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Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

Define CPR

A

Emergence procedure performed in order to manually maintain perfusion until spontaneous circulation can be restored

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2
Q

Define CPA (cardiopulmonary arrest)

A

Cessation of normal circulation due to failure of the heart to contract effectively

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3
Q

What is the biggest influence on whether CPR will work or not

A

If CPA does not have a reversible cause, CPR is unlikely to be successful - example, if it is due to anesthesia it is likely reversible, if it is due to a terminal disease, it probably is not

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4
Q

What is the success rate of CRR

A

5%

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5
Q

What are 3 key features in recognizing CPR

A

Loss of consciousness, loss of normal spontaneous breathing, loss of palpable pulses

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6
Q

What are common preceding events to CPR

A

Bradycardia, worsening mentation, sudden increase in vagal tone (vomiting, straining to defecate), sudden change in breathing pattern

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7
Q

Which pose are you going to feel if concerned about CPA

A

Femoral pulses

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8
Q

What are common diseases that predispose to CPA, warranting intense monitoring and aggressive therapy

A

Sepsis, sirs , heart failure , pulmonary disease, trauma, neoplasia, general anesthesia

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9
Q

What are the 6 roles of a CPR crash team

A

Leader, ventilator, compressor, time keeper, recorder, drug administrator

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10
Q

When performing CPR, do you follow the ABC rule (airway, breathing , circulation)

A

No - start compressions immediately before securing airway (because it takes too long together supplies ) - it is circulation , airway and breathing

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11
Q

How many breaths per minute do you give when patient is intubated and you are giving manual breaths

A

8-12 breaths/minute

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12
Q

What amount of oxygen do you use when giving manual breaths

A

100% oxygen

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13
Q

What is our ultimate goal in CPR

A

Get the heart beating again _ we con manually give breaths for while but without circulation it doesn’t matter

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14
Q

When do you use the thoracic pump theory in CPR

A

Over 15 kg dog, wide chest

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15
Q

When do you use the cardiac pump theory

A

Less than 15 kg

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16
Q

How many compressions per minute do you do with CPR

A

100 compressions per minute

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17
Q

How do you give chest compressions

A

Depress the chest by one third then allow complete chest recoil to allow venous blood return to heart

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18
Q

When is open chest CPR indicated

A

Large dogs with thoracic trauma, pleural or pericardial disease, intra operative arrest, ineffective chest compressions

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19
Q

If you are successful with open chest CPR I what do you need to be prepared for

A

Thoracotomy - cut into the there to reach lungs or other organs

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20
Q

What are examples of pleural or pericardial disease that would indicate open chest CPR

A

Pneumothorax, pleural or pericardial effusion, diaphragmatic hernia

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21
Q

What are the 4 recognized arrest rhythms

A

Ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, systole, pulseless electrical activity

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22
Q

What are the two shockable rhythms

A

Ventricular fibrillation and pulse less ventricular tachycardia

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23
Q

Is the goal of defibrillation to start the heart again

A

No - goal is to shut down the electrical activity to let the heart and sinus node do its thing

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24
Q

What is the shock dose for external defibrillation

A

2-10 joules/ kg

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25
Q

What position is the dog in when you do defibrillation

A

Dorsal

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26
Q

How long after defibrillation do you recheck the rhythm

A

2 minutes

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27
Q

What is the most common CPR drug used and how is it given

A

Epinephrine - give IV at 1 ml/10 kg every 4 minutes

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28
Q

When would no use atropine in a CPA

A

Before arrest for bradycardia - give 1ml/10kg IV

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29
Q

What 2 things do you monitor with CPA

A

ECG and end tidal co2

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30
Q

What does end tital co2 tell you during CPA

A

Confirms ET tube placement and identifies ROSC (return to spontaneous circulation) I also assesses quality of CPR compressions

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31
Q

When do you give fluids during a CPA

A

Only if the patient was hypovolemic prior to arrest - otherwise can reduce coronary perfusion

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32
Q

Do yo use antiarrhytmic agents like lidocaine in CPA

A

no - can decrease success of defibrillation and suppress ventricular activity

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33
Q

How do you assess brain function during triage

A

Mention - due, stuporous , comatose, death. And if patient is seizing

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34
Q

What is the difference between dull and stuporous and comatose

A

Dull - responds to all stimuli with less Vigor,
Stuporous - only responds to noxious stimuli
Comatose - no response to noxious stimuli

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35
Q

How do you check lung function with triage

A

Breathing rate and effort , abdominal effort on expiration , neck extension, stressed look

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36
Q

Do we care about crackles or where’s on triage exam

A

No

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37
Q

What is the only cause for panting in dog

A

Thermoregulation - trying to cool off

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38
Q

What do you check on triage to assess perfusion

A

Heart rate , mm, CRT, mention, temperature, pulse quality, thermometer!

