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Removable Partial Prosthodontics > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Tooth used to support prosthesis:

A

abutment

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2
Q

Residual bone & soft tissue covering that remains after tooth loss; part of support for certain types of RPDs

A

Residual (edentulous) ridge

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3
Q

RPD that depends entirely on natural teeth for support:

A

tooth-supported RPD

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4
Q

Also called extension based RPD:

A

Tooth-tissue supported RPD

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5
Q

RPD supported and retained by teeth at ONLY one end (also relies on tissue support)

A

Tooth-tissue supported RPD

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6
Q

In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, the denture base is supported by:

A

teeth and residual ridge

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7
Q

In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, discuss the goal of force distribution:

A

Least destructive forces are directed towards natural teeth (trying to preserve the remaining teeth)

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8
Q

Areas towards the posterior of the prosthesis are called:

A

distal extensions

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9
Q

Indications for RPD:

Edentulous area(s) are too:

A

long or numerous for a fixed prosthesis

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10
Q

Indications for RPD:

Need to restore lost _____, especially in the _____ region

A

soft & hard alveolar tissue; anterior

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11
Q

Indications for RPD:

Reduced ___ of remaining teeth

A

periodontal support

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12
Q

Indications for RPD:

Need to distribute ____ across the dental arch (= ______)

A

masticatory stresses; cross-arch stabilization

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13
Q

Indications for RPD:

No _____ tooth

A

posterior abutment

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14
Q

Indications for RPD:

Immediate:

A

replacement of teeth

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15
Q

Indications for RPD:

_____ & ____ of patient (____)

A

attitude and desires (economic desires)

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16
Q

Disadvantages of an RPD:

  1. Removable so not:
  2. May be:
  3. _____ may be visible, reducing ____
  4. May ____ during function
  5. May ___ while eating
A
  1. considered “part” of the patient
  2. lost or broken
  3. clasps; esthetics
  4. dislodge
  5. trap food
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17
Q

(T/F) A fixed prosthesis would be used over an RPD whenever it is not contra-indicated

A

true

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18
Q

Line encircling a tooth that designates its greatest diameter at a selection position determined by a dental surveryor:

A

height of contour/ survey line

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19
Q

How do you determine the height of contour of a tooth:

A

dental surveyor (survey line)

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20
Q

The height of contour will change if the ____ is changed

A

axial inclination

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21
Q

Portion of tooth ABOVE the height of contour:

A

Suprabulge areaT

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22
Q

T/F: The suprabuldge area is always concave towards the occlusal:

A

False: Its always CONVEX towards occlusal

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23
Q

Portion of tooth BELOW the height of contour:

A

Infrabulge area

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24
Q

The infrabulge area may also be referred to as the:

A

undercut

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25
Q

Surface of object below the height of contour in relation to the path of placement:

A

Undercut

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26
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. Preservation of ______ not _____
A
  1. that which remains and not the meticulous replacement of that which has been lost
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27
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. Eliminate:
A
  1. disease
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28
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. _____, ___, and ____ of health of remaining teeth
A
  1. Preservation, restoration, and maintenance
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29
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. _____ of lost teeth
A
  1. selected replacement
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30
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. Restoration of ___ and ___ in ____ manner
A
  1. function & comfort; esthetically pleasing
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31
Q
  • Why were the teeth lost?
  • Does patient have caries or perio diagnosis?
  • Has the patient has a previous unsuccessful RPD?

What part of the clinical examination do these questions relate to?

A

dental history

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32
Q
  • diabetes- reduced healing potential

What part of the clinical examination does this relate to?

A

medical history

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33
Q
  • Smoking
  • Excessive sugar intake

What part of the clinical examination does this relate to?

A

Habits

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34
Q

In a clinical examination, in addition to the dental history, medical history, and habits, we also need to consider if the patients:

A

desires/expectations are reasonable or not

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35
Q

Fill in the remaining portions of the clinical examination:

  1. dental history
  2. medical history
  3. habits
  4. patient desires/expectations
  5. 6.
    7.
A
  1. visual examination
  2. radiographic examination
  3. diagnostic casts
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36
Q

What are the 8 components to a visual examination?

