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Oral Surgery IV > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

___ resorbs anteriorly, ___ resorbs posteriorly

A

Mn
Mx

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2
Q

___ resorbs in, ___ resorbs out

A

Mx
Mn

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3
Q

type I takes ___ months to integrate

A

5 months

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4
Q

type ___ takes the shortest amount of time to integrate

A

II (4 months)

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5
Q

___ graft is the GS

A

autogenous

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6
Q

intraoral grafting sites

A

symphysis
ramus

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7
Q

symphysis graft considerations

A

cosmetic concern
larger sizes
type II bone MC
nerve damage more common

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8
Q

GS mesh for GBR

A

PTFE or titanium (non-resorbable)

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9
Q

lateral vs crestal sinus lift indications

A

<4 mm = go lateral
>4 mm = go crestal

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10
Q

how much can you achieve with sinus lift

A

4-8 mm

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11
Q

___ ___ ___ linked to risk for sinus perforation

A

residual ridge height

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12
Q

crestal lift advantages

A

less invasive
minimal graft material

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13
Q

ridge split MC in the ___

A

Mx

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14
Q

minimum width for ridge expansion

A

2-4 mm

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15
Q

delayed ridge split more used in the ___

A

Mn

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16
Q

ridge split expected gain

A

3 mm

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17
Q

zygomatic implants must have at least ___ anterior implants alongside

A

2

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18
Q

zygomatic implant placement

A

PM region
more palatal

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19
Q

components of upper airway

A

naso
oro
laryngo

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20
Q

pallor is due to ___ activation

A

sympathetic

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21
Q

pulse ox determines % of ___ in capillaries

A

oxyhemoglobin

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22
Q

combitube advantages

A

blindly insert
ventilate regardless of placement
double lumen

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23
Q

king laryngotube advantages

A

prevents aspiration

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24
Q

LMA vs king tube

A

LMA does NOT protect from aspiration

KT protects from aspiration and can facilitate intubation

25
Q

ASA II examples

A

anxious patient
older than 60
pregnant
euthyroid TH patient
controlled T2DM, asthma, epilepsy

26
Q

ASA III examples

A

controlled T1DM
symptomatic TH patient
> 6 months since MI/CVA
very high BP
stable angina
controlled CHF or COPD

27
Q

ASA IV examples

A

unstable angina
< 6 months since MI/CVA
very very high BP
arrythmias
uncontrolled T1DM

28
Q

moderate = ___ sedation

A

conscious

29
Q

opioids cause ___ (eyes)

A

miosis (from edinger CN III parasympathetics)

30
Q

opioid analgesia is from ___ receptor, whereas sedation is from ___

A

mu
kappa

31
Q

morphine is ___ cleared

A

renally

32
Q

fent clearance depends on ___ blood flow

A

hepatic

33
Q

fent advantage and potential adverse event

A

no histamine
rigid chest syndrome

34
Q

naloxone dosage

A

0.4 mg IV

35
Q

naloxone side effect

A

catecholamine release if abruptly used

36
Q

flumazenil dosage

A

0.2 mg per minute

37
Q

propofol results in vaso___

A

vasodilation

38
Q

N2O effects on catecholamines and heart

A

stimulates catecholamine
myocardial depression

39
Q

N2O effect on respiration

A

tachypnea

40
Q

N2O effect on renal

A

decreased urine output

41
Q

N2O is ___ (solubility)

A

insoluble (rapid onset and recovery)

42
Q

special N2O properties

A

concentration effect
2nd gas

43
Q

explain diffusion hypoxia

A

N2O pulls CO2 out of air, resulting in respiratory depression (think COPD situations)

44
Q

N2O inhibits ___ ___, which can cause B12 deficiency

A

methionine synthase

45
Q

does N2O relax skeletal muscle

A

no

46
Q

O2 is the ___ cylinder

A

green

47
Q

N2O is the ___ cylinder

A

blue

48
Q

O2 psi

A

1900

49
Q

N2O psi

A

745

50
Q

___% N2O is equivalent to 10-15 mg morphine

A

20%

51
Q

cylinder size

A

E

52
Q

O2 psi vs N2O psi

A

O2 decreases during use
N2O shows 750 until empty

53
Q

minimum O2 %

A

30%

54
Q

deflated bag means what?

A

minute volume inadequate
vacuum too high

55
Q

overinflated bag means what?

A

minute volume too high
hose obstruction

56
Q

first sign of N2O

A

light headedness

57
Q

primary determinant of recovery from sedation

A

responses from patient

58
Q
A

Oral Surgery IV (2 decks)

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