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39
Q

On cardiovascular triage, we are looking for - in dogs and - in cats

A

Tachycardia in dogs (60 - 120 bpm), bradycardia in-cats (180 - 240 bom)

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40
Q

When do cats usually become bradycardic

A

When in shock and decompensating

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41
Q

When there is low perfusion ( in dogs especially) , what is the first thing the body does

A

Heart rate increases

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42
Q

Where does gum color come from

A

Hemoglobin

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43
Q

What do mm colors indicate - pink, red, brown, blue yellow, white

A

Pink - enough hemoglobin
Red -oxyhemoglobin
Brown - toxins leading to methemoglobin
Blue - deoxhemoslobin (no oxygen bonding to hemoglobin)
Yellow - bilirubin which is a by product of hemoglobin break down
While - decreased hemoglobin (anemia or vasoconstriction)

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44
Q

What is CRT look like with vasoconstriction? Vasodilation?

A

Over 2 seconds with vasoconstriction
Les than one second with vasodilation

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45
Q

How can mentation indicate perfusion

A

Brain reeds ouch and sugar to work (gets these by blood fow) - correct perfusion then reassess the mention

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46
Q

Poor mention in the absence of other neuro signs indicates

A

Poor perfusion

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47
Q

How can temperature indicate perfusion

A

Hypothermia concerning - when cold you vasoconstrictor and when u vasoconstriction you get cold (shunt blood away from periphery to maintain blood now to the core organs)

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48
Q

A low body temp and cold toes can indicate

A

Perfusion problems

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49
Q

Describe weak pulse

A

Distance between systole and diastole is shortened - less volume per bolus

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50
Q

Define shock

A

Severe imbalance between oxygen supply and demand, leading to inadequate cellar energy production significant decrease in oxygen supply to tissues or an overconsumption of oxygen

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51
Q

Shock is a balance between

A

Oxygen deliver and oxygen consumption

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52
Q

Oxygen delivery = - x -

A

Cardiac output times arterial content of exigen

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53
Q

What does art trial content of oxygen mean

A

How much oxygen is in the bloodstream

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54
Q

What are the 3 types of shock

A

Circulatory, hypoxic, metabolic

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55
Q

What are the types of circulatory shock

A

Hypovolemic, distributive, obstructive, cardigenic

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56
Q

The majority of shocks are - and due to

A

Most are circulatory and due to decreased oxygen delivery

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57
Q

What’s the most common type of circulatory shock? Describe it

A

Hypovolemic - decreased intravascular volume, decreased preload, decreased cardiac output

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58
Q

What are causes of hypovolemic shock

A

Hemorrhage, severe dehydration (GI or renal losses), third space fluid loss, severe burns (loss of proteins and electrolytes)

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59
Q

Describe distributive shock

A

Mal distribution of fluid from changes in vascular tone and increased vascular permeability (there is enough volume but it is not getting to the tissues , decreased systemic vascular resistance (deficits in preload or contractiling)

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60
Q

What are causes of distributive shocks

A

Anaphylactic Shock ( histamine induced vasodilation) , septic shock (endothelial dysfunction) , neurogenic shock, extreme fear

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61
Q

Describe obstructive shock

A

Compression of heart or great vessel that interferes with venous return, decreased diastolic filling and preload, decreased cardiac output

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62
Q

What are causes of obstructive shock

A

GDV ,obstruction of vena cava ,tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade from periodical effusion, positive pressure ventilation

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63
Q

When there is pericardial effusion and increased pressure over the heart - which part of the heart collapses first

A

The right atrium (least pressure)

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64
Q

Describe cardiogenic shock

A

Decrease in forward flow from heart due to pump failure - primer decrease in cardiac output due to an issue with the heart and tie pump failure

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65
Q

What are causes of cardiogenic shock

A

Systolic failure (dcm), diastolic failure (hcm), atrioventricular valve degeneration, Brady or tachy arrhythmias