A
  1. oral hygiene
  2. restorations
  3. caries
  4. periodontal assessment
  5. condition of soft tissue
  6. quality of residual ridge and hard tissue
  7. occlusion
  8. vertical space
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37
Q

Why is “oral hygiene a component” of the visual examination? (2)

A
  1. Good hygiene habits are necessary or decreased life of RPD
  2. The presence of an RPD can cause an increase in plaque
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38
Q

When completing the “restoration component” of the visual examination, what should we be looking for and why?

A

We should be looking at the condition of the existing restorations to determine if they need replaced prior to RPD (for adequate support of RPD)

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39
Q

When completing the “caries component” of the visual examination, what should we be looking for?

A

active disease

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40
Q

When completing the “periodontal assessment component” of the visual examination what five aspects are we looking for?

A
  1. probing depths in relation to CEJ
  2. attachment levels
  3. furcation involvement
  4. mucogingival problems
  5. tooth mobility
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41
Q

When assessing the periodontal component of the visual examination, if tooth mobility is noted, what also should be noted?

A

whether the mobility is biologic, iatrogenic or pathologic

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42
Q
  • location of junction of residual ridge and unattached tissue (no flabby soft tissue)
  • hypertrophied or hyperplastic tissue
  • need for tissue surgery
  • need for tissue conditioning

What component of the visual examination are these describing?

A

condition of soft tissue

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43
Q
  • displaceable fibrous tissue
  • tori
  • exostoses & undercuts
  • need for surgery?

What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?

A

quality of residual ridge and hard tissue

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44
Q
  • number of remaining teeth in occlusion
  • tooth wear
  • pathologic migration (medially-tipped teeth & intra-arch space issues)
  • over-erupted teeth (inter0arch space issues- occlusal plane)

What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?

A

occlusion

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45
Q

When examining inter-arch space issues (occlusal plane) we need a minimum of ___ space for material

A

4-5 mm

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46
Q
  • Is there enough space for treatment to be successful?
  • Thickness of materials: metal, denture base, teeth
  • Excessively large non-resorbed ridges
  • Over-erupted teeth

What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?

A

Vertical space

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47
Q

What radiographs should be taken prior to fabricating an RPD?

A
  1. full mouth PAs
  2. Vertical bitewings
  3. Pano
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48
Q

It is important to correlate the radiographic examination with the:

A

visual examination

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49
Q

How do we evaluate prospective abutment teeth and what are we looking for?

A

Radiographically; root length, size and form

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50
Q

Tooth with ____ or ___ roots are more favorable for abutment teeth

A

large or long roots

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51
Q

What is the most important factor to evaluate when looking at prospective abutment teeth radiographically?

A

Crown-root ratio

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52
Q

When looking at the crown-root ratio we are looking at:

A

The length of the clinical crown & amount of root embedded in bone

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53
Q

What is a must for crown-root ratio of an abutment tooth?

A

Need atleast half of root embedded in bone

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54
Q

If the crown root ratio is greater than 1:1, this results in:

A

poor prognosis

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55
Q

What are the three types of RPD framework?

A
  1. Cast metal
  2. Acrylic
  3. Flexible base
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56
Q

What is an advantage to cast metal RPD framework?

A

better force distribution

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57
Q

What metals are commonly used for cast metal RPD framework? What is used most at UMKC?

A

CoCr (used most at UMKC) & NiCr (many ppl have Ni allergy)

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58
Q

What is the trade name for the flexible base RPD framework?

A

Valplast

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59
Q

What are the two types of clasp assemblies and where are they located on the tooth?

A
  1. Retentive- buccal/facial side
  2. Reciprocal- lingual side
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60
Q

Prevent the RPD from going toward the gingiva when patient bites down:

A

Clasp assemblies (retentive & reciprocal)

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61
Q

States that it is ideal for the clasp assembly to wrap around more tooth surface:

A

principle of encirclement

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62
Q

Prosthodontics replaces ____ & ___ and can replace the palate with ___

A

teeth & oral tissues; obturator

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63
Q

Reproduction for demonstration (no accuracy implied)

A

model

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64
Q

Accurate positive reproduction of arch:

A

cast

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65
Q

Encircles tooth that designates its greatest diameter:

A

height of contour/ survey line

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66
Q

The height of contour will change if:

A

axial inclination is changed

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67
Q

Area ABOVE the height of contour:

A

suprabulge

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68
Q

Area BELOW the height of contour

A

infrabulge

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69
Q

The retentive undercut is located within what area?

