midterm Flashcards

1
Q

structures/functions of brainstem

A

pons, medula, midbrain

survival reflexes (BP, HR, CO0

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2
Q

structures and functions of the Diencephalon

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

homeostasis (thermoregulation), control of the autonomic nervous system, survival behaviours (aggressive, defensive, consummatory, reproduction)

pituitary hormonal regulation

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3
Q

structures and functions of the limbic system

A

hippocampus and amygdala

judgement, inhibition, memory and attention

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3
Q

basal ganglia functions

A

regulate motor control - the contraction of opposing muscles

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4
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

cells that myelinates CNS nerves
1 can do 50 axon segments

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4
Q

cerebellum functions

A

coordinates voluntary movement, maintain balance, eye movement

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4
Q

cerebral cortex functions

A

controls sensory and motor activity, language, thought, idea formation, longterm memory storage

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5
Q

schwann cells

A

myelinate PNS nerves

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6
Q

microglia

A

the immune (phagocytic) cells of the brain

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7
Q

astrocytes

A

provides substrates for neurons - clean up after neurons. these cells do not overlap. one of them can unsheath over 100,000 synapses, and can stimulate adjacent astrocytes leading to signal propogation

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8
Q

what is special about astrocytes

A

they are polarized

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9
Q

describe the physical, chemical, and physiochemical characteristics of the blood brain barrier

A

physical - no pores/fenestrations - tight junctions. layers of astrocyte and pericyte endfeet provided an added layer of protection

chemical - 5x the amount of mitochondria, which are high in enzymes

physiochemical - lots of plasma protein binding

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10
Q

difference between neurotransmitters and neuromodulators

A

neurotransmitters are only active for a couple milliseconds, whereas neuromodulators can last multiple seconds

neuromodulators act on receptors distant from their release site, they alter neurotransmission

neurotransmitters act on ionotropic receptors (those that directly modify ion channels)

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11
Q

describe the steps of neurotransmission

A
  • DNA/RNA/Protein synthesis triggers axoplasmic transport
  • neurotransmitters are made and stored
  • an action potential occurs which depolarizes membranes and opens calcium channels
  • neurotransmitters are released and couple to their receptors
  • NT removed from synapse either from reuptake or metabolism
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12
Q

major source of NE

A

locus coeruleus

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13
Q

main roles of NE neurotransmission

A
  • central response to stress
  • modulatory role in focus, attention, and performance
  • activity in RAS, limbic system, hypothalamus
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14
Q

major source of dopamine

A

ventral tegmental area - temporal lobe output

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15
Q

major roles of dopamine neurotransmission

A

extrapyramidal motor system (parkinsons)

limbic system (psychosis and affective disorders)

hypothalamus (reward and pleasure systems)

chemoreceptive trigger zone

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16
Q

major source of serotonin

A

Raphe nuclei

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17
Q

major source of acetylcholine

A

nucleus basalis

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18
Q

acetylcholine is majorly involved in this system, causing parkinsins

A

extrapyramidal motor system

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19
Q

major source of histamine

A

tuberomammillary nucleus (hypothalamus)

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20
Q

_____ is the major excitatory neurotransmitter

A

glutamate

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21
Q

true or false - excess glutamate can cause neurodegeneration

A

true

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22
Q

______ is the main inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

GABA

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23
Q

GABA is mainly involved in this system, disregulation in which can cause parkinsons and huntingtons

A

extrapyramidal motor system

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24
Q

substance P is mainly located in

A

spine and thalamus

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25
Q

endorphins/enkephalins/dynorphins are mainly involved in which system

A

the limbic system, and analgesia

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26
Q

extrapyramidal tracts are involved in

A

the fine regulation of motor activity
they direct the stimulation and inhibition of antagonistic muscle groups to allow for smooth and coordinated movement

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27
Q

this neurotransmitter is responsible for inhibition in the extrapyramidal system

A

dopamine mediates inhibition in the extrapyramidal system

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28
Q

this neurotransmitter is responsible for excitation in the extrapyramidal system

A

acetylcholine mediates excitation in the extrapyramidal system

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29
Q

parkinsons disease is a neurodegenerative disease caused by the death of …

A

dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra and dopamine nerve terminals in the neostriatum (dopamine defeciency)

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30
Q

main symptoms of parkinsons disease

A

akinesia - inability to initiate movement

bradykinesia - slow or shuffling movement

cognitive and mood symptoms (dementia, depression)

  • muscle rigidity, tremor at rest, mask like emotionless face, jerky movements
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31
Q

symptoms of parkinson’s disease only occur after death of about ____% of dopamine neurons

A

80%

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32
Q

Since dopamine cannot cross the BBB, dopamine replacement therapy for Parkinson’s disease uses

A

Levodopa - actively transported across the BBB and taken up by surviving dopamine neurons to restore the balance between dopamine and acetylcholine, allowing for normal Extrapyramidal motor function

