Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

The NCAA is organized as a for profit organization

A

True

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2
Q

A sport manager is responsible for achieving organizational goals mainly through the efficient and effective use of resources.

A

True

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3
Q

According to the text, which of the following is an example of a managerial decisional role?

A

negotiator

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4
Q

The ability to use methods and techniques to perform a task is a definition of…

A

technical skills

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5
Q

Management role categories…

A

interpersonal, decisional, informational

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6
Q

A sport manager is responsible for…

A

achieving organizational goals

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7
Q

The ability to work with people in teams is the definition of…

A

people skills

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8
Q

Controlling is the process of establishing and implementing mechanisms to ensure that objectives are achieved.

A

True

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9
Q

A management role is…

A

a set of expectations of how one will behave in a given situation

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10
Q

Financial, physical, and human resources are the only resources a manager has.

A

False

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11
Q

The 5 internal environmental factors are…

A

management, mission, resources, systems process, and structure

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12
Q

Stakeholders are all of the people who have an ownership position in a company.

A

False

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13
Q

Ethics are standards of right and wrong that influence behavior.

A

True

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14
Q

The external environment includes the factors that affect an organization’s performance from outside its boundaries.

A

True

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15
Q

Customer value doesn’t change over time.

A

False

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16
Q

The shareholders decide…

A

who will be stop management

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17
Q

The stakeholders’ approach to ethics involves creating a win-win situation for all stakeholders so that everyone benefits from the decision.

A

True

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18
Q

Management is defined as…

A

those responsible for the organization’s performance

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19
Q

Examples of multinational sports corporations…

A

Nike, Reebok, Adidas

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20
Q

The method used to transform inputs into outputs is the definition of…

A

the system process

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21
Q

To determine the volume needed to yield a profit, use…

A

break-even analysis

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22
Q

Criteria are the standards that an alternative must meet to be classified as a programmed or nonprogrammed decision.

A

False

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23
Q

Nominal grouping is the process of…

A

generating and evaluating alternatives using a structured voting method

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24
Q

The 3 steps in the creative process, in order, are…

A

preparation, incubation and illumination, and evaluation

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25
Q

Reflexive decision makers often fail to sufficiently…

A

generate alternatives

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26
Q

When making decisions under conditions of risk, use the…

A

probability theory

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27
Q

there are 4 steps in the creative process.

A

false

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28
Q

By purchasing TaylorMade, Adidas failed to expand its merchandise lines into the golf industry.

A

False

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29
Q

The sport industry is immune to making bad decisions.

A

False

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30
Q

The first step in decision making is to…

A

define the problem

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31
Q

The 4 levels of authority are…

A

informing, recommending, reporting, and full

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32
Q

Flat organizations usually exist when there are narrow spans of management.

A

False

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33
Q

Functional departmentalization is the only form of internal departmentalization.

A

True

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34
Q

The process of combining tasks that each employee is responsible for completing is…

A

Job Design

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35
Q

The three priority determination questions help you decide how to assign and delegate priorities.

A

True

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36
Q

Which one of the following is an example of a new organizational form?

A

Virtual Organization

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37
Q

The number of employees reporting to a manager constitutes…

A

the span of management

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38
Q

When using the three priority determination questions, a high priority is assigned if…

A

you answer yes to all three questions

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39
Q

Elements of the job characteristic model

A

core job dimension, critical psychological states, employee growth needs

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40
Q

You should ask yourself the three priority determination questions when you have a task to complete.

A

True

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41
Q

When Nike added sport clothing to its athletic shoe line, it uses…

A

related diversification

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42
Q

The competitive advantage specifies how the organization offers unique customer value.

A

True

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43
Q

Corporate-level strategy is a plan for handling multiple lines of business.

A

True

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44
Q

What is true of a model objective?

A

It is written as an infinitive plus an action verb

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45
Q

The successful use of a SWOT in the 2010s would have helped the NBA to have a better understanding of emerging competitors such as…

A

NASCAR

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46
Q

Nike, Spalding, Reebok, and Adidas often use a focus strategy.

