A

2

300
Q
  • What are the sources of ambient particulate matter?
A

o Natural sources
o Human activity
o Vehicles
o Household wood, coal burning
o Power plants and industry

301
Q
  • What is the greatest human health risk?
A

o Air pollution surpassing smoking
o You lose 1.8 years per person due to air pollution
 This is the average and may change

302
Q
  • By reducing air pollution, what burden can countries reduce?
A

o Stroke
o Heart disease
o Lung cancer
o Acute respiratory disease
o Asthma

303
Q
  • What percent of the world population lives in places where WHO air quality guidelines are not met?
A

o Over 90%

304
Q
  • Ambient/outdoor air pollution is estimated to cause how many premature deaths worldwide?
A

o 4.2 million
o 91% occurred in low- middle- income countries

305
Q
  • Where do the greatest deaths from air pollution occur?
A

o South-east Asia
o Western Pacific regions
o Air pollution is disproportionately affecting people in Asia

305
Q
A
306
Q
  • How is indoor air pollution a problem?
A

o Indoor smoke is a health risk for 3 billion people who cook and heat their homes with biomass, kerosene fuels, and coal

307
Q
  • Loss of life due to air pollution is dependent on what?
A

o Where you live

308
Q
  • What is the global ranking of air pollution as a risk factor for death?
A

o Number 5

309
Q
  • What are the trends in air pollution based on sociodemographic index?
A

o Low income are exposed to the highest levels of PM2.5 (huge variance depending on SDI index)
o Everyone breathes bad ozone

310
Q
  • What are short term effects?
A

o Effects that are temporary or immediate effects and often reversible when exposure ends

311
Q
  • What can long-term exposures to pollutants result in?
A

o Aggravated health problems

312
Q
  • What population is susceptible to air pollution?
A

o Old people
o Children
o People with diabetes and predisposing heart or lung disease
o Asthma
o People without a strong immune system
o Individuals living in urban area
o Women in developing countries

313
Q
  • Why are urban areas more susceptible to the effects of air pollution?
A

o Overpopulation and uncontrolled urbanization along with the development of industrialization

314
Q
  • In developing countries, why are women susceptible to air pollution?
A

o The women of the household seem to carry the highest risk for disease development due to their longer duration exposure to the indoor air pollution

315
Q
  • What are the major factors that affect human health with air pollution?
A

o Nature of pollutants (pollutants have different effects)
o Concentration of pollutants (low concentrations can be expelled more)
o Duration of exposure (concentration and duration when multiplied become dose)
o State of the health of the receptor (healthy people are less effected because they have good immunity)
o Age group of the receptor (old people and children

316
Q
  • What is the air pollution pyramid?
A

o A framework commonly used to describe the spectrum of health impacts from exposure to air pollution
o As severity of outcomes increase, the proportion of people affected decrease

317
Q
  • What are the common air pollutants that affect human health?
A

o Carbon monoxide
o Sulphur dioxide
o Nitrogen oxide
o Ozone
o Particulate matter
o PAH (Polycyclic Aromatic Hydrocarbons)
o Dioxins
o VOCs (volatile organic compounds)

318
Q
  • Why do we care about really small particles?
A

o They can travel to the brain

319
Q
  • Why is carbon monoxide dangerous?
A

o It is colorless, odorless, tasteless and is known as the silent killer
o Reduces RBC carrying capacity of oxygen

320
Q
  • What can release carbon monoxide?
A

o Incomplete combustion of fuel from transportation sector
o Energy production
o Residential heating units
o Industrial processes
o On-road vehicles is the greatest source (why we want electric vehicles)

321
Q
  • Effects of CO depend on what?
A

o Concentration

322
Q
  • How is sulfur dioxide produced?
A

o Burning of material with a high sulfur content
 Cola-fired power stations
 Diesel vehicles
 Oil refineries
 Shipping

323
Q
  • What are the short term health effects of sulfur dioxide?
A

o Temporary breathing difficulty (bronchoconstriction)
o Eye/nose/throat irritation
o Mucus secretion

324
Q
  • What are the long term exposure of sulfur dioxide effects?
A

o Respiratory illness
o Aggravates existing heart disease

325
Q
  • What caused the deaths of the great London Smoke?
A

o Sulfur dioxide

326
Q
  • What are the sources of nitrogen oxide?
A

o Combustion of fuel at high temperature from mobile and stationary combustion sources
 Car and truck exhausts
 Coal-fired power stations
 Industry

