Midterm Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the three major categories of law that are applicable to construction?

A

 Contract
 Tort - civil wrong other than breach of contract where court will provide remedy for damages
-Intentional Torts (assault, fraud, conversion)
-Negligence (lack of due diligence or care)
-Strict Liability (liable without regard to fault)
 Statutory/Regulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are three implied contract obligations (obligations other than those spelled out by the agreement or contract)?

A
  • Duty of good faith
  • Duty to cooperate
  • Warranty of plans & specifications (Spearin Doctrine) and results of performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three basic categories of torts?

A

 Intentional torts
 Negligent torts
 Strict liability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which party in the design-bid-build contracting method is displaced when using multi-prime contracting?

A

General contractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When using design-build contracting, which party assumes the design and construction responsibilities, along with the resulting liabilities?

A

Design-builder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the contractual relationship between a public agency and a private entity that may be used to deliver a facility for the use of the general public?

A

Private Public Partnership (PPP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between a responsible bidder and responsive bidder?

A

A “responsible” bidder is a contractor who is capable of satisfactorily undertaking and completing the work. A “responsive” bidder is a contractor who submits a bid that accurately reflects the tasks spelled out in the bid solicitation and would be bound to perform should the bid be accepted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Agencies can have a large amount of discretion in selecting “best value” procurement. If bid selection is protested and goes to court, what two questions do the courts seek to answer

A
  • Did the agency comply with the FAR requirements for negotiated best-value procurements?
  • Did the agency follow the selection and evaluation procedures set forth in the RFP?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What four criteria are used to justify the court’s intervention from bid mistakes

A

• The mistake is of such consequence that enforcement would be unconscionable
• The mistake must relate to the substance of the consideration—a “material” feature
• The mistake must have occurred regardless of the exercise of ordinary care
• It must be possible to place the other party in status quo
- Fifth criteria often used - timely notice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the owner’s duty if a bid mistake is suspected?

A

Notify the contractor and attempt to verify the accuracy of the bid before allowing reliance on the bid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the four elements of promissory estoppel?

A
  • A clear and definite offer by the subcontractor to perform the work at a certain price
  • A reasonable expectation by the subcontractor that the prime contractor will rely on the subcontractor’s price in preparing the prime contractor’s bid
  • Reasonable reliance by the prime contractor on the subcontractor’s bid
  • Detriment to the general contractor as a result of reliance on the subcontractor’s bid and the subcontractor’s subsequent refusal to perform
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What five conditions must be met in order for a contract to be enforceable?

A
  • Real agreement between parties – “meeting of the minds”
  • Subject matter of contract must be lawful
  • Valid consideration for each promise
  • Parties must have legal capacity to contract
  • Compliance with legal requirements regarding the form of the contract (i.e. written contract)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contract language is typically interpreted as it would be understood by a reasonably intelligent and logical person familiar with the facts and circumstances of the contract. What two sources of information do the courts use in making this determination?

A
  • Language used by the parties in the contract

* Facts and circumstances surrounding contract formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the three sources of definitions used in defining contract terms?

A
  • Parties have defined the terms within the contract
  • Technical terms are given their meaning within various industries and trades
  • General terms are given their widely accepted meanings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When preprinted contract forms also include handwritten and typewritten terms, what is the generally accepted order of precedence regarding interpretation of these terms?

A
  • First, handwritten terms
  • Second, typewritten terms
  • Third, preprinted form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When ambiguities exist in contract interpretation, what are the two risk allocation principles available to the courts to resolve the conflict?

A
  • Construing the contract against the drafter

* Construing against the party that failed to request clarification

17
Q

What are three examples of how an owner may breach their implied contractual duty to cooperate?