A

infrabulge

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70
Q

Only ____ contact the tooth below the survey line:

A

clasp tips

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71
Q

Only clasp tips contact the tooth:

A

below the survey line

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72
Q

Depends entirely on the natural teeth for support:

A

Tooth-supported RPD

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73
Q

What Kennedy class is associated with a tooth-supported RPD?

A

Class III

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74
Q

Extension-base RPD:

A

Tooth-tissue supported RPD

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75
Q

RPD supported and retained by teeth at only one end:

A

Tooth-tissue supported RPD

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76
Q

What Kennedy class is associated with a tooth-tissue supported RPD?

A

Class I or II

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77
Q

In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, the denture base is supported by:

A

teeth and residual ridge

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78
Q

When fabricating a tooth-tissue supported RPD, it is better to have forces distributed on ___ than on ___

A

Teeth; soft tissue

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79
Q

Edentulous area other than thought deterring the classification:

A

modification space

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80
Q

In applegates rules, no modifications exist in ____ arches (because this would make it a class ___)

A

Class IV; Class III

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81
Q

The objectives of removable partial dentures include (hint: 3 restores, provide, improve, splint)

A
  1. restore anatomical defect
  2. restore function
  3. restore occlusal plane
  4. provide posterior occlusal support
  5. improve esthetics
  6. splint periodontally compromised teeth
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82
Q

The metal framework of an RPD includes:

A
  1. major connector
  2. minor connector
  3. rest
  4. direct retainers
  5. indirect retainers
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83
Q

Joins units on opposite sides of the arch:

A

major connector

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84
Q

List 3 functions of the major connector:

A
  1. stress distribution (teeth & soft tissue)
  2. unification (partial denture acts as one unit)
  3. cross-arch stabilization (counterleverage)
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85
Q

What are the 4 types of maxillary major connectors?

A
  1. Palatal strap
  2. AP palatal strap
  3. Complete palate
  4. U-shaped (horseshoe) connector
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86
Q

What are the types of mandibular major connectors? (2)

A
  1. lingual bar
  2. lingual plate
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87
Q

A RIGID extension from major connector or base that contacts the proximal surface of abutment tooth:

A

proximal plate

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88
Q

The connecting link between major connector/base & other units (retainers & rests):

A

minor connector

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89
Q

Describe the 3 types of minor connectors:

A
  1. guiding planes/plates
  2. meshwork
  3. any unit connecting any type of rest to major connector
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90
Q

A component of the RPD that transfers the forces against the prosthesis down the long axis of the abutment tooth:

A

Rest

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91
Q

The rest should transfer the forces against the prosthesis down the _____ of the abutment tooth

A

long axis

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92
Q

Prepared surface of a tooth/restoration to receive the rest:

A

rest seat

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93
Q

Component of RPD used to retain & Prevent dislodgment:

A

direct retainers

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94
Q

Portion of the direct retainer in which two arms are joined by a body which may connect to a rest:

A

Direct retainer - clasp assembly

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95
Q

Stabilizes the RPD against displacing forces away away from tissue in pure rotation around the fulcrum:

A

Indirect retainer

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96
Q

Usually connects to the major connector & is some form of rest:

A

indirect retainer

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97
Q

In what case is an indirect retainer necessary??

A

ALWAYS necessary in class I or II situations

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98
Q

Where should an indirect retainer be located?

A

perpendicular to fulcrum line, as far away as possible

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99
Q

Vertically parallel surfaces of abutment teeth:

A

guiding planes

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100
Q

Guiding planes are ____ surfaces of ___ teeth

A

vertical parallel; abutment

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101
Q

Why must guiding planes be created on teeth?

A

because flat planes don’t exist

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102
Q

How do you determine guiding planes?

A

Tilting cast in anterior-posterior direction

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103
Q

Guide planes provide one:

A

path of placement/removal for RPD

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104
Q

Guide planes ensure ____ of RPD components

A

intended actions

105
Q

Guide planes eliminate/decrease:

A

gross food traps

106
Q

Guide planes increase the frictional component of:

A

the minor connectors

107
Q

Lowers height of contour on proximal surfaces to allow better positioning of arms:

A

guide planes

108
Q

When creating a guide plane, ______ should be reduced in size

A

large undercuts adjacent to proximal surface

109
Q

When creating a guide plane, reduction can be accomplished by either ____ of the cast or ____ the enamel

A

alternating the tilt; selectively grinding

110
Q

When altering the tilt of the cast to create a guide plane, cast tilt should not:

A

vary far from horizontal

111
Q

Where does selective grinding most often occur when creating guide planes?