327
Q
  • What are the health effects from prolonged exposure of nitrogen oxide?
A

o Pulmonary fibrosis (lung thickens)
o Emphysema (COPD)
o Higher LRI in children

328
Q
  • What is ground-level ozone?
A

o Colorless highly irritating gas formed by photochemical reactions just above the earth’s surface

329
Q
  • T/F. Ozone is a primary pollutant.
A

o False, it is produced by precursors like NOX and VOCs (NOX or VOC driven)
o No precursor, no ozone

330
Q
  • T/F. We want ozone in the troposphere.
A

o False, ozone is bad in the troposphere
o We want ozone in the stratosphere

331
Q
  • What are the short term effects of ozone?
A

o Coughing, wheezing, irritation, headache, dizziness, fatigue

332
Q
  • What are the long-term effects of ozone?
A

o Respiratory disease, cardiovascular damage, harm to liver/spleen/blood, nervous system damage, cancer, birth defects, death

333
Q
  • Why is lead bad?
A

o Its widespread use caused extensive environmental contamination and health problems in many parts of the world
o Children are particularly vulnerable to the neurotoxic effects

334
Q
  • What are the sources of lead?
A

o Burning of fuels with lead
o Metal processing
o Waste incinerators
o Production of lead-acid batteries
o Plumbing material and alloys

335
Q
  • What does particulate matter encompass?
A

o A mixture of solid, liquid or both particles suspended in the air

336
Q
  • What are the sources of particulate matter?
A

o Agricultural operations
o Industrial processes
o Combustion of wood and fossil fuels
o Construction
o Vehicular emission
o Entrainment of road dust into the air

337
Q
  • Why do we care about fine particles?
A

o Fine particles can invade the deepest parts of the airways and more easily reach the bloodstream
o They can have carcinogenic elements, we don’t know

338
Q
  • Order particles by size
A

o Ultrafine particles (0.0001 mm)
o Inhalable particles (0.001 mm)
o PM2.5 (0.0025 mm)
o PM10 (0.01 mm)

339
Q
  • What are the sources of polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH)?
A

o Coal and tar sediments
o Incomplete combustion of organic matter (forest fires)
o Incineration of solid waste
o Vehicular emissions and engines

340
Q
  • What are the short term effects of PAHs?
A

o Vomiting, nausea, difficulty moving, confusion, skin irritation, eye irritation

341
Q
  • What are the long-term effects of PAHs?
A

o Cataracts, reduced immunity, hemolysis, breathing problems, liver/kidney damage, pulmonary abnormalities, cancer

342
Q
  • Why are VOCs bad?
A

o VOCs such as toluene, benzene, ethylbenzene, and xylene have been found to be associated with cancer in humans

343
Q
  • What are the sources of VOCs?
A

o Anthropogenic
 Energy production, industry, solvent evaporation, waste treatment and disposal, agriculture
o Biogenic
 Plants with a smell, vegetation fire, soil

344
Q
  • Where do dioxins come from?
A

o Industrial processes and natural processes (forest fires and volcanic eruptions)

345
Q
  • What are the short term effects of dioxins?
A

o Dark spots and lesions on the skin

346
Q
  • What are the long-term effects of dioxins?
A

o Developmental problems
o Impairment of the immune, endocrine, and nervous system
o Reproductive infertility
o Cancer

347
Q
  • What do the health impacts of air pollution depend on?
A

o Exposure and dose of air pollutants inhaled
o Concentrations that are harmful are dependent on pollutant

348
Q
  • What areas are more susceptible to air pollution?
A

o Urban areas due to increased urbanization and industrialization

349
Q
  • What is the purpose of air monitoring?
A

o To assess trends in global concentrations of various air pollutants

350
Q
  • What are some examples of monitored pollutants?
A

o PM2.5
o PM10
o NOx
o Sox
o Pb

351
Q
  • What are the two types of ai monitoring assessments?
A

o Qualitative
o quantitative

352
Q
  • What is the purpose of qualitative air monitoring assessments?
A

o To be used as an indicator of the presence of air pollutants
o Examples include looking at trends or just looking at the visibility

353
Q
  • Why do we need quantitative assessments?
A

o To support regulatory requirements
o This is what is used for research

354
Q
  • What is air monitoring used for?
A

o Long term trends
o Human exposure
o Epidemiological studies
o Emission reduction programs
o Effectiveness of programs
o Determining new pollutants of interest