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66
Q

Describe hypoxia shock - what are causes

A

Decreased arterial oxygen content and decreased oxygen deliver to tissues - caused by severe pulmonary disease, anemia, dyshemoglobinemias

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67
Q

Describe metabolic shock and its causes

A

Deranged cellular metabolism leading to inappropriate oxygen tissue use due to severe hypoglycemia and mitochondrial dysfunction

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68
Q

What do catecholimines cause

A

Increased heart rate, contractility and peripheral vasoconstriction

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69
Q

What are 4 compensatory mechanisms of shock

A

Barocreceptor reflex, chemoreceptors I RAA S activation, antdiruetic hormone

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70
Q
  • Is often considered hallmark for decompensatory shock
A

Hypotension - map determines peripheral perfusion

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71
Q

What ave 2 types of distributive shock? Describe them

A

Anaphylactic and septic - initial vasodilation then vasoconstriction

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72
Q

What are clinical signs of anaphylactic or septic shock

A

Tachycardia, CRT less than 1second (because of the vasodilation), red to injected mucus membranes , elevated temp, bounding pulses

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73
Q

, Bradycardia in cats is - until proven other wise

A

Shock

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74
Q

What is the shock organ for dogs? For cats?

A

Dogs - git
Cats - lung

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75
Q

Hypothermia in dogs indicates what type of shock

A

Crudiogenic - in cats it can indicate any type of shock

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76
Q

What is the goal of shock treatment

A

Restore oxygen delivery to tissues as soon as possible - flow by oxygen, obtain IV access, IV find bolus UNLESS in cordiogenic shock

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77
Q

What are indications for peripheral venous catheters

A

Emergency like CPA, fluid admin, sedation , euthanasia

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78
Q

When do you often place auricular catheters

A

Mostly GDVs

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79
Q

What type of catheter is best for fluid administratrion and blood products especially in shock patients

A

Large bore, short catheters

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80
Q

What is the purpose of venous cut down for peripheral venous catheters

A

Temporary utilization to provide fluid resuscitation until routine peripheral venous catheter can be more readily replaced - emergency situations to provide stability with fluids or blood products

81
Q

What should you do after rending venous cut down catheters

A

Contaminated nature of catheter placement means you need to lavage and close aseptically

82
Q

Where is venous cut down done in dog? Cat?

A

Lateral saphenous dog, medial saphenous cat

83
Q

Define phlebitis

A

Inflammation of a vein near the surface of the skin

84
Q

If you have a dog with a fever and a catheter who is otherwise doing well, what should you do

A

Change the catheter in case of phlebitis

85
Q

When do you place intraosseous catheters and where

A

Small or neonatal patients, exotics, failure for peripheral venous catheter - placed in femoral or humeral or tibia

86
Q

Describe the efficacy of intraosseous catheters

A

Slower onset of drug admin, is for fluid resuscitation until venous peripheral access can be had, quicker time to place a venous cut down , blood samples less accurate because it is from bone marrow

87
Q

What is the Max time an intraosseuos catheter should be placed

A

24 hard max

88
Q

When are intermittent uincy catheters best

A

For contrast procedures or to relieve an obstruction

89
Q

When should you prescribe antibiotics in emergency

A

Know bacterial infection that has positive culture or suspected bacterial infection (due to signs like a fever, information)

90
Q

Does fever mean infection

A

No - fever means inflammation (not all inflammation is caused by an infection)

91
Q

Should you give antibiotics for upper respiratory tract infections

A

No-usually is due to a virus with secondary bacterial infection

92
Q

Should you give febrile patients antibiotics

A

Sometime but usually it is due to viral infections

93
Q

What are the 5 classes of analgesics used in the Er

A

Opioids, NSAIDs, alpha 2 agonists, NMDA receptor antagonists, local anesthetics

94
Q

What are pros of opioids

A

Excellent analgesia , minimal cardiovascular effects, reversible, sedation

95
Q

How do you reverse opioids

A

Naloxone

96
Q

Opioids in an Er setting are good for dogs with - and -

A

Safe for shock dogs and congestive heart failure due to the minimal cardiovascular effects

97
Q

What are the cons of opioids in Er patients

A

Possible respirators depression, parental primary (oral bioavailability low), sedation, abuse, GI upset and illus

98
Q

Summarize the use of opioids in Er and the time limit

A

Good analgesic for acute, severe pain , safe and effective but is not good for chronic use (max 24-48 hour use)

