Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is nominal data?

A

categorical
-show differences in populations
ex. hair color or gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Statistical tests for nominal data

A

independent- chi square
dependent
- McNemar or Cochran’sQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Null hypothesis of nominal data

A

X2=0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypothesis of nominal data

A

X2 is not equal to 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of data is ordinal data?

A

numerical scores to make a ranking over set of data points
ex. severity of disease or pain scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Statistical tests for ordinal data sets

A

independent- mann-whitney or kuskal-wallis
dependent- wilcoxin matched pairs or friedmans
chi-square

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Null hypothesis of ordinal data

A

mean difference = 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hypothesis of ordinal data

A

mean difference is not equal to 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is continuous data?

A

numerical scores that are infinite and have meaning; shows difference in means
ex. pocket depth and temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Statistical test for continuous data:

A

independent- T test or ANOVA
dependent- T test or repeated measures ANOVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Null hypothesis for continuous data

A

mean difference = 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hypothesis for continuous data

A

mean difference is not equal to 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is risk ratio or relative risk?

A

the probability of an event occurring, shows the strength of association between exposure and disease
-used in RCT and cohort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does a relative risk of 1 mean?

A

there were not differences between groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does a relative risk less than 1 mean?

A

risk of bad outcome is decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does a relative risk greater than 1 mean?

A

risk of bad income is increased by the intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Odds Ratio?

A

estimates risk ration
-comparing the odds of an event in one group to the odds of an event in a comparison group
-commonly used in case control studies in epidemiological research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is absolute risk reduction?

A

difference in outcome rates between the control and experimental groups
-change in risk of a given intervention in relation to the control
-inverse od NNT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is number needed to treat?

A

the number of patients that need to be treated in order for one patient to have a benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the ideal number needed to treat?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does higher number to treat mean?

A

treatment is less effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a negative number needed to treat mean?

A

intervention is harmful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do confidence intervals give?

A

provide information about the most likely range of population parameter
-actual range is the odds ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the variability of confidence interval called?

A

standard deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Small sample size usually generates…

A

wider range of intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

probability that a subject with the disease will screen positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is specificity?

A

probability that a subject who is disease free will screen negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How to calculate sensitivty:

A

true positive/ true positive + false negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How to calculate specificity?

A

true negative/ true negative + false positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How to calculate PV+

A

true positive/ (true positive + false positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How to calculate PV-

A

true negative/ (true negatives + false negatives)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What should we do to prevent cognitive bias?

A

-always question assumptions
-keep an open mind
-always question the evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is logical fallacy?

A

error in logical argumentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is cognitive bias?

A

genuine deficiency or limitation in our thinking
-a flaw in judgement that arises from errors of memory, social attribution, and miscalculations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the bandwagon effect?

A

tendency to do (or believe) things because many people do (or believe) the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

looking for and valuing information that confirms what we believe
-misleads us about what is true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is gamblers fallacy?

A

putting tremendous amount of weight on previous events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is interviewer bias?

A

the distortion of response to an interview which results form differential reactions to the style and personality of the interview or to the their presentation questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is normalcy bias?

A

refusal to plan for, or reaction to, a disaster which which has never happened before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is measurement bias (systemic error)?

A

systemically overstating or understanding the true value of a measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is negativity bias?

A

paying more attention to negative news or perceiving it to be more important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is observation selection bias?

A

suddenly noticing things that you did not notice before and wrongly assuming the frequency has increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is performance bias?

A

when one group of subjects gets more attention than another group which results in differences between groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is positive expectation bias?

A

a sense that our luck has to eventually change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is publication bias?

A

when the outcome of a study influences the decision whether to publish it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is question order?

A

inadvertently influencing responses due to the order questions are asked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is recall bias?

A

participants do not remember previous events or experiences accurately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is respondent fatigue bias?

A

phenomenon that occurs when survey participants become tired which results in the quality of data deteriorating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is response bias (survey bias) ?

A

tendency for participants to answer questions untruthfully or inaccurately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is sampling/selection bias?

A

sample obtained is not reflective of the target population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is sponsor bias (funding bias)?

A

Study outcomes that support the interests of the study’s financial sponsor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is status quo bias?

A

making choices that guarantee things remain the same or change as little as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is verification bias?

A

outcomes more likely to be found in treatment group due to investigators knowing which person is in experimental and control groups

54
Q

What are the clinical study categories?

A

etiology, diagnosis, therapy, prognosis, and clinical predication guides

55
Q

What does the P stand for?

A

people

56
Q

What does I stand for?

A

intervention

57
Q

What does C stand for?

A

comparison

58
Q

What does O stand for?

A

outcome

59
Q

What are two most important terms in PICO?

A

intervention and comparison

60
Q

What is quantitative data?

A

numbers

61
Q

What is qualitative data?

A

can be interpreted

62
Q

What is experimental research?

A

-quantitative
-investigate cause and effect
-investigator controls variables
-randomized control trial

63
Q

What is observational research?

A

-quantitative or qualitative/ quasi
-prospective vs retrospective

64
Q

What is an independent variable?

A

changes/ investigator controls

65
Q

What is a dependent variable?

A

investigator does not control

66
Q

What are confounded variables?

A

error
-not measured by researcher and has impact

67
Q

What things affect validity?

A

internal- selection, maturation, and instrumentation
external- publication and financial

68
Q

What does null hypothesis mean?

A

reject hypothesis

69
Q

What is a type I error?

A

false positive

70
Q

What is a type II error?