355
Q
  • What are the 7 NAAQS pollutants?
A

o CO
o Lead
o NO2
o O3
o PM2.5
o PM10
o SO2

356
Q
  • What effects does a primary standard look at?
A

o Health effects

357
Q
  • What effects does a secondary standard look at?
A

o Environmental effects

358
Q
  • What are the two primary contributors of ozone?
A

o NOx
o VOCs

359
Q
  • Why are national air toxic trend sites developed?
A

o To monitor the hazardous air pollutants (HAPS) that are not part of NAAQS
o This can also provide as an early warning for epi studies because these pollutants might become an NAAQS later down the road

360
Q
  • What are some examples of the hazardous air pollutants monitored by the 26 national air toxic trend sites?
A

o VOCs
o Carbonyls
o PM10 metals
o PAHs

361
Q
  • Who sets air quality guidelines for the world to use?
A

o Worl health organization (WHO)
o The world health organization and IQair analyze data from over 4000 contributors, including citizens, communities, governments and private sectors

362
Q
  • T/F. Females are more susceptible to deaths attributed to ambient air pollution than males.
A

o False, males exceed the total deaths

363
Q
  • Which emissions are vehicles a major source for?
A

o VOCs
o CO
o NOx

364
Q
  • Why are NOx and VOC emissions from vehicles bad for the environment?
A

o NOx and VOC are responsible for the production of ozone in the troposphere

365
Q
  • How much of the energy from fossil fuels do vehicles use?
A

o A third of the energy from fossil are used for vehicles

366
Q
  • T/F. The fuel efficiency of cars have decreased over the years resulting in an increase in CO2 emission.
A

o False, the opposite has occurred, even though human are moving away from more energy efficient sedans, cars have become more fuel efficient resulting in a decrease in carbon dioxide production

367
Q
  • What are the two main types of engines used in vehicles?
A

o Spark ignition internal combustion engine
o Diesel combustion engine

368
Q
  • What kind of engine would you find in cars, light duty trucks, and motor cycles?
A

o Spark ignition internal combustion engine

369
Q
  • What kind of vehicles are diesel engines found in?
A

o Utility vehicles
o Farm equipment
o Ships
o Passenger vehicles

370
Q
  • T/F. Diesel engines are better for the environment that spark ignition combustion engines.
A

o False, although diesel engines release less CO2 when compared to spark ignition combustion, diesel engine release more NOx and PM

371
Q
  • What do vehicle engines emit?
A

o CO2
o H2O
o N2
o CO
o PM

372
Q
  • What is the common formula of gasoline?
A

o CxHy

373
Q
  • What is octane?
A

o C8H18, which is what we find in typical unleaded gasoline

374
Q
  • What is the gasoline air to fuel ratio?
A

o How much air (O2 and N2) is required to burn fuel

375
Q
  • What is the air to fuel ratio for octane gas?
A

o 15 (1710/114)

376
Q
  • Why do we use the fuel to air ratio?
A

o To calculate and equivalence ratio Φ

377
Q
  • What does it mean when the equivalence ratio is equal to 1?
A

o The combustion is stoichiometric
o All oxygen is consumed

378
Q
  • What does it mean when the equivalence ratio is less than 1?
A

o This indicates lean fuel conditions
o You have excess air

379
Q
  • Why do you not want lean fuel conditions?
A

o It may damage the engine

380
Q
  • What does it mean when the equivalence ratio is greater than 1?
A

o Fuel rich conditions
o You have too little air

381
Q
  • What is bad about an equivalence ratio over 1?
A

o Excess carbon monoxide will be released

382
Q
  • What is the common equivalence ratio?
A

o Greater than 1

383
Q
  • T/F. The constituents to produce gasoline in oil refineries are pretty standard across companies.
A

o False they vary

384
Q
  • Where will you find lead in gasoline?
A

o As of 2021, lead in gasoline is gone

385
Q
  • What are some examples of alternative fuels?
A

o Alcohol fuels such as methanol and ethanol
o compressed

386
Q
  • What are the emissions produced from alcohol fuels?
A

o Methanol
o Formaldehyde
o NOx

387
Q
  • Why do we care about formaldehyde emissions?
A

o Formaldehyde is photochemically reactive

388
Q
  • Which alcohol fuel is most common?
A

o E10, a 90/10 blend of gasoline and alcohol
* Look up LPG and CNG

389
Q
  • What are low emission vehicles?
A

o Vehicles that do not produce as much NOx and CO2
o These vehicle include hybrid and electric vehicles

390
Q
  • What are hybrid vehicles?
A

o Vehicles that combine EV and ICE (internal combustion engine)

391
Q
  • What is considered a zero emission vehicle (ZEV)?
A

o Electric

392
Q
A