Midterm Flashcards
1
Q
Tooth used to support prosthesis:
A
abutment
2
Q
Residual bone & soft tissue covering that remains after tooth loss; part of support for certain types of RPDs
A
Residual (edentulous) ridge
3
Q
RPD that depends entirely on natural teeth for support:
A
tooth-supported RPD
4
Q
Also called extension based RPD:
A
Tooth-tissue supported RPD
5
Q
RPD supported and retained by teeth at ONLY one end (also relies on tissue support)
A
Tooth-tissue supported RPD
6
Q
In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, the denture base is supported by:
A
teeth and residual ridge
7
Q
In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, discuss the goal of force distribution:
A
Least destructive forces are directed towards natural teeth (trying to preserve the remaining teeth)
8
Q
Areas towards the posterior of the prosthesis are called:
A
distal extensions
9
Q
Indications for RPD:
Edentulous area(s) are too:
A
long or numerous for a fixed prosthesis
10
Q
Indications for RPD:
Need to restore lost _____, especially in the _____ region
A
soft & hard alveolar tissue; anterior
11
Q
Indications for RPD:
Reduced ___ of remaining teeth
A
periodontal support
12
Q
Indications for RPD:
Need to distribute ____ across the dental arch (= ______)
A
masticatory stresses; cross-arch stabilization
13
Q
Indications for RPD:
No _____ tooth
A
posterior abutment
14
Q
Indications for RPD:
Immediate:
A
replacement of teeth
15
Q
Indications for RPD:
_____ & ____ of patient (____)
A
attitude and desires (economic desires)
16
Q
Disadvantages of an RPD:
- Removable so not:
- May be:
- _____ may be visible, reducing ____
- May ____ during function
- May ___ while eating
A
- considered “part” of the patient
- lost or broken
- clasps; esthetics
- dislodge
- trap food
17
Q
(T/F) A fixed prosthesis would be used over an RPD whenever it is not contra-indicated
A
true
18
Q
Line encircling a tooth that designates its greatest diameter at a selection position determined by a dental surveryor:
A
height of contour/ survey line
19
Q
How do you determine the height of contour of a tooth:
A
dental surveyor (survey line)
20
Q
The height of contour will change if the ____ is changed
A
axial inclination
21
Q
Portion of tooth ABOVE the height of contour:
A
Suprabulge areaT
22
Q
T/F: The suprabuldge area is always concave towards the occlusal:
A
False: Its always CONVEX towards occlusal
23
Q
Portion of tooth BELOW the height of contour:
A
Infrabulge area
24
Q
The infrabulge area may also be referred to as the:
A
undercut
25
Surface of object below the height of contour in relation to the path of placement:
Undercut
26
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
1. Preservation of ______ not _____
1. that which remains and not the meticulous replacement of that which has been lost
27
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
2. Eliminate:
2. disease
28
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
3. _____, ___, and ____ of health of remaining teeth
3. Preservation, restoration, and maintenance
29
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
4. _____ of lost teeth
4. selected replacement
30
What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?
5. Restoration of ___ and ___ in ____ manner
5. function & comfort; esthetically pleasing
31
- Why were the teeth lost?
- Does patient have caries or perio diagnosis?
- Has the patient has a previous unsuccessful RPD?
What part of the clinical examination do these questions relate to?
dental history
32
- diabetes- reduced healing potential
What part of the clinical examination does this relate to?
medical history
33
- Smoking
- Excessive sugar intake
What part of the clinical examination does this relate to?
Habits
34
In a clinical examination, in addition to the dental history, medical history, and habits, we also need to consider if the patients:
desires/expectations are reasonable or not
35
Fill in the remaining portions of the clinical examination:
1. dental history
2. medical history
3. habits
4. patient desires/expectations
5.
6.
7.
5. visual examination
6. radiographic examination
7. diagnostic casts
36
What are the 8 components to a visual examination?