A
  • Failure to coordinate work of separate contractors within their control
  • Late or incomplete review of submittals
  • Untimely or incomplete inspections
18
Q

Rules for contract interpretation

A

Rule 1: The reasonable, logical meaning of the word will be presumed to be the meaning intended by the parties
Rule 2: Technical terms override generally accepted terms (if that was the intent)
Rule 3: General terms use their widely accepted meaning (unless defined differently in the contract)
Rule 4: Contract considered as a whole
Rule 5: Handwritten, typed, preprinted forms
Rule 6: Order of precedence clauses
Rule 7: Industry custom and usage

19
Q

Elements of enforceable contracts (Hinze, p.31)

A
  1. Parties must have legal capacity to contract
  2. Must have offer & acceptance
  3. Consideration for each promise
  4. Legal Purpose
  5. Terms must be reasonably clear
  6. Contract form permitted by law
20
Q

Contract Delivery Methods

A
  1. Design-Bid-Build (Traditional Method)
  2. Design-Build
  3. Construction Management
  4. Multi-Prime Contracting
21
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of Design-Bid-Build

A
  • Advantages
    • Contractor & Design Professional selected separately
    • Complete design documents available before construction
    • Contractor & Design Professional operate independently
    • Well defined requirements
  • Disadvantages
    • Contractor & Design Professional operate independently
    • Construction costs not estimated until design phase completed
    • Construction does not start until documents are available
    • Time is biggest loser
22
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of Design-Build

A
  • Advantages
    • Owner has one contract and deals with one party
    • Fast-track construction due to better communication
    • Cost savings usually achieved
    • Owner has design alternatives
    • Timeline is compressed
  • Disadvantages
    • Design Professional comes packaged Contractor
    • Product quality may be difficult to control
    • Difficult to compare proposals because designs vary
    • Requirements are loosely defined
23
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of Construction Management

A
  • Advantages
    • Construction Manager’s expertise benefits design
    • Construction Manager’s has unbiased opinion
    • Construction Manager has no incentive to cut corners
  • Disadvantages
    • Construction Manager may not be cost conscious
    • Owner has no total cost protection before construction
    • Incentive for CM to slow progress to avoid risk
24
Q

Advantages/disadvantages of Multi-Prime Contracting

A
  • Advantages
    • Cost savings (no GC mark-up on subcontracts)
    • Can be used with fast-tracking
    • Owner is less exposed to inflation and delayed occupancy
  • Disadvantages
    • Major coordination hassles
    • Owner must manage all subcontractors
    • Uncertainty regarding responsibility
    • Owner assumes higher risk
25
Q

Ethical Decision-Making Theories

A

Egoism
-How does the decision benefit me?

Virtue Theory
-How does the decision benefit me and those closest to me?

Utilitarianism
-Does the decision maximize benefits for most people?

Moral Rights
-Does the decision harm anyone’s rights?

26
Q

Ethical Decision-Making Guidelines

A

PLUS
P - Policies - Does the action serve the best interest of the client and the public?

L- Legal - Does the action comply with the spirit and the letter of laws and regulations?

U - Universal - Does the action conform to universal principles and values of the profession?

S - Self - Does the action satisfy your own personal definition of right, good, and just?

27
Q

Common Ethical Issues

A
  • Bribe
  • Kickback
  • Conflict of Interest
  • Outside employment
  • Confidential information
  • Family members
  • Harassment
28
Q

ASCE Fundamental Principles

A
  1. Enhance human welfare and environment
  2. Serve the public, employees, and clients honestly and impartially
  3. Increase competency and prestige of profession
  4. Support professional and technical societies
29
Q

ASCE Fundamental Canons

A
  1. Hold paramount safety, health, and welfare of public
  2. Perform services only in area of competence
  3. Issue public statements in objective & truthful manner
  4. Serve clients faithfully; avoid conflicts of interest
  5. Compete fairly with others
  6. Enhance profession; avoid bribery, fraud, & corruption
  7. Continue professional development
30
Q

Ethics vs. Morality

A

Ethics - external source such as professional practice, violation can lead to disciplinary action

Morals - internal source from societal norms, violation leads to guilt, remorse, cognitive dissonance

31
Q

Elements of Moral Autonomy

A
  1. Moral awareness
  2. Clear moral reasoning - ability to understand issue, clarify and assess both sides
  3. Moral coherence - consistent and comprehensive viewpoints based on relevant facts
  4. Moral imagination
  5. Moral communication - ability to be precise in language, skillfully present and defend moral views to others