99
Q

Stop opioids at 48 hours max due to

A

Adverse GI effects

100
Q

What are the pros of NSAIDs

A

Excellent analgesia , .oral and parental, inexpensive

101
Q

What are the cons of NSAIDs

A

Possible GI ulceration, no use in dehydrated or hypovolemic patients due to decreased renal blue flow and not reversible

102
Q

What is the reversal for NSAIDs

A

No reversal

103
Q

If an animal is on NSAIDs and they stop eating , what should you do

A

Stop the NSAIDs became if they aren’t eating , they aren’t drinking so it is not safe

104
Q

Immediately after trauma, would you start a dog on NSAIDs

A

No - you reed to make sure renal perfusion is good first

105
Q

How do NSAIDs affect the kidneys

A

Renal autoregulation is mediated by prostaglandins and NSAIDs block prostaglandin production so during a trauma the kidneys are not able to adjust in the face of hypotension (leaves the kidneys unprotected)

106
Q

How do NSAIDs affect git and stomach

A

They block prostaglandins that lead the gut to be more susceptible to ulcer formation (prostagladino importat to make mucus buffers and secrete more bicarb)

107
Q

Summarize NSAIDs

A

Excellent analgesia for severe, chronic and orthopedic pain contraindicated in dehydration and hypovolemia (big risk of renal damage ) I risk of GI upset and ulcers

108
Q

When do you use NSAIDs generally? Can you give them on an empty

A

If patient is well hydrated and perfusing well for both qs

109
Q

What are pros of alpha 2 agonists

A

Effective analgesia, powerful sedation, cheap, reversible

110
Q

What are the cons of alpha 2 agonists

A

Significant decrease in cardiac output so limit use to very stable patients, profund sedation , respiratory depression, parental only

111
Q

What can be the risk with the profound sedation seen by alpha 2 agonists

A

Decreases ability to detect pain in Er patients

112
Q

Is dexmedetonidine a good option for patients with decreased cardiovascular status

A

No - significant decrease in cardiac output

113
Q

Does a lower dose of dexmedetomidine (an alpha 2 agonist) men it is safer for heart patients

A

No - no matter the dose there is always a 60-70% drop in cardiac output; it is a yes or no drug -i either the patient is stable enough or not

114
Q

What is an example of NMDA receptor agonist

A

Ketamine

115
Q

When are NMDA receptor antagonists best

A

Most effective if given before the painful stimulus (like if you give before surgery)

116
Q

What are the beeline of NMDA receptor antagonists

A

Reduces amount of opioids needed for analgesia, prevent windup can increase in pain intensity caused by the same stimulus over time

117
Q

What is a pro of NMDA receptor antagonists

A

Minimal to no GI effects so good for severe pain and GI signs

118
Q

What is the main stay therapy for shock patients

A

Fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystolloids like LRS IV over 10-20 minutes, then immediate reassessment after bonus , whole blood if bleeding or blood loss

119
Q

What are treatments for obstructive shock patients (a subcategory of distributive shock)

A

Gashed trocharization, thoracocentesis , pericordiocentesis (relieve pressure causing the obstruction)

120
Q

What ave quick treatments for patients in septic shock

A

Vasopressors like norepinephrine, broad spectrum antibiotics, fluids

121
Q

How do you treat anaphylactic shock

A

Vasopressers like epinephrine, antihistamines, fluids

122
Q

What would you not use to treat cardiogenic shock? What do youdo?

A

No IV fluids! Correct underlying disease, oxygen therapy, minimize stress

123
Q

How do you treat chf leading to cardiogenic shock

A

Diuretics like furosemide , oxygen therapy

124
Q

How do you treat life threatening arrhythmias leading to cardiogenic shock

A

Lidocaine or atropine

125
Q

What are your resuscitation endpoints for shock therapy

A

Clinical reassessment every 5 to 10 minutes or after every therapy used during stabilization - can desolate after normal perfusion parameters are reached

126
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator of Shock

A

Heart rate

127
Q

When triaging, what is usually the easiest pulses to feel

A

Femoral pulses

128
Q

What is the most common shock in poly trauma patients

A

Hemorrhagic shock - tissue hypopefusion due to decreased cardiac output and decreased mean arterial pressure

129
Q

What do you look for first in poly trauma patients

A

Check lactate, tissue perfusion, signs of hemorrhagic shock (heart rate, mm, etc)