1. oral hygiene
2. restorations
3. caries
4. periodontal assessment
5. condition of soft tissue
6. quality of residual ridge and hard tissue
7. occlusion
8. vertical space
37
Why is "oral hygiene a component" of the visual examination? (2)
1. Good hygiene habits are necessary or decreased life of RPD
2. The presence of an RPD can cause an increase in plaque
38
When completing the "restoration component" of the visual examination, what should we be looking for and why?
We should be looking at the condition of the existing restorations to determine if they need replaced prior to RPD (for adequate support of RPD)
39
When completing the "caries component" of the visual examination, what should we be looking for?
active disease
40
When completing the "periodontal assessment component" of the visual examination what five aspects are we looking for?
1. probing depths in relation to CEJ
2. attachment levels
3. furcation involvement
4. mucogingival problems
5. tooth mobility
41
When assessing the periodontal component of the visual examination, if tooth mobility is noted, what also should be noted?
whether the mobility is biologic, iatrogenic or pathologic
42
- location of junction of residual ridge and unattached tissue (no flabby soft tissue)
- hypertrophied or hyperplastic tissue
- need for tissue surgery
- need for tissue conditioning
What component of the visual examination are these describing?
condition of soft tissue
43
- displaceable fibrous tissue
- tori
- exostoses & undercuts
- need for surgery?
What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?
quality of residual ridge and hard tissue
44
- number of remaining teeth in occlusion
- tooth wear
- pathologic migration (medially-tipped teeth & intra-arch space issues)
- over-erupted teeth (inter0arch space issues- occlusal plane)
What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?
occlusion
45
When examining inter-arch space issues (occlusal plane) we need a minimum of ___ space for material
4-5 mm
46
- Is there enough space for treatment to be successful?
- Thickness of materials: metal, denture base, teeth
- Excessively large non-resorbed ridges
- Over-erupted teeth
What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?
Vertical space
47
What radiographs should be taken prior to fabricating an RPD?
1. full mouth PAs
2. Vertical bitewings
3. Pano
48
It is important to correlate the radiographic examination with the:
visual examination
49
How do we evaluate prospective abutment teeth and what are we looking for?
Radiographically; root length, size and form
50
Tooth with ____ or ___ roots are more favorable for abutment teeth
large or long roots
51
What is the most important factor to evaluate when looking at prospective abutment teeth radiographically?
Crown-root ratio
52
When looking at the crown-root ratio we are looking at:
The length of the clinical crown & amount of root embedded in bone
53
What is a must for crown-root ratio of an abutment tooth?
Need atleast half of root embedded in bone
54
If the crown root ratio is greater than 1:1, this results in:
poor prognosis
55
What are the three types of RPD framework?
1. Cast metal
2. Acrylic
3. Flexible base
56
What is an advantage to cast metal RPD framework?
better force distribution
57
What metals are commonly used for cast metal RPD framework? What is used most at UMKC?
CoCr (used most at UMKC) & NiCr (many ppl have Ni allergy)
58
What is the trade name for the flexible base RPD framework?
Valplast
59
What are the two types of clasp assemblies and where are they located on the tooth?
1. Retentive- buccal/facial side
2. Reciprocal- lingual side
60
Prevent the RPD from going toward the gingiva when patient bites down:
Clasp assemblies (retentive & reciprocal)
61
States that it is ideal for the clasp assembly to wrap around more tooth surface:
principle of encirclement
62
Prosthodontics replaces ____ & ___ and can replace the palate with ___
teeth & oral tissues; obturator
63
Reproduction for demonstration (no accuracy implied)
model
64
Accurate positive reproduction of arch:
cast
65
Encircles tooth that designates its greatest diameter:
height of contour/ survey line
66
The height of contour will change if:
axial inclination is changed
67
Area ABOVE the height of contour:
suprabulge
68
Area BELOW the height of contour
infrabulge
69
The retentive undercut is located within what area?
infrabulge
70
Only ____ contact the tooth below the survey line:
clasp tips
71
Only clasp tips contact the tooth:
below the survey line
72
Depends entirely on the natural teeth for support:
Tooth-supported RPD
73
What Kennedy class is associated with a tooth-supported RPD?