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33
Q

adverse effects of levodopa for PD

A

increases NE and E in the periphery causing increases SNS activity - hypertension, tachycardia, arrhythmias

chemoreceptive trigger zone dopamine receptor stim = nausea and vomiting

psychosis - dopamine overstim in mesolimbic areas

inhibit prolactin release

dyskineas - dopamine overstim in motor areas

insomnia and anxiety - NE receptors in RAS and Limbic systems

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34
Q

why are carbidopa and benserazide used in combination with levodopa to treat PD

A

they reduce or prevent peripheral side effects by inhibiting aromatic amino acid decarboxylase

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35
Q

why are entacapone and tolcapone used in combination with levodopa to treat PD

A

they stabilize L-dopa plasma concentrations by inhibiting peripheral COMT which metabolizes L-dopa before it crosses the BBB - allows for a reduced dose of L-dopa

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36
Q

How are selegiline and rasalgiline used to treat PD

A

they are MAO-B inhibitors which inhibit the breakdown of Dopamine, lowering the dose necessary for L-dopa as well as reducing the accumulation of toxic by products (oxygen radicals) produced by L-dopa metabolism

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37
Q

while Bromocriptine, pramipexole, rupinirole, and rotigotine are all

A

dopamine receptor agonists which can be used to improve symptoms in combo with L-dopa. the latter three are newer and have less side effects. Because they use a blanketed approach to dopamine distribution, they have more side effects in general (like psychosis) and are likely used in later stages

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38
Q

why do anticholinergic drugs work for PD? give two examples

A

because the disease is due to a lack of dopamine causing there to be an imbalance of the NT involved in the extrapyramidal system (dopamine inhibition, ACh excitation) meaning there is too much ACh leading to excess GABA release

Benztropine, Trihexyphenidyl

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39
Q

negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

affective flattening (unchanging facial expression)

Avolition apathy - lack of hygiene, no work ethic

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40
Q

positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

hallucinations, delusions, bizarre behaviours

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41
Q

what is the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia

A

the theory that dopamine receptor overstimulation may be the cause of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia since amphetamines can cause psychosis (and they act on DA receptors)

this can be treated with DA receptor antagonists - but they only reduce the positive symptoms

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42
Q

atypical vs typical antipsychotics

A

The typical antipsychotics are DA antagonists only, whereas the atypical ones are also serotonin antagonists

Atypical antipsychotics reduce both positive and negative symtpoms, whereas typical antipsychotics tend to only reduce positive ones, and may exacerbate negative symptoms

both are effective but the atypical ones have better side-effect profiles

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43
Q

why are long-acting antipsychotics used

A

these are doses that are formulated in oil for deep IM injection to use for non-compliant patients. they have an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms, PD, and neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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44
Q

list three typical antipsychotics in order of decreasing potency

A

haloperidol, zuclopenthixol, chlorpromazine

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45
Q

what is special about the antipsychotic haloperidol

A

it is very selective dopamine antagonist with a high potency, so its good at treating the positive symptoms but it can aggravate the negative symptoms

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46
Q

what are the common side effects of the typical antipsychotics haloperidol, zuclopenithixol, and chlorpromazine

A

extrapyramidal motor symptoms, hyperprolactinemia, tardive dyskinesia

chlorpromazine may cause chemoreceptor trigger zone issyes

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47
Q

how is chlorpromazine different than haloperidol and zuclopenithixol

A

while it is a DA antagonist like those two, it is also an alpha-adrenergic antagonist, muscarinic antagonist, and histamine antagonist so it has a host of other side effects (postural hypotension, constipation, sedation, sedation, itching)

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48
Q

common symptoms of the atypical antipsychotics

A

weight gain, hyperglycemia and lipid abnormalities

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49
Q

what are the four atypical antipsychotics

A

clozapine (agranulocytosis - bone marrow supression)

risperidone

olanzapine (may halt progression of schizophrenia)

quetiapine (cheaper)

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50
Q

four major extrapyramidal motor system symptoms of antipsychotics

A

acute dystonia - rapid onset of spasm of tongue/face/neck - can be fixed with benztropine

akathisia - inability to stay still causing extreme distress - lower drug potency

pseudoparkinsonism - bradykinesia, rigid, variable tremor, shuffling gait (fix with benztropine)

perioral tremor - rabbit like movements of mouth and face

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51
Q

what is neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

a condition induced by high potency neuroleptics resulting in fever, muscle rigidity, unstable blood pressure, and lactic acidosis caused by a MASSIVE DA BLOCK

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52
Q

how do you treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

stop the neuroleptics, hydrate and cool down, use muscle relaxant like dantrolene and DA agonist like bromocriptine

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53
Q

the symptoms of Alzheimers can be described by the 4A’s and one D, which are:

A

anterograde amnesia
aphasia
apraxia (inability to perform tasks)
agnosia (inability to recognize common objects)
Disturbance in executive functioning