130
Q

What is the goal of IV fluid resuscitation

A

Restore tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery

131
Q

Crystalloids are a-

A

Balanced electrolyte solution

132
Q

A benefit of colloids is that they stay

A

In the intravascuor space longer

133
Q

What is point of care ultrasonography

A

Abdominal fast scans Or thoracic fast scans

134
Q

What are benefit of pocus

A

Portable and we don’t need a radiologist to interpret, fast, can be done while other tests are being done

135
Q

What is the ultimate goat of fast scans

A

To see if there is free fluid in the thorax or abdomen and tren use as a guide for procedures like thoracocentesis, pericordiocentesis, etc

136
Q

Why is performing A fast in right lateral best

A

Decreased risk of hitting the spleen if aspirating - dorsal recumbency bad for patients with respiratory distress

137
Q

What is important to check for on an afast especially after trauma

A

Check to make sure the bladder is intact

138
Q

What are the 4 views to check on an afast

A

Diaphragmatic hepatic, spleen renal, cysto colic, hepatorenal

139
Q

How do you use abdominal fluid scores

A

Purpose is to gauge severity of abdominal effusions - a score of I men’s file seen in to 4 sites and so on (this score should correlate with CBC, PCI, etc)

140
Q

How often should you repeat afast scans and scores

A

Every 4 hours (even hour if patient is shock)

141
Q

Lung rockets on tfasf scans indicate what

A

Lung contusions, wet lung, some sort of interstitial disease

142
Q

Bar code signs on M mode on TFast could indicate

A

Pneumothorax

143
Q

Rain sign on m mode for tfast could indicate what

A

Wet lung or interstitial disease

144
Q

What is the benefit of a mushroom view on tfast

A

To see heart function and contractility

145
Q

What size should the left atrium be compared to the aorta on tfast

A

Left atrium should be 1- 1.5 times the size of the aorta (if bigger left atrial enlargement)

146
Q

Define orthopnea

A

Positional increases in difficulty breathing - head and reck extended, elbows abducted (basically trying to extend path of breathing)

147
Q

Define dyspnea

A

Sensation of breathless

148
Q

Issues breathing on inspiration localize the problem to where

A

Upper respiratory

149
Q

Issues on expiratory breathing indicates a problem where

A

Lower airway like bronchial disease

150
Q

Where is the problem localized to with increased effort during all breathing phases

A

Parenchymal

151
Q

Short shallow breathing localizes the problem to where

A

Pleural space

152
Q

What are 3 things to do over a patient is in respiratory distress

A

Minimize stress , oxygen supplementation, provide sedation (butorphanol usually) - it patient is really bad I con heavily sedate and intubate to reduce stress and the work of breathing

153
Q

It is better to - a living patient in respiratory distress than to

A

Better to intimate a living patient than a head patient who just went into respiratory arrest

154
Q

What ave possible upper airway diseases that can cause issues on inspiration

A

Laryngeal paralysis , tracheal collapse, foreign bodies, polyps, brachycephalic airway syndrome

155
Q

What can help you differentiate between cardiac and non cardiac caused

A

Temperature - if congestive heart failure, they should be hypothermic

156
Q

What are the 3 fluid compartments in the body

A

Intracellular fluid, extracellular (interstial and intravascular)

157
Q

What is the total body water

A

65% (multiply body weight by 0.65 )

158
Q

Describe the relationship between sodium and potassium intracellularly and extracellularly

A

Inside the cell, there is low sodium and high potassium, outside the cell there is high sodium and low potassium

159
Q

What determines intravascular concentration

A

Sodium because water follows sodium

160
Q

Total body sodium determines

A

Hydration

161
Q

Serum sodium concentration reflects - not-

A

Reflects total body water not total body sodium because water is freely permeable across cell membranes and sodium is not

162
Q

High sodium on bloodwork lovely means -

A

Low water and vice versa

163
Q

Huponatrenia indicates a-

A

Water excess -losing both water and electrolytes like sodium

164
Q

What does the sodium in a dehydrated animal usually look like

A

Normal or high sodium - depends on if losing water in excess or Normal amount

165
Q

Hypernatronic indicates a

A

Water deficit - severely dehydrated

166
Q

Hypotonic loss means

A

More water is lost than solute loss - usually with a polyuric patient, can lead to a huperatrenia