Class III
74
Extension-base RPD:
Tooth-tissue supported RPD
75
RPD supported and retained by teeth at only one end:
Tooth-tissue supported RPD
76
What Kennedy class is associated with a tooth-tissue supported RPD?
Class I or II
77
In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, the denture base is supported by:
teeth and residual ridge
78
When fabricating a tooth-tissue supported RPD, it is better to have forces distributed on ___ than on ___
Teeth; soft tissue
79
Edentulous area other than thought deterring the classification:
modification space
80
In applegates rules, no modifications exist in ____ arches (because this would make it a class ___)
Class IV; Class III
81
The objectives of removable partial dentures include (hint: 3 restores, provide, improve, splint)
1. restore anatomical defect
2. restore function
3. restore occlusal plane
4. provide posterior occlusal support
5. improve esthetics
6. splint periodontally compromised teeth
82
The metal framework of an RPD includes:
1. major connector
2. minor connector
3. rest
4. direct retainers
5. indirect retainers
83
Joins units on opposite sides of the arch:
major connector
84
List 3 functions of the major connector:
1. stress distribution (teeth & soft tissue)
2. unification (partial denture acts as one unit)
3. cross-arch stabilization (counterleverage)
85
What are the 4 types of maxillary major connectors?
1. Palatal strap
2. AP palatal strap
3. Complete palate
4. U-shaped (horseshoe) connector
86
What are the types of mandibular major connectors? (2)
1. lingual bar
2. lingual plate
87
A RIGID extension from major connector or base that contacts the proximal surface of abutment tooth:
proximal plate
88
The connecting link between major connector/base & other units (retainers & rests):
minor connector
89
Describe the 3 types of minor connectors:
1. guiding planes/plates
2. meshwork
3. any unit connecting any type of rest to major connector
90
A component of the RPD that transfers the forces against the prosthesis down the long axis of the abutment tooth:
Rest
91
The rest should transfer the forces against the prosthesis down the _____ of the abutment tooth
long axis
92
Prepared surface of a tooth/restoration to receive the rest:
rest seat
93
Component of RPD used to retain & Prevent dislodgment:
direct retainers
94
Portion of the direct retainer in which two arms are joined by a body which may connect to a rest:
Direct retainer - clasp assembly
95
Stabilizes the RPD against displacing forces away away from tissue in pure rotation around the fulcrum:
Indirect retainer
96
Usually connects to the major connector & is some form of rest:
indirect retainer
97
In what case is an indirect retainer necessary??
ALWAYS necessary in class I or II situations
98
Where should an indirect retainer be located?
perpendicular to fulcrum line, as far away as possible
99
Vertically parallel surfaces of abutment teeth:
guiding planes
100
Guiding planes are ____ surfaces of ___ teeth
vertical parallel; abutment
101
Why must guiding planes be created on teeth?
because flat planes don't exist
102
How do you determine guiding planes?
Tilting cast in anterior-posterior direction
103
Guide planes provide one:
path of placement/removal for RPD
104
Guide planes ensure ____ of RPD components
intended actions
105
Guide planes eliminate/decrease:
gross food traps
106
Guide planes increase the frictional component of:
the minor connectors
107
Lowers height of contour on proximal surfaces to allow better positioning of arms:
guide planes
108
When creating a guide plane, ______ should be reduced in size
large undercuts adjacent to proximal surface
109
When creating a guide plane, reduction can be accomplished by either ____ of the cast or ____ the enamel
alternating the tilt; selectively grinding
110
When altering the tilt of the cast to create a guide plane, cast tilt should not:
vary far from horizontal
111
Where does selective grinding most often occur when creating guide planes?
occlusal 1/3-1/2
112
Location of guide planes:
proximal surfaces of abutment teeth
113
Guide planes should be parallel to ____ if possible. (posterior molars will be tilted _____)
long axis of teeth; mesially
114
When creating guide planes its important to remembers that as length is increased:
retention is increased & resistance to rotation is increased
115
The width of the guide plane should be as wide as the:
widest portion of the occlusal rest
116
The width of the guide plane should be as wide as the widest portion of the occlusal rest:
___ buccal-lingual width of the tooth
____ distance between cusp tips
1/3 BL widths of tooth
1/2 distance between cusp tips
117
What should be the length of the guiding plane in tooth supported class III abutments?