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54
Q

common symptoms of all dementias include

A

short term memory loss, impaired memory retrieval, unstable or inappropriate emotions

in later stages - motor function impairments

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55
Q

neuropathology of AD

A

loss of cholinergic neurons in the nucleus basalis of meynart, but this may be preceded by a loss of NE neurons in the locus coeruleus

in any case the loss of neurons precedes the appearance of symptoms by years

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56
Q

describe the different amyloid precursor proteins APP

A

sAPPα = the good one - neuroprotective, cleaved by α-secretase

sAPPβ = bad one - stimulates axonal pruning and neuronal cell death. cleaved by β-secretase

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57
Q

how is aducanumab used in AD treatment

A

it is used to clear plaques using IV infusion of anti-amyloid antibodies

while it can delay the clinical decline, the plaques are not the causative agent of the disease

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58
Q

because AD is caused by a ____ deficiency, one common treatment method is the use of ____ inhibitors

A

deficiency in ACh, so use AChE inhibitors

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59
Q

list the three AChE inhibitors used to treat AD, and the special notes for each

A

Donepezil - reversible AChE inhbitor with high bioavailability and 40% PP binding

galantamine - same as above, much less PP binding (18%), can be used as a sleep enhancer

Rivastigimine - a Butyrylcholinesterase and AChe inhibitor which BYPASSES CYP pathways to lower drug drug interactions

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60
Q

patients who have AD but cannot tolerate AChE inhibitors may be treated by

A

Memantine / nitromemantine- a noncompetitive low affinity antagonist of NMDAR (glutamate) and nicotinic ACh receptors - slows calcium influx caused by glutamate overexcitation, slowing neuronal death

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61
Q

list two anti-beta-amyloids used for AD

A

valproic acid - reduces beta amyloid deposits in mouse models

Pioglitazone - stimulates amyloid clearance and reverses cognitive deficits in mouse models

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62
Q

what separates major depressive disorder from depressive disorders

A

the presence of cognitive symptoms such as inappropriate negative thoughts, pseudodementia, hallucinations

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63
Q

monoamine oxidase a enzymes located in / has a high affinity for

A

neurons liver and GI TRACT
high affinity for serotonin

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64
Q

monoamine oxidase b

A

neurons liver and PLATELETS
high affinity for dopamine

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65
Q

how are monoamine oxidase inhibitors used for the treatment of depression - give an example of a drug

A

moclobemide - MAO-A selective inhibitor which will increase 5HT and NE content in the brain without causing the wine-cheese effect

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66
Q

how do tricyclic antidepressants work and give an example

A

these are drugs which increase the concentration of NE and serotonin, then are metabolized into a drug which is specific for NE reuptake inhibition

ex Imipramine which gets metabolized to Desipramine

  • also have low affinity for adrenergic and muscarinic receptors leading to possible side effects of postural hypotension and memory impairment
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67
Q

what are SNRIs and give an example

A

serotonin and NE reuptake inhibitor which does not get metabolized to another active form, and lacks affinity for other receptors

ex - Venlafaxine

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68
Q

fluoxetine

A

SSRI - only inhibits serotonin reuptake, lacks affinity for NT receptors

but is a Cytochrome CYP 2D6 inhibitor which can cause fatal drug interactions with narcotics and beta blockers

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69
Q

example of an atypical antidepressant

A

Mirtazapine - a presynaptic alpha2 receptor antagonist which causes increased release of serotonin and NE

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70
Q

T/F - in antidepressants, the direct, acute effects are not the same as the therapeutic action

A

true - these drugs take weeks for clinical improvement to be noticeable but may cause side effects before then

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71
Q

this mood stabilizer, used to treat bipolar disorder is capable of stopping a manic episode, preventing future ones and presents a slight antidepressant effect

A

lithium - prevents feedback inhibition of serotonin reuptake and enhances glutamate reuptake

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72
Q

main concern with lithium

A

low therapeutic index – the difference between the toxic and effective dose is very small

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73
Q

while both Carbamazepine, valproic acid, and lamotrigine are used to treat BPD by decreasing voltage gated sodium channels while potentiating GABA receptors, valproic acid is more suited for

A

those patients with rapid manic-depression cycles

valproic acid also may increase BDNF levels to help depression

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74
Q

why is lamotrigine unique for the treatment of BPD

A

it is good at treating the depressive phase, whereas other sodium channel blockers (carbamazepine and valproic acid) are not

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75
Q

how do atypical antipsychotics (clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine) aid in the treatment of BPD

A

they can treat acute mania, suppress delusions, and other psychotic disorders

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76
Q

what is combination therapy for BPD

A

an atypical antipsychotic (olanzapine) with fluoxetine

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77
Q

what class of drugs seems best suited to treat BPD

A

anticonvulsants, lithium is not well tolerated by most

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78
Q

anxiety performance graph is this shape

A

inverted U

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79
Q

what are some uses for Benzos

A

anxiolytic
hypnotic
analgesic
anticonvulsant
muscle relaxant

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80
Q

neurochemical effect of benzos

A

enhance GABA receptor binding (this being an inhibitory neurotransmitter) leading to increased calcium influx causing inhibition of APs

overtime - down regulation of benzo receptors but upregulation of NE, 5HT receptors

81
Q

Flumazenil is a selective GABA antagonist used to treat overdoses of this drug (for which it is a competitive inhibitor)

81
Q

two examples of benzos and their relative potencies and half lives

A

Diazepam has low potency but a really long half life. It is more often an anxiolytic.

