Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What population is the core consumer of healthcare?

A

Older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many RN’s are certified in gerontology?

A

Less then 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Indigenous and black Canadians have a shorter lifespan by approx. ___ years?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How much more money is spent on adults over the age of 65 years compared to those 64 years and younger?

A

4 times the cost - 2700 to 12000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define frailty

A

A clinically recognizable state of increased
vulnerability resulting from aging-associated decline in reserve and function
across multiple physiologic systems such that the ability to cope with
everyday or acute stressors is comprised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 5 criteria associated with a diagnosis of frailty? How many need to be met?

A

Meet 3 of the 5:
Low grip strength
Low energy
Decreased physical activity
Slowed walking
Unintentional weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who is at highest risk for frailty?

A

85+ age
Women
African-american descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the number one reason for injury related death?

A

Falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A fear of falling is of similar importance for older adults as a fear of crime, financial crisis, and adverse health events in healthy adults? True or false?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which gender is more likely to fall?

A

Females (older adults)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is successful aging?

A

A concept describing the quality of aging, with a goal of expanding functional years later in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the 4 domains that describe healthy aging?

A

Avoiding disease/disability
Higher cognitive/physical function
Actively engaged in life
Psychologically well adapted later in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The assessment of the older adult should focus on:

A

Social complexity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When should patient data be interpreted?

A

After collection and assessment, not during

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 3 ways that data is collected?

A

Self-report
Report by proxy
Direct observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Screening determines the patients ___

A

Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does FANCAPES stand for?

A

Fluids
Aeration
Nutrition
Communication
Activity
Pain
Elimination
Socialization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does BEERS assess?

A

Inappropriate medication use in older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 5 sub scales of the OARS assessment?

A

Social resources
Economic resources
Physical health
Mental health
ADL ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does SPICES stand for?

A

Sleep disorders
Problems with eating/feeding
Incontinence
Confusion
Evidence of falls
Skin breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the MMSE stand for and what does it entail?

A

Mini mental status exam, and it includes sentence writing, orientation questions, memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are you assessing for when completing an oral assessment?

A

Xerostomia (dry mouth), ulcers, dental carriers, oral thrush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cranial nerves 9 & 10 are…

A

Glossopharyngeal and vagus - responsible for swallowing/gag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cranial nerve 7 is the…

A

Facial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cranial nerves 3,4,6 are…

A

Oculomotor, trochlear, abducens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The cerebellum is primarily responsible for?

A

Coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What 5 aspects need to be assessed during a gait assessment?

A

Stride
Cadence
Step
Gait speed
Step/base width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A normal step value is?

A

72 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A normal stride value is?

A

144cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A normal cadence is?

A

90-120 steps/minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A normal step or base width is?

A

5-10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What test needs to be done to assess gait speed?

A

TUG test (timed up and go)

33
Q

A 5/5 on a strength assessment would indicate?

A

Normal strength

34
Q

A 4+ on a reflex assessment would indicate?

A

Clonus

35
Q

A 2+ on a reflex assessment would indicate?

A

A normal (brisk) response

36
Q

Name the 4 cardiovascular conditions that affect older adults.

A

Hypertension
Coronary artery disease
Heart valve disease
Heart failure

37
Q

Name at least 3 risk factors for developing cardiovascular disease

A

Age (over 55 in men and 65 in women), family history, smoking, obesity, inactivity, dyslipidemia, diabetes, hypertension, microalbuminuria, metabolic syndrome

38
Q

What temperatures increase an older adults risk for developing cardiovascular disease?

A

Both high and low temperatures

39
Q

What is 50% Stenosis of the Circumflex Artery?

A

50% moderate blockage

40
Q

ECG findings in sinus tachycardia with a left bundle branch block?

A

Widened QRS, dominant S wave in V1

41
Q

Name the common medication classes used to treat heart failure (5)

A

ACE inhibitors
Beta blockers
Diuretics (loop)
Electrolyte supplements
Digoxin

42
Q

What is the most frequent degenerative valvular heart disease?

A

Aortic valve stenosis

43
Q

Which tasks are appropriate to assign the UAP assisting with care? Select all that apply.

Keeping the call light within M.M’s reach

Ambulating M.M to the chair and bathroom

Assisting M.M with performing oral hygiene

Emptying the two jackson-pratt drains each shift

Obtaining routine vital signs and weight

A

Keeping the call light within M.M’s reach (YES)

Ambulating M.M to the chair and bathroom (YES)

Assisting M.M with performing oral hygiene (YES)

Emptying the two jackson-pratt drains each shift

Obtaining routine vital signs and weight (depends on institution and policy)

44
Q

What is the 5 year survival rate of pancreatic cancer?

A

5-10%

45
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for pancreatic cancer?

A

Smoking

46
Q

How is pancreatic cancer treated?

A

Whipple procedure

47
Q

State what the DELIRIUM pneumonic stands for?

A

Dehydration
Electrolyte imbalance
Lung, liver, heart, kidney, brain
Infection
Rx
Immobility
Untreated pain/unfamiliar environment
Metabolic disorders

48
Q

What are the 4 features of the CAM?