A

false negative

71
Q

What is necessary to calculate the effect size?

A

standard deviation and mean to calculate

72
Q

What is evidence based dentistry?

A

use current scientific evidence to guide decision making in dentistry
3 part harmony
-best evidence
-clinical judgement
-patient values

73
Q

order of heirarchy of evidence:

A

-meta analysis
-systemic review
-randomized control trial
-cohort study
-case study
-cross sectional study
-case reports

74
Q

What is prevalence?

A

the frequency

75
Q

What is etiology/risk? What studies do you use?

A

what causes the problem
-cohort study > case control > case series

76
Q

What is diagnosis? What studies do you use?

A

whether or not the person has it
-blind comparison to gold standard or cross sectional

77
Q

What is therapy? What studies do you use?

A

What is the best treatment
-randomized control study > cohort study

78
Q

What is prognosis? What studies do you use?

A

who will get the problem?
cohort study > case control > case series

79
Q

What is the set up for PubMed?

A

use PICO for key words during search
-indexed with MeSH terms and newer items not indexed

80
Q

What is the set up for Cochrane library?

A

systemic reviews and cochrane reviews
-have their own journals

81
Q

What is the set up for ADA’s EBD site?

A

keep up with hot topics; great for once you are out of school

82
Q

What is the set up for TRIP?

A

pulls up reviews easily

83
Q

What is the set up for CEBD?

A

do not need to use as much and harder to use

84
Q

What are the limit of databases?

A

language, age, time period/date, gender/sex. publications types

85
Q

What is a MeSH term?

A

medical subject heading

86
Q

What are Boolean operators?

A

connection word or symbol that allows a computer user to include or exclude items in a test search

87
Q

What does OR do in a search?

A

broaden search

88
Q

What does AND do in a search?

A

narrows search

89
Q

What does NOT do in a search?

A

excludes

90
Q

What is a research question?

A

presents the idea that is to be examined in a study

91
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

testable predication; attempts to answer research question

92
Q

What is PICO?

A

a research question that cannot be tested

93
Q

What is research?

A

results from individual studies

94
Q

What is evidence?

A

accumulation of results
-synthesis of all valid research studies that answer a question

95
Q

What is validity?

A

closeness to the truth

96
Q

What are meta-analyses?

A

subset of systemic reviews
-method for combining qualitative and quantitative data form several selected studies to develop a single

97
Q

What are systemic reviews?

A

provides a comprehensive review of all relevant studies on a particular clinical topic

98
Q

What are randomized control trials?

A

participants are randomly assigned to an experimental group or control group
-strongest evidence for cause and effect
-includes at least one varied condition

99
Q

What are cohort studies?

A

one or more samples followed prospectively and subsequent status evaluations are conducted

100
Q

What are case studies?

A

compare patients who have a disease or outcome of interest with patients who do not and look retrospectively to determine relationships

101
Q

What are cross-sectional studies?

A

analysis of data collected from a population of representative subset at one specific point in time

102
Q

What are case reports?

A

article that describes and interprets an individual case
-written in form of a detailed story

103
Q

What is a variable?

A

unknown or known factors that are relevant to a study
-age, ethnicity, disease history, etc

104
Q

What is an independent variable?

A

causastive factor
-factor of conditions that changes naturally or is intentionally manipulated by investigator

105
Q

What is a dependent variable?

A

response or outcome

106
Q

What are confounding variables?

A

error or confounded influences
-is not considered to have significant impact on dependent variable or outcome

107
Q

Can you accept a null hypothesis?

A

NO

108
Q

what is a P-value?

A

“alpha value”
-likelihood of differences occurring my chance alone

109
Q

What does a p-value of equal to or less than 0.05 mean?

A

reject the null and accept alternative

110
Q

What test do you use with nominal/categorical data?

A

Chi square test

111
Q

What tests do you use for ordinal data?

A

Mann/Whitnet

112
Q

What tests do you do for interval data?

A

T-test or ANOVA

113
Q

chi square for

A

nominal data

114
Q

Mann-whitney for

A

ordinal data

115
Q

ANOVA for

A

interval/ratio with 3+ independent groups

116
Q

T-test for

A

interval/ratio with 2 independent groups

117
Q

inferential statistics do not:

A

prove cause and effect
-estimate clinical effectiveness
-estimate risk/benefit

118
Q

Inferential statistics do:

A

estimate probability of getting results due to chance
-suggest numerical difference

119
Q

What is needed to calculate effect size?

A

mean and standard deviation for each group

120
Q

When relative risk= 1

A

there was not a difference between groups

121
Q

When relative risk > 1

A

risk of bad outcome decrease

122
Q

When relative risk < 1

A

risk of bad outcome increased with intervention

123
Q

What do Odds Ratios compare?

A

odds of event in one group to odds of events in comparison groups

124
Q

Sensitivity

A

negative rules disease out
-can still have false positive

125
Q

Specificity

A

positive rules a disease in
-can say you are negative even if you do have the disease

126
Q

positive predictor value

A

chance that when a test is positive, you actually have the disease

127
Q

negative predictor value

A

chance that when the test is negative, you actually do not have the disease

128
Q

statistical significance

A

used in hypothesis testing, may appear to be significantly statistically
-may not affect clincally

129
Q

clinical significance

A

practical importance of a treatment effect

130
Q

experimental event rate

A

event rate in treated/affected group

131
Q

control event rate

A

event rate in the control/unaffected group

132
Q

absolute risk reduction

A

compares treatment effectiveness