Triazolam has high potency but a very short half life. It is more often a hypnotic.

82
Q

withdrawal induces the opposite of the therapeutic effects of a drug, and will last until

A

receptor densities return to normal (pre-tolerance) state

83
Q

this atypical anxiolytic is a selective partial ahgonist at serotinin A receptors, reducing anxiety without hypnotic, anti-convulsant, or muscle relaxant effects. It is good because it does not have drug drug interactions with alcohol or narcotics, but it takes weeks to work

84
Q

this atypical anxiolytic is a beta blocker often used for performance anxiety to suppress somatic and ANS symptoms

A

propranolol

85
Q

what are the three types of sleep disorders

A

poor sleep hygiene

psychophysiologic insomnia - hyperarousal and escalating anxiety

paradoxical insomnia - normal sleep demonstrated but person feels like they slept bad

86
Q

what are the three sleeping medications we discussed

A

zolpidem - short half life and does not terribly affect EEG but still not great

Ramelteon - CNS depressant acting on melatonin receptors with minimal side effects (endogenous response)

Melatonin - endogenous, next to no side effects

87
Q

what are the two types of seizures and how does the type affect treatment options

A

partial or focal onset - may have auras - almost all (not ethosuximide) anti-epileptic drugs can stop these kinds of seizures

generalized onset - happens all over the brain all at once - tonic /clonic seizures where you fall and flail or the spaced out kind - treatment for these is more limited

88
Q

ethosuximide is an AED which is unique in that it can treat

A

absence seizures, its mechanism of action is blocking calcium channels in the THALAMUS

89
Q

Valproate (valproic acid) is an AED which is unique in that it works by 4 different mechanisms of actions. What are they?

A

prolong refractory period of NA channels (at high doses)

Potentiate GABA (inhibitory NT) mechanisms by increasing Cl channel opening frequency

Block Calcium channels in the thalamus - which is indicated in absence seizures

increase K+ channel permeability

90
Q

what are the six mechanisms of action for AEDs

A

prolong refractory period of sodium channels

potentiate GABA mechanisms (inhibitory NT to reduce excitation)

block calcium channels which stops NT release

block glutamate receptors (excitatory NT)

open Potassium channels (hyperpolarize neurons to reduce AP firing)

stop exocytosis

91
Q

phenytoin is an AED which works by increasing the refractory period of Na channels - but it is special in that it displays

A

zero order kinetics so the concentration rapidly increases when enzymes are saturated

92
Q

the AEDs Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, and oxcarbazepine have worrying pharmacokinetic side effects because they are

A

P450 enzyme inducers, so they could have toxic side effects

Carbamazepine can induce its own metabolism

93
Q

how do the AEDs Lamotrigine and Valproic acid interact

A

lamotrigine is metabolized by glucuronic acid conjugation, and VPA decreases glucuronidation, so it doubles the lamotrigine halflife

94
Q

what are the two main classes of drugs which work as AEDs by potentiating GABA systems (increasing inhibitory NT)

A

Benzos (lorazepam, diazepam, clobazam) and Barbiturates (phenobarbital)

95
Q

benzos are not ideal for long term use in general because of tolerance and withdrawal, but these two are used as AEDs which potentiate GABA Nt

A

clobazam and clonazepam

96
Q

barbiturates like Phenobarbital are primarily used as AEDs in this demographic

A

neonates - phenobarbital withdrawal can cause prolonged seizures even in non-epileptics

97
Q

gabapentin and pregabalin are Ca channel blocking AEDS which block this type of calcium channels

A

presynaptic - decrease glutatmate release

98
Q

felbamate, topiramate, and perampanel are AEDs which work via

A

blocking glutamate release

99
Q

the two AEDs which work by increasing potassium channel permeability

A

VPA, ezogabine

100
Q

which AED works by exocytosis antagonism

A

levetiracetam

101
Q

which AEDs are not metabolized by the liver

A

gabapentin, pregabalin, vigabatrin, levetiracetam

102
Q

the two common classes of natural stimulants are

A

methylxanthines (caffeine) and ephedrine

103
Q

Caffeine

A

xanthine based natural stimulant which easily crosses the BBB (both water and lipid soluble) - metabolized by CYP1A2 with a half life of 6 hours