3-4 mm
118
What should be the length of the guiding plane in tooth-tissue supported (class I or II) abutments (distal extension):
1.5-2 mm
119
Paralleling instrument used in RPD fabrication:
Dental surveyor
120
What is our brand of dental surveyor? what is another brand?
1. Ney
2. Jelenko
121
Components of a surveyor include: (6)
1. cast holder- (with surveying table)
2. surveying stand
3. vertical support post
4. horizontal arm
5. analyzing arm
6. mandrel for surveying tools
122
The surveying tools include: (4)
1. analyzing rod
2. carbon marker
3. carbon sheath
4. undergauges (0.01, 0.02. 0.03)
123
- survey diagnostic cast
- contour wax patterns
- contour ceramic & cast resotrations
- place attachments requiring parallelism
- survey master cast
These are all functions of:
dental surveyor
124
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
1. Determines most:
acceptable path of insertion
125
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
2. Identify ____ that can function as ____
proximal tooth surfaces; guiding planes
126
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
3. Locate and measure areas of teeth that may be used for:
retention
127
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
4. Determine if soft or bone areas of _____ (____) exist
interference; undercuts
128
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
5. Determine most suitable path of insertion to satisfy:
esthetics
129
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
6. ____ on abutment teeth
delineate height of contour
130
The objectives of the dental surveyor:
7. Record cast position to selected path of insertion (____)
Tripod cast
131
The path of insertion is determined based on: (4)
1. guiding planes
2. retentive undercut
3. interferences
4. esthetics
132
The greater the # of guiding planes =
the more specific path of insertion
133
The final orientation of guiding planes is seldom >
(greater than) 10-15 degrees from horizontal
134
When determining the path of insertion, the mechanical retention is provided by:
clasp that engages retentive undercut
135
The clasp that engages the retentive undercut (providing mechanical retention) resists:
RPD dislodging forces
136
What is the location of the retentive undercut?
lies between survey line & gingival margin
137
The retentive undercut is located by what device?
surveyor
138
T/F A distal undercut is the preferred retentive undercut
FALSE: FACIAL undercut is preferred
139
The retentive undercut is ideally within ______, at least _____
gingival 1/3; 1mm from gingival margin
140
The illusion of undercut due to excessive cast tilt:
false undercut
141
A false undercut: (2)
1. does not exist clinically
2. makes for an awkward path of insertion
142
List some interferences that may be seen when determining the path of insertion: (6)
1. lingually inclined mandibular teeth
2. Buccally inclined maxillary teeth
3. Bony tori
4. Height of contour too high
5. Clasp placement too high
6. Tissue undercut area of bar clasp
143
How can we locate & eliminate the interferences?
1. altering tilt of cast/changing path of insertion
2. maintaining cast tilt, eliminating by surgery or recontouring teeth
144
For the best esthetics when determining path of insertion:
Alter _____ cast tilt to allow for natural alignment of anterior teeth
mediolateral
145
For the best esthetics when determining path of insertion:
If inadequate space for natural tooth width, recontour ____ to restore lost dimension
proximal surfaces
146
T/F: For esthetic purposes when determining the path of insertion, we should tilt the cast medial-distal to allow for alignment of anterior teeth:
FALSE- you should alter the cast tilt mediolaterally
147
You should avoid exaggerated cast tilt to the path of insertion because the patient is:
unable to open mouth sufficient to accommodate
148
When marking the height of contour/survey line, the side of the ____ indicates survey line of abutment teeth at chosen path of insertion
carbon marker
149
The tip of the carbon marker will show you the:
incorrect survey line
150
ALL components of RPD except ____, lie above the survey line
terminal 1/3 of retentive clasp
151
The survey line is ideally at:
junction of middle & gingival 1/3
152
The proximal 2/3 of retentive clasp and the entire reciprocal clasp is located:
In middle 1/3, above the survey line
153
If the survey line is too high (occlusally), the clasp is too high on the tooth and this may cause: (2)
1. interference with occlusion
2. increased leverage on the tooth
154
If the survey line is too high (occlusally), what should you do to the survey line?