167
Q

A hypertonic loss means what

A

More solute is lost than water, could lead to a hyponatremia

168
Q

Fluid loss is most often

A

Isotonic and the sodium remains unchanged - isotonic to extracellular fluid

169
Q

Differentiate between dehydration and hypovolemia

A

Dehydration - loss of fluid from the interstitial space, happens slow and replaced slow
Hypovolenia - loss of fluid from the intravascular space happens rapidly

170
Q

Where do the losses occur with dehydration and hypovolemia

A

Extracellular comportment - interstitial (dehydration) and intravascular (hypovolemia)

171
Q

Which type of fluid loss requires rapid restoration and why

A

Hypovolemia fluid loss from the intravascular space - because the body can’t quickly replace the fluid

172
Q

A gradual fluid loss or lack of replacement indicates

A

Dehydration and lack of interstitial water

173
Q

What general type of replacement said do you need for dehydration and hypovolemia and why

A

High sodium because these are both extracelluar fluid losses so losing high sodium and low potassium

174
Q

What are 6 reasons to give fluids

A

Dehydration, hypovolemia, anorexia over 24 hours, severe losses, general anesthesia , as a vehicle to get other stuff in the patient

175
Q

What are the main 2 reasons to give finds

A

Dehydration and hypovolemia

176
Q

If an animal has diarrhea and they are eating/ drinking , will they need fluids

A

No -if eating will be drinking

177
Q

What are crystalloids

A

Salt water - moves freely within extracellular space and redistributes rapidly into interstium

178
Q

What are colloids

A

Contains molecules that don’t readily leave the intravascular space so should stay in the intravascular space, (more than salt in the water)

179
Q

All fluids will redistribute in the first - but - distributes faster

A

All fluid will redistribute in the first few hourrs - crystalloids redistribute faster

180
Q

The greatest absolute increase in blood volume is seen with - while the greatest increase in blood volume per volume delivered is seen with -

A

Crystalloids lead to greatest absolute volume increase, hypertonic saline leads to greatest increase in blood volume per volume

181
Q

The most sustained increase in blood volume is seen with

A

Colloids - because colloids stay in the intravascular space longer

182
Q

What are risks of colloids

A

Potential interstitial leak leading to edema , changes incoagulation, kidney injury, more expensive than crystalloids

183
Q

What are risks of crystalloids

A

Large volume, transient effect, potentates edema

184
Q

Give examples of isotonic fluid

A

LRS , normal saline, normosol R, plasma lyte A

185
Q

Describe isotonic fluids

A

Same amount salt as extracellular fluid

186
Q

Describe hypotonic fluids - what is important to note about them

A

Less salt than Extracellular fluid - can never bolus hypotonic finds became too much water can cause cells to explode

187
Q

Describe hyper tonic saline

A

Plus free water fromn interstitial and intracellaar spaces to increase the intravascular volume - excess salt compared to fluid

188
Q

When should you avoid using hypertonic fluids

A

Hypernatremic or dehydrated patients - because it could make the hypernatremia worse

189
Q

What are benefits of hypertonic fluids

A

Increased tissue oxygen delivery, sustain heart rate and cardiac output, decreased cellular edema

190
Q

You should have lower - man - in extracellular fluid

A

Lower chloride than sodium in Extracellular fluid

191
Q

Describe replacement fluid and give examples

A

Mimics extracellar fluid, high in sodium - lactated ringers, normal saline , normosol r, plasmalyte

192
Q

Describe maintenance fluids and give examples

A

Mimics daily electrolyte requirements , low in sodium and chloride higher in potassium - half strength saline , normosol m

193
Q

When are sub Q fluids appropriate

A

Only in stable patients

194
Q

How does the baroreceptors reflex compensate for shock

A

Changes in pressure lead to increased heart rate and contraction, and peripheral vasoconstriction

195
Q

How do chemoreceptors compensate for shock

A

Chases in things like pH or po2 need to increased respiratory rate and tidal volume - the bigger breaths to increase oxygen delivery to tissues

196
Q

How does RAAS activation compensate for shock

A

Increases angiotensin 2 (a potent vasoconstricter) to increase peripheral vasoconstriction and increase real sodium absorption (because water follows sodium)

197
Q

How does antidiuretic hormone compensate or shock

A

Increases renal water absorption

198
Q

Describe decompensatory shock

A

Decreased blood pressure and decreased heart rate

199
Q

Describe compensatory shock

A

Increased heart rate and normal blood pressure

SA Emergency (3 decks)

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