104
Q

describe the mechanism of action of the synthetic stimulant amphetamine

A

stimulates the release and blocks the reuptake of NE and DA (and to a lesser extent - serotonin)

inhibits MAO - enzyme which degrades NE and serotonin a(at high conc)

agonist of NE receptors

105
Q

stimulant drugs are used to treat what? How do most of them work

A

ADHD, Obesity, narcolepsy

increasing availability of NE and DA

106
Q

this stimulant is the first line treatment for narcolepsy, because it is much less likely to be abused

what other stimulants are used for narcolepsy

A

armodafinil - inhibits DA reuptake and elevates hypothalamic histamine

dextroamphetamine, methylphenidate

107
Q

while the exact cause of narcolepsy is unknown, it may be caused by///

A

reduced amounts of the hypothalamic protein hypocretin/orexin - which may be caused by an autoimmune disorder triggered by the H1N1 virus

108
Q

stimulant/amphetamine adverse reactions

A

insomnia, addiction potential, dopaine reward pathway overstimulation causing amphetamine psychosis

109
Q

characteristics to be diagnosed with ADHD

A

symptoms begin before the age of 7, persist for longer than 6 months and in at least two settings

110
Q

phtermine is a stimulant drug that promotes NE and DA release, it has been used to treat…. because it stimulates the anorectic centre

A

obesity - by supressing appetite in the hypothalamus

111
Q

what are the two types of neurons which originate in the arcuate nucleus and converge on the paraventicular nucleus involved in appetite

A

orexigenic neurons stimulate appetite -
anoretic neurons inhibit appetite

112
Q

orexigenic neurons are stimulated by ghrelin to induce appetite by releasing

A

neuropeptide y and agouti related peptide

113
Q

orexigenic neurons are inhbited by

A

leptin,, insulin, and peptide yy (these will stop feelings of hunger)

114
Q

anorectic neurons stop appetite, and they are stimulated by leptin and insulin to release

A

alpha melanocyte stimulating hormone

115
Q

factors that stimulate appetite

A

neuropeptide Y, agouti related peptide, orexin, ghrelin (ghrelin stimulates orexigenic neurons to release NPyY, AgRP) as well as THC and endocannabinoids

116
Q

factors that inhibit appetite

A

leptin, GLP-1, cholecytokinin, peptide YY

serotonon stimulates anorectic neurons and inhibits oxigenic neurons

117
Q

topiramate is an antiepileptic drug that increases GABA while inhibiting glutamate, but due to its anorectic effect it can also treat

118
Q

naltrexone and bupropion are anti-obesity agents which work by

A

altering the DA reward pathways to lesson the feel good feeling from eating and stimulate anorectic neurons

119
Q

orlistat is an OTC anti obesity drug that does what

A

inhibits pancreatic and intestinal lipases to prevent the absorption of dietary fats but also vitamins

causes bad GI symptoms like really foul smelling feces

120
Q

liraglutide is an anti-obesity agent which is indicated for those with conditions like diabetes, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. it works by

A

GLP-1 agonist acting in the appetite center by stimulating insulin release and reducing glucagon

121
Q

what are the three endogenous opiod peptide producing genes

A

pro-opiomelanocortin (produces beta-endorphins, adrenocorticotropic hormone, and melanocyte stimulating hormone

pro-enkephalin - (enkephalins)

pro-dynoprhin (dynorphins)

122
Q

describe the pain sensory system

A

painful stimuli enter from the dorsal horn of the spinal cord and release and are carried by afferent neurons to the thalamus, limbic system, and somatosensory cortex to release glutamate and substance-p

123
Q

describe the pain inhibitory system

A

originating in the midbraun and raphe magnus, descending tracts project into the dorsal hor to inhibit the activity of the ascending pathways using NE and serotonin

124
Q

while endogenois opiod peptides are well known for their ability to modulate pain transmission, they also modulate …

A

GI function, increasing random contractions of circular muscles causing constipation

125
Q

endogenous opiod peptide receptors are coupled to G proteins which, when activated, decrease cAMP to create an efflux of potassium, decreased Ca influx - ultimately DECREASING THE RELEASE OF NTs

What are the three types

A

Mu receptors - stimulated by beta-endorphins - analgesia, euphoria, and the resp depression

Kappa - dynorphin stimulation - analgesia with LESS euphoria

Δ - enkephalins - analgesia

126
Q

Butorphanol is an opiod analgesic which is preferentially affecting kappa receptors giving it this major benefit

A

it does not cause euphoria so its less addictive

127
Q

the two natural opiod agonists, derived from the opium poppy, are Morphine and Codeine. They preferentially affect this opioid receptor

A

mu receptor, morphine is much more potent

codeine is converted to morphine by CYP 2D6

128
Q

meperidine, methadone, and tramadol are all synthetic opioids which affect this receptor - compare and contrast

A

they all affect the mu receptor, but:

  • meperidine causes less psychosis but may cause respiratory impression
  • methadone has a very long half life so ut can be used for addiction and chronic pain
  • tramadol is ALSO an SNRI so it helps inhibit pain transmission
129
Q

what characteristics of fentanyl make it so dangerous

A

very potent, lipophillic, and fast acting with a short duration

130
Q

list the two opiod antagonists and the main difference between them

A

naloxone and naltrexone. both block the actios of all EOP receptors, but naltrexone has a much longer half-life and an active metabolite with a long half life

131
Q

opiods are metabolized by

A

hepatic glucuronidation

132
Q

this major class of non-narcotic analgesics work by inhibiting COX enzymes to stop the production of prostaglandins

133
Q

how do prostaglandins facilitate pain

A
  • sensitize nociceptors to chemical pain mediators (bradykinin, cytokines, substance P)
  • increase blood flow to injured area which increases leukocyte infiltration causing swelling and inflammation
  • peripheral inflammation inducing COX-2 causing fevers and inflammation
134
Q

non-selective COX inhibitng NSAIDS such as _____ work byinhibiting both COx I and II

A

Asprin and ibuprofen
- inhibit pain transmission and reduce elevated body temps without lowering them below normal

135
Q

COX I inhibition caused by ASA and ibuprofen leads to these adverse effects

A

GI irritation and ulcers due to decreases in mucus and increases in acid

decreased blood coagulation

decreased renal blood flow and interstitial nephritis

136
Q

how is ASA overdose possible

A

at high doses the hepatic enzymes are overwhelmed, greatly increasing the half life of ASA

137
Q

what are two examples of selective COX-II inhibitors and their advantages

A

celecoxib - reduces inflammatory mediators WITHOUT GI irritation or platelet aggregation interference

acetaminophen - analgesia and antipyretix actions but NO ANTI INFLAMMATORY actions or anti platelet actions, or gi side effects

138
Q

neuropathic pain is

A

a class of diseases causing pain, hyperalgesia (increased response to painful stimuli, allodynia, parasthesias, and dysesthesias) due to afferent neurons hyperactively discharging over time altering them to increase sodium channels

139
Q

methods of treating neuropathic pain include

A

sodium channel blockers like carbamazepine and lamotrigine

calcium channel blockers like pregabalin and gabapentin (decrease glutamate release)

5Ht and NE reuptake inhibitors- tricyclic antidepressants like nortriptyline and amitriptyline

general reuptake inhibitors like duloxetine and venlafaxine

140
Q

trigeminal neuralgia

A

shooting neuropathic pain in the face in response to non-painful stimuli. can be caused by multiple sclerosis (demyelination) or a pulsating vascular loop

141
Q

treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

sodium channel blocking AEDS (lamatrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin)

142
Q

fibromyalgia

A

chronic, diffuse pain and allodynia caused by increased pain sensitivity of the brain to pain signals and a reduced pain threshold (central pain sensitization caused by altered neurotransmitter levels and increased sensitivity of nociceptors

143
Q

treatment for fibromyalgia

A

AED like pregabalin (Calcium blockers that decrease glutamate)

tricyclic antidepressant amitriptyline

144
Q

gout

A

inflammatory joint disease - uric acid crystals build up in joints, attracting leukocytes and causing inflammation and joint damage

145
Q

acute treatment for gout

A

reduce pain and inflammation:
- NSAID and corticosteroids (prednisone) to decrease prostanoid synthesis
- colchicine - decreases inflammation and phagocytosis by leukocyte migration by disaggregating microtubules

146
Q

long term treatment of gout

A

decrease uric acid

  • allopurinol - block xanthine oxidase (inhibit the synthesis of a uric acid precursor)
  • probenecid - increases urate kidney excretion
147
Q

two main pharmacological actions of caffeine

A

adenosine receptor blocker, phosphodiesterase inhibitor

148
Q

mechanism of action for maarijuana as a depressant

A

THC and CBD receptors are G protein linked and when they are activated, they decrease cAMP production, leading to reduced activity of NE DA and glutamate

149
Q

anandamide and 2-AG are examples of two endogenous…

A

cannabinoids

150
Q

speed balls (heorin and coke) and R&Ts (ritalin and talwin) are examples of

A

upper and downer combo - potentiates the feelings of euphoria

151
Q

ergotamines, mescaline (from the peyite cactus) and atropine and scopalamine are examples of

A

hallucinogens

152
Q

how do hallucinogens work

A
  • increase neural activity in NE, DA and 5HT
  • reduce ACh pathways
153
Q

opiod dependency treated with

A

methadone (long acting oral dose pain reliver)
naloxone or naltrexone (opiod antagonist for overdoses)

154
Q

nicotine dependency treated with

A

Nicotine replacement therapy
antidepressant and partial nicotine agonist VARENICLINE
antidepressent buproprion

155
Q

ethanol works on the receptors of these three NTs

A

gaba, glutamate (NMDA) and 5HT

supresses neuronal excitability

156
Q

this brain area is more sensitive to the effects of ethanol

A

the limbic system

157
Q

disulfiram is a drug designed to treat alcoholism by

A

inhibiting the enzyme ALDH, letting acetaldehyde build up causing unpleasant side effects

