Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Belmont Report

A

1) Beneficence: risk-benefit analysis of findings vs. harm
2) Autonomy: respect for participants and their decisions
3) Justice: fairness in accepting risk and receiving benefits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

APA Code of Ethics

A

1) Beneficence: risk-benefit analysis of findings vs. harm
2) Fidelity and responsibility: maintaining trust and following through
3) Integrity: don’t lie, cheat, plagiarize, etc.
4) Justice: fairness in accepting risk and receiving benefits
5) Respect: respecting individual differences, respecting consent, being aware of own biases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Six steps of a research project

A

1) Ask a question stemming from a theory
2) Develop a specific and testable hypothesis
3) Select a method and design the study
4) Collect the data
5) Analyze data and draw conclusions
6) Report findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do we minimize harm?

A

1) Informed consent
2) Debriefing
3) IRB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What defines experimental design?

A

Must have manipulation of independent variables and random assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a quasi-experimental or subject variable?

A

A trait that cannot be changed about the participant, but participants can be grouped based on these traits (height, shoe size, age, eye color, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Internal validity

A

The extent to which causal conclusions can be substantiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

External validity

A

The extent to which results can be generalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Construct validity

A

The degree to which variable operations accurately reflect the construct they’re designed to measure (free from systematic error)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Criteria for causality

A

1) Relationship between variables
2) Causal variable precedes affected variable
3) No possibility of a third variable affecting both (confounding)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What makes a true experiment?

A

A true experiment has internal validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reliability

A

The extent to which a measure is consistent (free from random error)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ways to measure reliability

A

1) Test-retest reliability
2) Internal consistency
3) Inter-rater reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Test-retest reliability

A

If you measure the same individuals at two different points in time the results should be highly correlated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Internal consistency

A

Whether the individual items in a scale correlate well with each other – Cronbach’s Alpha assesses the correlation of each item with each other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Inter-rater reliability

A

The agreement of observations made by two or more judges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ways to measure construct validity

A

1) Face validity
2) Content validity
3) Convergent validity
4) Discriminant validity
5) Predictive validity
6) Concurrent validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Face validity

A

How obvious it is to the participant what the test is measuring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Content validity

A

Whether experts believe the measure relates to the concept being assessed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Convergent validity

A

The measure overlaps with a different measure that is intended to tap the same theoretical construct (the participant should be able to fill out two surveys and get correlating results)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Discriminant validity

A

The measure does not overlap with other measures that are intended to tap different or opposite theoretical constructs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Predictive validity

A

The measure’s ability to predict a future behavior or outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Concurrent validity

A

The extent to which the measure corresponds with another current behavior or outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nominal scale

A

Numbers stand for categories but mean nothing themselves (male = 1, female = 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ordinal scale

A

Numbers indicate rank order, indicating preference but not by how much (psych = 1, bio = 2, math = 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Interval scale

A

The distances between numbers on a scale are all equal in size, but zero is an arbitrary reference point (Likert scale)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Ratio scale

A

The only scale that measures a true amount of something. Zero means a non-existent amount of that variable, there cannot be negative numbers, and 4 is twice as much as 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Close-ended question

A

Has a limited number of response alternatives, meaning higher specificity but less variety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Open-ended question

A

Allows respondents to generate their own answers, meaning more variety but less control and harder to analyze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Interview bias

A

The researcher may subtly suggest a desired response, interpret the response in the desired way, or probe open-ended questions to get the desired response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Respondent bias

A

Participants may act due to social desirability or response set (answering all questions similarly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ways to assess the construct validity of the independent variable

A

1) Pre-test
2) Manipulation check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pre-test

A

Conducted before the actual study with a different set of participants and is meant to determine if the IV manipulation works as predicted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Manipulation check

A

Conducted during the study and assesses whether the manipulation of the IV had its intended effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Ways to measure the dependent variable

A

1) Self-report
2) Behavioral
3) Physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Self-report

A

Asking participants about the behavior of interest; is easy and cheap, but is subject to bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Behavioral report

A

Direct observations of participant behavior; is effective and direct, but can be expensive, time-consuming, and subject to reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Physiological report

A

Directly recording responses of the body; is objective and measures strength of the reaction, but does not always capture valence and is subject to reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Ways to control for participant expectations

A

1) Cover story: provides rationale
2) Filler items: reduces face validity
3) Placebo group: level of IV that shows role of expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Experimenter bias

A

When an experimenter might subtly suggest how they hope the participant will respond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ways to reduce experimenter bias

A

1) Double-blind study: experimenter is blind to IV group of the participant
2) Blind to hypothesis: experimenter does not know the hypothesis of the study
3) Automated scripts and computers
4) Running participants in groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Post-test only design

A

Participants are randomly assigned to one level of the IV and then measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pre-test Post-test design

A

Participants are given a pre-test and then randomly assigned to one level of the IV and measured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the purpose of a pre-test?