recontour the tooth to lower survey line
155
If survey line is too low, no ____ exist
undercut
156
If the survey line is too high, the ____ is too high on the tooth
If the survey line is too low, no ___ exist
clasp; undercut
157
If the survey line is too low, no undercut exists meaning : (2)
1. no clasp retention
2. can't use enameloplasy to change
158
If the survey line is too low, no undercuts exist. What does this require?
surveyed crown (basically you took too much tooth structure away and now the patient needs a crown)
159
How do you measure the retentive undercut?
measured with proper undercut gauge chosen at path of insertion
160
The amount of undercut varies depending on the:
clasp type
161
The amount of undercut varies on the clasp type.
CrCo= ____
Wrought wire= ____
CrCo= 0.010
Wrought wire= 0.02 or 0.03
162
Undercuts are marked with:
red pencil
163
How should you fix an inadequate undercut? (3)
1. enameloplasty
2. addition of composite
3. surveyed crown
164
When tripodizing the cast, record tilt of cast at:
chosen path of insertion
165
Tripodizing the cast ensures:
The lab tech can re-establish the path of insertion
166
How do you tripodize the cast?
marker touches 3 widely separate tissue surface areas and vertical lines are drawn parallel to analyzing rod on these points
167
Color code for RPD:
- metal framework outline
- wrought wire clasp
blue
168
Color code for RPD:
- retentive undercut
- tooth modification areas
- guiding planes
- survey line reposition
- rest seat areas
Red
169
Color code for RPD:
- Survey line
- Tripod marks
- Soft tissue undercuts
Black
170
The impression for the master cast is done:
after mouth preparation
171
When resurveying the master cast: (4)
1. align guiding planes
2. mark retentive undercuts
3. mark survey line
4. tripoidize the cast
172
RPD survey & design steps: (4)
1. Survey diagnostic cast
2. RPD design
3. Mouth preparations
4. Master cast
173
The RIGID extension of FPD/RPD
Rest
174
Prevents cervical movement of the RPD:
Rest
175
If the rest does not prevent cervical movement of the RPD, this can cause damaged to:
underlying soft & hard tissues (initially a sore spot but can then lead to bone loss of the abutment tooth)
176
What limits lateral movement of the RPD?
Rest
177
Maintains the retentive arm in proper vertical relation:
rest
178
The rest maintains the retentive arm in proper vertical relation and by doing this it stabilizes ____ and prevents ____.
occlusal forces & prevents gingival dislodgment
179
What are the 5 functions of a rest:
1. directs forces down the long axis of teeth
2. prevents cervical movement of RPD
3. limits lateral movement of RPD
4. maintains retentive arm in proper vertical relation
5. improves occlusal plane
180
1. Prevents cervical movement of RPD
2. Limits lateral movement of RPD
Rest
181
Portion of natural tooth/cast restoration prepared (for the rest)
rest seat
182
When preparing a rest seat, evaluate ___/____ relationships in both ___ & ___ movements
interocclusal/interincisal; static & excursive
183
Types of rests include: (5)
1. occlusal
2. embrasure
3. cingulum/lingual
4. hooded
5. incisal
184
Rest located on the mesial/distal pits of PM and molars:
Occlusal
185
Occlusal rests should be centered over the ____ whenever possible
marginal ridge
186
What type of teeth are occlusal rest seats narrower on?
pre molars
187
Describe the shape of an occlusal rest seat:
concave; saucer/spoon shaped
188
The base of the occlusal rest seat should be ____ over the ____
triangular; marginal ridge
189
Occlusal rest seat measurements:
____ B/L width
____ width between cusp tips
1/3 B/L width; 1/2 width between cusp tips
190
In an occlusal rest seat, what is the reduction over the marginal ridge? what is the reduction in the deepest area?