158
Q

Acamprosate is a drug used to reduce alcohol cravings by

A

decreasing the action of Glutamate in the CNS (glutamate antagonist)

159
Q

Naltrexone and naloxone are opiod antagonists used in opioid overdose, but can also be used to treat alcoholism by

A

decreasing the dopamine reward pathway

160
Q

another alcohol, methanol is metabolized to harmful metabolites like formaldehyde and formic acid. To treat methanol ingestion you…

A

give a person ethanol so the enzyme which produces the formaldehyde and formic acid is overwhelmed

bicarbonate to reduce acidosis

fomepizole - ADH inhibitor to

161
Q

ethylene glycol is an alcohol that if ingested will be metabolized by ADH to toxic aldehydes and oxalic acid, where oxalate crystals may develop in the renal tubules. to treat this …

A

wash out with ethanol
use fomepizole to inhibit ADH

add fluids and calcium

162
Q

multiple sclerosis pathology

A

demyelination by immune system causing sensory, motor, and cognitive issues

163
Q

how does multiple sclerosis pathology begin

A

somehow, a T cell gets activated by myelin - beginning a TYPE IV hypersensitivity reaction (cell mediated) where it releases cytokines (IL-1, IL6, TNF-alpha, INF-gamma) to make the vessels of the BBB leaky so B cells can be recruited. they produce antibodies, and macrophages are also recruited and they attack the myelin causing plaques (sclera) which can be observed on an MRI scan.

164
Q

what are the four types of MS

A
  1. Relapsing remitting - clearly defined attacks separated by periods of remission during which the disease does not worsen/progressive
  2. Primary progressive - functioning worsens and disability accumulates as soon as symptoms appear without periods of remission or relapse
  3. progressive relapsing - rare form where steady damage to nerves begins when symptoms first appear, continues to cause progressive worsening even though symptoms go into periods of remission
  4. secondary progressive - initially follows the pattern of clearly defined attacks separated by periods of remission, but changes to progressively worsening
165
Q

what is charcot’s neurologic triad

A

triad of symptoms of MS:
1. nystagmus (shaky eyes)
2. Intention tremor (tremor during intentional, directed movement)
3. unclear speech

166
Q

what is Lhermitte’s sign

A

an electrical sensation that runs down the back and into the limbs when you tilt your head down

167
Q

if MS plaques occur in the ANS, the symptoms might be

A

bowel and bladder symptoms, sexual dysfunction

168
Q

what is Uhthoff’s phenomenon

A

the worsening of symptoms of MS in the heat (because body temperature can slow or block impulse conduction in demyelinated nerves)

169
Q

the goal for Acute treatment of MS is to stop the inflammation. this is done by

A

methylprednisolone - immunosuppressive steroid

Plasma Exchange Therapy - discard antibodies replace with albumin and saline

170
Q

Disease modifying therapies for MS aims to decrease the risk of relapses and slow disability progression. The two main drug classes used for this are

A

immunomodulators and monoclonal antibody therapy

171
Q

list the qualities of three immunomodulators (interferon beta, fingolimod, glatiramer acetate) used to treat MS

A
  • interferon-Beta: first line treatment, reduces antigen presentation and T-cell proliferation
  • glatiramer acetate: decoy for immune cells (mixture of random sized peptides which contain the amino acids found in myelin basic protein)
  • Fingolimod - first oral drug for MS, prevents lymphocytes from entering the CNS in relapses
172
Q

compare and contrast the following monoclonal antibody therapies used to treat MS:
- Natalizumab
- Alemtuzumab
- Ocrelizumab
- Daclizumab

A
  • natalizumab prevents binding to and crossing the BBB
  • Alemtuzumab destroys tagged lymphocytes
  • ocrelizumab is the first for primary progressive MS, it kills B cells and has immunosuppressive effects \
  • daclizumab - net reduction of T cell response
173
Q

some drugs can be used to treat the symptoms of MS like difficulty walking and muscle spasms, what are they:

A

Dalfampridine - used to treat difficulty walking by increasing conduction in the absence of myelin

tizanidine - muscle relaxant, alpha-2 adrenergic agonist

botox - blocks vesicle docking - paralysis

nabiximols - thc

174
Q

Three A’s (goals) of general anesthesia

A

Amnesia
Akinesia (stop moving)
analgesia

175
Q

Nitrous oxide, Isoflurane, Sevoflurane are all anesthetics administered via

A

inhalation

176
Q

most anesthetics exert their effects via

A

enhancing activity of GABAa receptors (increasing inhibition)

177
Q

compare and contrast the inhalation anesthetics Nitrous oxide and Isoflurane/sevoflurane

A

both work on GABAa receptors, fluranes are allosteric modulators

N2O gives analgesic effects via endogenous opioids in the BRAIN (not spinal cord)

Fluranes can reduce the dose requirements needed when combined with N2O and O2

178
Q

these three anesthetics are paralytics (neuromuscular blockers). Compare and contrast