A

The pre-test gives a baseline measure of the DV before any IV manipulation in order to…
- ensure that groups are similar to start
- identify certain characteristics of participants
- measure the amount of change
- understand mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Between participants/independent groups

A

Each participant is randomly assigned to one level of the IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Within participants/repeated measures

A

Each participant is assigned to all of the levels of the IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the advantages of a repeated measures design?

A
  • Participants are used more efficiently
  • Can control for individual differences as each participant is their own control
46
Q

What are the disadvantages of a repeated measures design?

A
  • Could give away the nature of the study
  • The order of presenting IV levels can impact results (control by counterbalancing and increasing time intervals)
47
Q

Mixed factorial design

A

Combination of between participants and within participants

48
Q

Matched pairs design

A

Order participants based on the independent variable, pair them in order, and randomly assign each pair to different groups

49
Q

Factorial Design

A

Any experimental design with more than one IV

Need to consider main effects and interactions

50
Q

Main effect

A

The direct effect of an IV on a DV. There is the potential for up to as many main effects as there are IVs

51
Q

Interaction

A

When the effect of an IV on a DV depends on the level of another IV. There is a possible interaction for every combination of IVs

52
Q

Moderator

A

An IV that affects the direction and/or strength of the relationship between another IV and the DV

Help us understand when an IV will impact a DV

Moderation exists when an interaction exists

“The effect of IV-1 on DV is moderated by IV-2”

53
Q

Mediator

A

Represents the mechanism by which an IV influences the DV

Usually another DV that offers a deeper explanation for how the IV causes the main DV

IV –> mediator –> DV

54
Q

Descriptive statistics

A

Statistics that describe the sample data
- measure of central tendency
- measures of variability
- distribution
- frequency
- correlation
- regression
- effect size

55
Q

Distribution

A

General name for any organized set of data

56
Q

Frequency

A

How often a score occurs

57
Q

N

A

Sample size (# of data points)

58
Q

Frequency distribution

A

Shows the number of times a score occurs in a set of data

Usually in a frequency distribution table

59
Q

Bar graph

A

Used to demonstrate frequency of nominal or ordinal data

60
Q

Histogram

A

Used to demonstrate frequency of interval or ratio data

61
Q

Frequency polygon

A

Identical to histogram (frequency of interval or ratio data) but uses connected data points instead of bars

62
Q

Mode

A

Most frequent score

Indicates central tendency with all scales including nominal scales

63
Q

Median

A

Score than divides the group in have with 50% scoring above and 50% scoring below

Indicates central tendency with ordinal, interval, and ratio scales

64
Q

Mean

A

Found by adding all the scores and dividing by the number of scores

Indicates central tendency with interval or ratio scales

65
Q

Range

A

Largest value minus the smallest value in the sample – often inaccurate measure due to outliers

66
Q

Standard deviation

A

Average deviation of the scores from the mean – more accurate since it uses every score

67
Q

Variance

A

The standard deviation squared

68
Q

Correlation plots

A

Measure the strength and direction of the relationship between two variables

69
Q

Effect size

A

Refers to the strength of association between variables; provides a scale of values that is consistent across all types of studies (for example, Pearson’s r)

70
Q

Pearson’s r

A

r = 0.15 –> small effect size
r = 0.3 –> medium effect size
r = 0.4 –> large effect size

71
Q

r squared

A

Transforms Pearson’s r into a percentage of variance in one variable that can be accounted for by the other variable

72
Q

Cohen’s d

A

Measures the standardized difference between two means

d = 0.5 –> the means are half of a standard deviation apart (medium effect size)

73
Q

Simple regression

A

Predicts a score on one variable when the score on another variable is already known

Linear line of best fit through a scatterplot

74
Q

Multiple regression

A

Used to combine a number of predictor variables to increase the accuracy of prediction of a given criterion or outcome variable (R)

75
Q

Partial correlations

A

The correlation between two variables of interest with the influence of a third variable removed

76
Q

Inferential statistics

A

Used to determine whether a sample of scores is likely to represent a certain population of scores

Based on the probability that the difference between means reflects random error versus real difference