A

False

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47
Q

When one company buys all or part of another company, the result is called a merger.

A

False

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48
Q

Through the strategic process, upper and middle managers develop the long-range plans and lower-level managers determine the means to accomplish the ends.

A

False

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49
Q

Strategy is a plan for pursuing the mission and achieving objectives.

A

True

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50
Q

Through _____, the firm grows in its existing lines of business.

A

concentration

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51
Q

The stages of the change process are denial, resistance, acceptance, and commitment.

A

False

52
Q

Force-field analysis is particularly useful for…

A

small groups

53
Q

What are types of change?

A

strategy, structure, technology, people

54
Q

Focusing everyone in the organization on delivering customer value and continuously improving the system and its processes are the core values of…

A

TQM

55
Q

An invisible barrier that prevents minorities and women from advancing beyond a certain level in organizations is called the…

A

glass ceiling

56
Q

____ is an OD intervention designed to help improve team dynamics.

A

Process consultation

57
Q

Safety has been a major concern for NASCAR since the death of Dale Earnhardt.

A

True

58
Q

The management of diversity emphasizes fully using human resources through organizational actions that meet all employees’ needs.

A

True

59
Q

As a manager of change, you should anticipate whether resistance will be strong, weak, or somewhere in between.

A

True

60
Q

What are the driving forces behind change?

A

environmental forces, social forces, demographic forces

61
Q

The steps in job instructional training are preparation of the trainee, presentation of the task, performance of the task by the trainee, and follow-up.

A

True

62
Q

Which of the following statements about the “you get what you reward” concept is false?

A

People do what they think is right regardless of rewards

63
Q

The two types of performance appraisals are developmental and evaluative.

A

True

64
Q

Ongoing education to improve skills for present and future jobs is called development.

A

True

65
Q

All of the following are jobs of the human resources department relating to strategic human resources planning except

A

providing people who have transportation to work

66
Q

The purpose of a performance appraisal is to help make decisions and plans for performance improvements.

A

False

67
Q

An evaluative performance appraisal is used to make decisions and plans for performance improvements.

A

False

68
Q

The first step in conducting a performance appraisal is to have the employee perform a self-assessment.

A

False

69
Q

An interviewer wants to know the ticket manager candidate’s maiden name. Which of the following statements is true?

A

The interviewer cannot ask.

70
Q

An interviewer wants to know whether a coaching candidate is married. Which of the following statements is true?

A

The interviewer cannot ask.

71
Q

management

A

develops the organizational culture

72
Q

mission

A

purpose or reason and or outcome organization strives to achieve

73
Q

resources

A

need resources to accomplish mission

74
Q

means

A

how mission and objectives are met through other internal factors

75
Q

ends

A

Mission statement and set objectives responsible for achieving

76
Q

Types of resources

A

financial, physical, informational, human

77
Q

the systems process

A

method used to transform inputs into outputs

78
Q

structure

A

departmentalization on of resources so organizations can transform inputs into outputs (products)

79
Q

structured by functional departments

A

finance, marketing, operations, human resources

80
Q

quality of sport

A

ensures a successful outcomes

81
Q

Total quality management (TQM)

A

is the process through which everyone in the organization focuses on the customer or fan in order to continually increase value.

82
Q

The major principles of TQM are…

A

to deliver customer and fan value and to continually improve the systems processes

83
Q

External environment

A

factors outside its boundaries that affect its performance

84
Q

Nine factors in the external environment affect the internal environment….

A
  1. Fans and customers=no customers value, no successful business
  2. Competitors=Organizations must compete for customers and fans
  3. Suppliers=an enterprise that contributes goods or services
  4. Athletes and workers=the success of a sports organization/team depends on the recruitment of players or hiring hardworking employees
  5. Team owners and shareholders= ownership has influence over management
  6. Society and activists= society can determine acceptable business and athletic practices 7. Technology=intuition is being replaced by science to improve athletes’ performance with better diets, supplements, training, and sport apparel and equipment
  7. The economy=Organizations have no control over economic growth, inflation, or interest rates
  8. Sport regulations and governments=National, state, and local governments all set laws and regulations that organizations must obey, and these laws and regulations can change
85
Q

Domestic

A

conducts business in only one country, although it may have to compete against global firms at home

86
Q

International

A

Primarily based in one country but transacts business in other countries. The common model relies on importing and exporting from the home country.