A

Vecuronium + Rocuronium: non-depolarizing competitive antagonists of nicotinic ACh receptors
- increase safety of anesthesia by reducing the amound needed for muscle relaxation

  • Vecuronium has less CV side effects
  • Rocuronium faster onset

Succinylcholine - DEPOLARIZING nACh receptor agonist - rapid onset and very short duration, best used for endotracheal intubation

179
Q

Vecuronium, a neuromuscular blocking paralytic, should not be used in patients with

A

cardiovascular conditions

180
Q

compare and contrast the IV anesthetic agents (etomidate and propofol)

A

both are positive allosteric modulators of GABAa receptors, and become GABAa agonists at high doses

etomidate is good because it has little/no effect on the heart - making it safe for older patients who often have CV conditions, but it causes adrenal supression so it is only used for rapid induction of anesthesia or short procedures like fixing broken bones or tracheal intubation

Large discrepancy in the half life and duration of action of etomidate - gets sequestered into different body compartments

Propofol may act on endocannabinoid system, has rapid onset and recovery time with amnestic effects

181
Q

Midazolam is an anxiolytic which can also be used for surgery to

A

be used as a pre-anesthetic to calm a patient down

182
Q

Dezmedetomidine is an anesthetic which is different because it does not work on the GABA system, but rather exerts its effects on

A

alpha2-adrenergic receptors (as an agonist, these receptors are inhbitory in nature)

it is good because it is easily and rapidly reversible

183
Q

in which order might you use these anesthetics:

iso/sevoflurane + N2O
propofol + fentanyl
vecuronium
midazolam

A

use midazolam first to induce amnesia and calm a patient

then induce anesthesia wth either propofol + fentanyl, or vecuronium

next maintain the anesthesia with iso/sevoflurane with N2O, or propofol with fentanyl while monitoring brain waves and vitals

184
Q

lidocaine and bupivacaine are ____ anesthetics

A

local anesthetics

185
Q

how do lidocaine and bupivacaine work

A

they block sodium channels in smaller, unmyelinated nerves (Adelta and C fibre axons)

186
Q

the order of sensory blocking for local anesthetics

A

temperature, pain, touch, pressure, motor

187
Q

patients who have CV conditions can use this anesthetic agent for the induction of anesthesia

A

Etomidate because it has less vasodilation and myocardial depression

188
Q

what is Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

A

progressive loss of motor neurons that control the voluntary muscles (neurons of the pyramidal system)

189
Q

primary lateral sclerosis involves

A

the death of only upper motor neurons

190
Q

progressive muscular atrophy (form of ALS) involves only

A

the death of lower neurons

191
Q

the hallmark of ALS pathology is

A

the presence of protein aggregates of TDP-43 and SOD1

SOD1 protein is an anti-oxidant, so the aggregates of these result in a los off anti-oxidant capabilities

192
Q

is glutamate activity increased or decreased in ALS

A

increased, the excitatory amino acid transporter EAAT2 has been decreased so Glutamate sticks around longer making the neurons hyperexcitable

193
Q

neurons are hyperexcitable due to increased glutamate activity in ALS. Which drug combats this

A

Riluzole - glutamate reuptake and potentiation of GABA

194
Q

protein aggregates of SOD1 lead to decreases in anti-oxidant capacity in those with ALS, which drug combats this

A

edaravone - free radical scavenger - first in class ALS treatment - must be administered via IV daily so can affect quality of life

195
Q

the hallmark of ALS is protein aggregation. what drug combats this

A

AMXOO35 - fixed dose combo of sodium phenylbutyrate and taurursodiol - chemical chaperone to prevent protein aggregation and improvements in mitochondrial energy production to inhibit cell death pathways in the mitochondria and ER

196
Q

what is Huntington’s disease

A

genetic disease of the basal ganglia due to a triple repeat of the DNA sequence (CAG) resulting in mutant proteins (mHtt) which damage brain cells

197
Q

tetrabenazine and deutetrabenazine are used to treat huntingtons disease by

A

reversible depletion of DA, 5HT, NE, and HA from nerve terminals

deutrabenazine is an isomer of tetrabenazine which uses deuteriums instead of hydrogens to reduce drug metabolism rate

198
Q

tetrabenazine and deutetrabenazine are used to treat huntingtons disease but should not be used in patients who have

A

depression - would reduce dopamine and serotonin levels

199
Q

Laquinimod is a drug initially developed to treat MS but is used to treat huntington’s disease because it

A

reduces caudate atrophy and brain atrophy in general

200
Q

memantine is a partial antagonist of NMDAR glutamate receptors but it is used to treat HD why

A

decreases the progression of cognitive symptoms by reducing glutamate hyperexcitation leading to cell death

201
Q

risperidone is an atypical neuroleptic which is also used to treat HD why

A

dopamine block to reduce motor symptoms

202
Q

while there is a lot of overlap in