77
Q

Criterion

A

A value that tells us when we are going to decide a sample is too unlikely to have occurred through chance alone (alpha = 0.05)

78
Q

Sampling error

A

A sample statistic that differs from the population parameter it represents due to chance factors

79
Q

Type I error

A

The researcher rejects the null hypothesis when the null is actually true

80
Q

Type II error

A

The researcher fails to reject the null hypothesis when the null is actually false (alternative is true)

81
Q

Experimental realism

A

The extent to which experimental procedures have an impact on participants

82
Q

Mundane realism

A

The extent to which experimental events in the controlled laboratory setting are similar to events which occur in the real world

83
Q

Exact replication

A

An attempt to replicate precisely the procedures of a study to see whether the same results are obtained

84
Q

Conceptual replication

A

Attempting to replicate the relationship between conceptual variables from the original study, but operationalizing these variables in a different way

85
Q

Constructive replication

A

The replication wants to affirm the original research by fixing some methodological problems

86
Q

Destructive replication

A

The replication wants to prove that the original research was wrong due to methodological problems

87
Q

Advantages of meta-analysis

A
  • precision
  • objectivity
  • replicability
  • ability to make corrections
88
Q

Disadvantages of meta-analysis

A
  • statistics over reason
  • objectivity and replicability can vary
  • significant vs. practical
89
Q

Experimental research

A

Explaining behavior by determining cause and effect relationships among variables

90
Q

Correlational research

A

Looking for relationships among variables

91
Q

Descriptive research

A

Making observations that describe behavior

92
Q

Advantages of descriptive research

A
  • higher external validity
  • higher construct validity
  • higher mundane realism
93
Q

Disadvantages of descriptive research

A
  • lower internal validity
  • lower reliability
  • lower experimental realism
  • potential for observer bias
94
Q

Observational research

A

Describing behavior

Naturalistic or systematic

95
Q

Naturalistic observational research

A

The researcher makes observations in a natural, social setting

Qualitative: a small sample described in great depth (consider participant or nonparticipant and concealed purpose or not)

Inductive: begins with observations and generates hypotheses

96
Q

Systematic observational research

A

The selection, recording, and encoding of natural behaviors

Quantitative: operationalize construct, determine setting and mode of observation, select sampling strategy, and train observers

Deductive: have a theory from which we generate hypotheses and use data to test hypotheses

97
Q

Archival research

A

Using previously compiled information to answer research questions (statistical records, survey archives, written records)

98
Q

Advantages of archival research

A
  • free or cheap data
  • abundance of data
  • span of time periods
  • look at reactions to natural events
99
Q

Disadvantages of archival research

A
  • low internal validity
  • low reliability
  • biases/errors
  • no ability to gather extra information
100
Q

Confidence interval

A

The range of scores around the sample results within which you have confidence that the true population value lies (allows generalization)

101
Q

Probability sampling

A

Each member of the population has a specified probability of being included in the sample
- simple random sampling
- stratified random sampling

102
Q

Simple random sampling

A

Every member has an equal chance of inclusion in the sample

103
Q

Stratified random sampling

A

Subgroups are chosen and then random sampling occurs within those subgroups

104
Q

Non-probability sampling

A

We don’t try to accurately represent the entire population within our sample
- convenience sampling
- quota sampling

105
Q

Convenience sampling

A

Using the most convenient participants for your sample

106
Q

Quota sampling

A

Choose subgroups and then use convenience sampling within the subgroups

107
Q

Quasi-experimental designs

A
  • one-group pretest-posttest design
  • nonequivalent control group design without pretest
  • nonequivalent control group design with pretest
108
Q

One-group pretest-posttest design

A

Participants are tested on a quasi-experimental DV before and after the application of the IV (only one level of IV)

109
Q

Nonequivalent control group design (without pretest)

A

Participants are assigned to an IV level based on an established variable, undergo application of IV, and then have the DV measured

110
Q

Nonequivalent control group design (with pretest)

A

Participants are assigned to IV levels based on an established variable, pretested on the DV, undergo application of the IV, and then posttested on the DV

111
Q

Interrupted time-series design

A

Multiple measurements of the DV occur before and after treatment

112
Q

Interrupted time-series design with nonequivalent control group design

A

Two interrupted time-series designs are conducted with one group receiving a treatment and one group not receiving a treatment

113
Q

Developmental research designs

A
  • cross-sectional method
  • longitudinal method
114
Q

Cross-sectional method

A

Persons of different ages are studied at one point in time

115
Q

Longitudinal method

A

The same people are studied at different points in time as they age