87
Q

Multinational

A

A multinational corporation (MNC) has significant operations in more than one country

88
Q

Importing and Exporting is what type of risk

A

low risk

89
Q

direct investment is what type of risk

A

high risk

90
Q

Stakeholders approach to ethics

A

Organizations create a win–win situation for the parties affected by the decision. If as a manager you are proud to tell stakeholders of your decision, it is probably ethical. If you are not proud or you keep rationalizing your decision, it may not be ethical.

91
Q

4 levels of social responsibility

A

social obstruction, social obligation, social reaction, social involvement

92
Q

Compliance

A

a corporation has no responsibility to society beyond that of obeying the law and maximizing profits for shareholders.

93
Q

Internal environment

A

includes the factors within its boundaries that affect its performance

94
Q

Mission

A

organization’s purpose or reason for being

95
Q

Stakeholders

A

people affected by the organization’s activities

96
Q

Systems process

A

the method used to transform inputs into outputs

97
Q

Structure

A

the departmentalization of its resources to accomplish its mission and objectives

98
Q

Quality

A

the standard or value of a product or service

99
Q

Customer value

A

the benefits that customers obtain if they buy a product or attend a sport event

100
Q

External environment

A

includes factors outside its boundaries that affect its performance

101
Q

International business

A

primarily based in one country but transacts business in other countries

102
Q

Multinational corporation (MNC)

A

has significant operations in more than one country, including Gold’s Gym, Nike, and YMCAs.

103
Q

Global sourcing

A

the use of worldwide resources for inputs and transformation

104
Q

Joint venture

A

created when firms share ownership (partnership) of a new enterprise

105
Q

Direct investment

A

occurs when a company builds or purchases operating facilities (affiliates or subsidiaries) in another country

106
Q

Social responsibility

A

the conscious effort to operate in a manner that creates a win–win situation for society

107
Q

Creative Problem Solving and Decision Making steps

A
  1. define the problem or opportunity
  2. set objective and criteria
  3. generate alternatives
  4. select the most feasible alternative
  5. implementing the decision
  6. controlling the results
108
Q

Problems

A

exist when objectives are not met

109
Q

problem solving

A

the process of taking corrective action to meet objectives

110
Q

decision making

A

the process of selecting a course of action that will solve a problem

111
Q

reflexive decision style

A

make snap decisions without taking the time to get all the information they need and without considering many alternatives

112
Q

reflective decision style

A

to decide, gathering considerable information and analyzing many alternatives

113
Q

consistent decision style

A

rush and don’t waste time; They know when they need more information and when it’s time to stop analyzing and get moving

114
Q

programmed decisions

A

recurring or routine situations in which the decision maker should use decision rules or organizational policies and procedures to make the decision

115
Q

non-programmed decisions

A

significant but nonrecurring and nonroutine situations in which the decision-makers should use the decision-making model

116
Q

decision making conditions

A

decisions are made in an environment of certainty, risk, or uncertainty

117
Q

criteria

A

the standards that must be met to accomplish the objective

118
Q

creativity

A

a way of thinking that generates new solutions to problems and new ways to approach opportunities

119
Q

innovation

A

alters what is established by introducing something new

120
Q

creative process

A

preparation, incubation and illumination, and evaluation

121
Q

devils advocate

A

defend the idea while others try to come up with reasons why it won’t work

122
Q

brainstorming

A

group members generate as many alternatives as they can in a short time

123
Q

Synectic

A

novel alternatives are generated through role-playing and fantasizing

124
Q

nominal grouping

A

a structured voting method is used to generate and evaluate alternatives

125
Q

consensus mapping

A

a process for developing group agreement on a problem’s solution

126
Q
A