A

1: acute onset/fluctuating course
2: inattention
3: disorganized thinking
4: altered LOC

49
Q

The delirium index assesses the same things as the CAM except for?

A

Sleep/wake cycle

50
Q

Symptoms of delirium

A

Disorganized thinking, disorientation, anxiety, agitation, delusional thinking, poor executive function and recall

51
Q

What % of delirium cases are misdiagnosed?

A

70%

52
Q

What is the term that is wrongfully used by police to detain racialized groups experiencing delirium?

A

Excited delirium

53
Q

What are the 3 types of delirium?

A

Hypoactive, hyperactive, mixed

54
Q

How many controlled acts are there?

A

14

55
Q

4 most common drug classes that induce delirum?

A

Antidepressants, anticonvulsants, benzos, opiates

56
Q

For each behavior listed, specify whether it is associated with
delirium (DL) or dementia (DM).
______ a. Gradual and insidious onset
______ b. Hallucinations or delusions
______ c. A sudden, acute onset of symptoms
______ d. Progressive functional impairment
______ e. Personality changes with emotional lability
______ f. Incoherent interactions with others
______ g. Possible wandering behavior
______ h. Lucid at times, but often worsens at night

A

Delirium: b,c,f,h
Dementia: a,d,e,g

57
Q

Several diagnostic tests are ordered. From the tests listed, select
those which would be used to help diagnose the type of dementia.

Toxicology screen
Electrocardiogram
Electroencephalogram
Complete metabolic panel
Complete blood count with differential
Thyroid function tests
Colonoscopy
Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
Serum B12 and folate levels
Bleeding times
Liver function tests
Vision and hearing evaluation
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Urinalysis

A

 Toxicology screen
 Electrocardiogram
 Electroencephalogram
 Complete metabolic panel
 Complete blood count with differential
 Thyroid function tests
x Colonoscopy
 Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
 Serum B12 and folate levels
x Bleeding times
 Liver function tests
 Vision and hearing evaluation
 Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
 Urinalysis

58
Q

What do you need to teach about donepezil? Select all that apply.

a) “The best time to take donepezil is in the morning.”
b) “Swallow each tablet whole. Drink a glass of water afterward.”
c) “Notify the provider if you have trouble urinating or muscle weakness.”
d) “You may have some nausea. Taking the medication with food may help.”
e) “Keep the tablet in the blister pack until you are ready to take the medicine.”

A

Correct answers are: a, c, d, e
This tablet dissolves under the tongue
Taking in the morning lessens insomnia

59
Q

Define dementia

A

Umbrella term for loss of cognitive functioning that interferes with daily life and activities

60
Q

Name the different types of rare dementias

A

Lewy body
Posterior corticoid atrophy
Primary progressive aphasia
Familial AD
Frontotemporal lobe dementia
Young onset alzheimers disease

61
Q

Explain the neuroanatomic changes that occur in a person with alzheimers

A

Destruction of proteins of nerve cells of cerebral cortex by diffuse infiltration with neurofibrillary tangles and plaques (non functional tissue)

62
Q

What does Donepezil treat?

A

Alzeheimers, manages symptoms and slows progression but does not prevent/cure AD

63
Q

What are the 3 newest risk factors for dementia?

A

Excessive alcohol consumption, pollution, traumatic brain injury

64
Q

Those ___ and older use the most OTC/perscription medications in Canada

A

65+

65
Q

What % of older adults are taking more then 5 medications?

A

33%

66
Q

What are the 4 stages of pharmacokinetics?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

67
Q

Define chronopharmacology

A

Relationship of biological rhythms to variations in the body’s response to medications

68
Q

Name 4 common medication issues in older adults?

A

Polypharmacy
Medication interactions
Misuse of medications
Adverse drug reaction

69
Q

How do anticholinergic medications work?

A

Compete for the acetylcholine receptor sites within the cholinergic system - preventing the effects of cholinergic neurotransmission in the CNS and peripheral tissue

70
Q

What are common side effects of anticholinergic medications?

A

Blurred vision/dry eyes
Dry mouth
Constipation
Skin flushing/overheating, unable to sweat
Drowsiness, dizziness, confusion, hallucinations
Rapid heart rate
Urinary retention

71
Q

True or false: SSRIS are a good alternative for antidepressants over other antidepressant medications?

A

True - SSRIS have lower anticholinergic effects compared to older anti-depressants, although they still come with their own risks (hyponatremia)

72
Q

Multimorbidity can be defined as:

A

2 or more long term conditions that increase with age

73
Q

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors have what function?

A

Inhibit cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine, increasing the level of duration and level of NT action which improves mental function

74
Q

How does diffuse lewy body dementia present?

A

Parkinson’s like symptoms

75
Q

Posterior corticoid atrophy affects:

A

Visual and spatial perception

76
Q

Primary progressive aphasia affects:

A

Mainly language skills

77
Q

Familial AD can occur as young as:

A

30 years

78
Q

Frontotemporal lobe dementia affects:

A

Behaviour, personality, language

79
Q

_______ testing is done to determine degree of cognitive impairment

A

Neuropsychological