1.0-1.5 mm
1.5-2.0 mm
191
The floor of an occlusal rest seat should incline towards ____ , forming angle less than
axial center; 90 degrees
192
If a tooth is tilted, an occlusal rest seat can be ____ to ensure maximum bracing which redirects forces along the long axis of the abutment tooth
extended
193
What type of rest is on 2 adjacent posterior teeth?
embrasure
194
The form of an embrasure rest follows the form of:
an occlusal rest
195
In an embrasure rest, you should avoid eliminating:
the contact point
196
The "sluiceway" of an embrasure rest should be around _____ (____)
2mm wide; within embrasure
197
A "sluiceway" of an embrasure rest allows for:
1mm thickness of metal on each tooth
198
How wide should a "sluiceway" of an embrasure rest be? How deep should it be?
2mm wide; 1 mm deep
199
An embrasure rest should have a ___ shaped trough to accommodate clasp assembly
U-shaped
200
What type of rest should be prepared on canines with a gradual lingual slope? (maxillary canines specifically)
cingulum/lingual
201
Although cingulum/lingual rests should be prepared on canines (specifically maxillary canines) with a gradual lingual slope, they can be prepared on:
any anterior tooth in cast restoration
202
For a maxillary cingulum/lingual rest, how do you accomplish?
For a mandibular cingulum/rest, how d you accomplish?
cut into enamel
use composite resin
203
How wide should the floor be in a cingulum/lingual rest? Where should it extend?
1mm wide; marginal ridge to marginal ridge
204
From an incisal view, a cingulum/lingual rest is what shape?
crescent shaped with widest point at center
205
From a lingual view, a cingulum/lingual rest is what shape?
Inverted V
206
Rests on inclined surfaces displaces teeth and destroys bone which is why we use a ____ rest.
cingulum
207
A hooded rest is ONLY used for:
mandibular 1st premolar
208
A hooded rest decreases ____ by lowering ____
torque; lowering center of rotation
209
A hooded rest is ONLY used for mandibular 1s PM and only in Kennedy class:
I or II
210
Where does a hooded rest extend from? What is it part of?
extends from marginal ridge to marginal ridge; part of lingual plate
211
The least desirable type of rest:
incisal
212
Why is an incisal rest the least desirable? (3)
1. poor esthetics
2. occlusal interference
3. increased torquing forces
213
When discussing rests, do we want the torque to be increased or decreased?
decreased
214
Incisal rests (the least desirable rests) are used primarily on:
mandibular caninines
215
Incisal rests are usually used as:
indirect retainer
216
Describe the shape of an incisal rest:
small, V-shaped notch
217
What types of rests are most commonly used?
- occlusal
- embrasure
- cingulum
218
What is the MINIMUM reduction for rest seat preparation?
1 mm
219
A 1 mm minimum reduction for rest seat preparation allows for:
adequate thickness of metal
220
If the rest seat preparation is not at least 1 mm this is considered inadequate thickness which may result in:
rest fracture
221
What phase of patient treatment is being described?
- Relieve pain & infection
- Diagnostic cast & mounting
- Tx plan- design RPD
- Educate & motivate patient
- Occlusal equilibration
Phase 1
222
What phase of patient treatment is being described?
- Remove deep caries & temporary restorations (disease control)
- Extract non-retainable teeth
- Preprosthetic surgery (tori reduction etc.)
- Periodontal treatment & plaque control
- Interi proshtesis- functional & esthetic
- Occlusal equilibration
Phase 2
223
What phase of patient treatment is being described?
- Definitive endo tx
- Definitive restorative tx- surveyed crowns, amalgams, composite, FPD
- Occlusal plane correction
- Enameloplasty for RPD
Phase 3
224
What phase of patient treatment does "enameloplasty for RPD" occur in?
Phase 3
225
What is involved in both phase 1 & 2 of patient treatment?
Occlusal equilibration
226
In what phase of patient treatment does construction of the RPD occur in?
Phase 4
227
What phase of patient treatment is being described?
- Post-insertion care
- Periodic recall
- Continued plaque control (hygiene!!!)
Phase 5
228
Preliminary design of RPD with tooth modification areas marked:
diagnostic casts
229
- Perform tooth modifications according to RPD design
- Use QA worksheet
These steps are involved in:
mouth preparation
230
Steps of enameloplasty (5):
1. Develop guiding planes
2. Enlarge embrasure for minor connectors
3. Lower height of contour
4. Create undercut if needed
5. Prepare rest seats
231
When developing guide planes during an enameloplasty:
The proximal guide plane should be adjacent to:
edentulous area
232
When developing guide planes during an enameloplasty:
ML contains:
Lingual contains:
stress release clasps; reciprocal clasps
233
During an enameloplasty, you should _____ for minor connectors
enlarge embrasure
234
When lowering the height of control in an enameloplasty, what components are involved?
1. proximal 2/3 circumferential retentive clasp
2. reciprocal clasp
3. lingual guide plate
235
After doing the enameloplasty, you should:
make additional impression & survey interim casts to confirm that the preps are parallel to the path of insertion
236
If there is an insufficient undercut, what surface should be sloped when performing the enameloplasty?
buccal
237
When creating an undercut during an enameloplasty, what bur should be used?
round-end tapered diamond bur
238
What is another name for lingual rest seat?
chevron
239
What types of rest seats are most common?
Occlusal & lingual
240
When preparing rest seats, you need at least ___ of space, and this can be measured with ____
1mm; beading wax
241
Kennedy Class _____ & ____ : residual ridge not providing RPD support (tissue supported)
III & IV
242
In what Kennedy classes is the residual ridge IMPORTANT source of RPD support (tooth-tissue supported)?
Kennedy Class I & II
243
In what Kennedy classification is it more important to accurately record maximum tissue support areas (broad-stress distribution concept):
Kennedy Class I & II
244
In what Kennedy classification is the occlusal pressure concentrated on the distal end of the base?
Kennedy Class I & II
245
In an extension RPD impression, equalize support from:
tissue & teeth
246
In an extension RPD impression, a ___ should be used with elastomeric material that is ____
custom tray; border molded
247
What type of impress is most commonly used?
1 step impression
248
What impression technique is considered "very complicated"?
Corrected/Altered cast technique- 2 step impression (alternate technique)
249
The major connector can be described as:
RIGID
250
The major connector should function as:
1 unit
251
- Broad stress distribution
- Counter- arch stabilization
- Reduce torque
- Avoid tissue damage
These are all functions of:
major connector
252
The major connector should not enter______ and should avoid terminating on _____.
Should not enter undercut areas; free gingival margin, lingual frenum & movable soft palate
253
Maxillary major connector borders should be ____ to & _____ from the gingival margins
parallel to & 6mm
254
For a maxillary major connector, the anterior and posterior borders should:
cross midline at right angle
255
Maxillary major connector borders beaded ____ wide & deep
1mm
256
What are the types of suprabulge clasps?
1. circumferential
2. akers
3. circlet
257
What are the type of infrabulge bar clasps?
1. T
2. 1/2 T
3. I-bar
258
What type of infrabulge bar clasps are most common?
1/2 T and I-bar
259
What are the advantages of bar clasps?
1. more esthetic
2. more flexible
3. less conductive caries
4. wider range of undercut adaptability (I-bar)