A

occlusal 1/3-1/2

112
Q

Location of guide planes:

A

proximal surfaces of abutment teeth

113
Q

Guide planes should be parallel to ____ if possible. (posterior molars will be tilted _____)

A

long axis of teeth; mesially

114
Q

When creating guide planes its important to remembers that as length is increased:

A

retention is increased & resistance to rotation is increased

115
Q

The width of the guide plane should be as wide as the:

A

widest portion of the occlusal rest

116
Q

The width of the guide plane should be as wide as the widest portion of the occlusal rest:

___ buccal-lingual width of the tooth

____ distance between cusp tips

A

1/3 BL widths of tooth

1/2 distance between cusp tips

117
Q

What should be the length of the guiding plane in tooth supported class III abutments?

118
Q

What should be the length of the guiding plane in tooth-tissue supported (class I or II) abutments (distal extension):

119
Q

Paralleling instrument used in RPD fabrication:

A

Dental surveyor

120
Q

What is our brand of dental surveyor? what is another brand?

A
  1. Ney
  2. Jelenko
121
Q

Components of a surveyor include: (6)

A
  1. cast holder- (with surveying table)
  2. surveying stand
  3. vertical support post
  4. horizontal arm
  5. analyzing arm
  6. mandrel for surveying tools
122
Q

The surveying tools include: (4)

A
  1. analyzing rod
  2. carbon marker
  3. carbon sheath
  4. undergauges (0.01, 0.02. 0.03)
123
Q
  • survey diagnostic cast
  • contour wax patterns
  • contour ceramic & cast resotrations
  • place attachments requiring parallelism
  • survey master cast

These are all functions of:

A

dental surveyor

124
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. Determines most:
A

acceptable path of insertion

125
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. Identify ____ that can function as ____
A

proximal tooth surfaces; guiding planes

126
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. Locate and measure areas of teeth that may be used for:
127
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. Determine if soft or bone areas of _____ (____) exist
A

interference; undercuts

128
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. Determine most suitable path of insertion to satisfy:
129
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. ____ on abutment teeth
A

delineate height of contour

130
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. Record cast position to selected path of insertion (____)
A

Tripod cast

131
Q

The path of insertion is determined based on: (4)

A
  1. guiding planes
  2. retentive undercut
  3. interferences
  4. esthetics
132
Q

The greater the # of guiding planes =

A

the more specific path of insertion

133
Q

The final orientation of guiding planes is seldom >

A

(greater than) 10-15 degrees from horizontal

134
Q

When determining the path of insertion, the mechanical retention is provided by:

A

clasp that engages retentive undercut

135
Q

The clasp that engages the retentive undercut (providing mechanical retention) resists:

A

RPD dislodging forces

136
Q

What is the location of the retentive undercut?

A

lies between survey line & gingival margin

137
Q

The retentive undercut is located by what device?

138
Q

T/F A distal undercut is the preferred retentive undercut

A

FALSE: FACIAL undercut is preferred

139
Q

The retentive undercut is ideally within ______, at least _____

A

gingival 1/3; 1mm from gingival margin

140
Q

The illusion of undercut due to excessive cast tilt:

A

false undercut

141
Q

A false undercut: (2)

A
  1. does not exist clinically
  2. makes for an awkward path of insertion
142
Q

List some interferences that may be seen when determining the path of insertion: (6)

A
  1. lingually inclined mandibular teeth
  2. Buccally inclined maxillary teeth
  3. Bony tori
  4. Height of contour too high
  5. Clasp placement too high
  6. Tissue undercut area of bar clasp
143
Q

How can we locate & eliminate the interferences?

A
  1. altering tilt of cast/changing path of insertion
  2. maintaining cast tilt, eliminating by surgery or recontouring teeth
144
Q

For the best esthetics when determining path of insertion:

Alter _____ cast tilt to allow for natural alignment of anterior teeth

A

mediolateral

145
Q

For the best esthetics when determining path of insertion:

If inadequate space for natural tooth width, recontour ____ to restore lost dimension

A

proximal surfaces

146
Q

T/F: For esthetic purposes when determining the path of insertion, we should tilt the cast medial-distal to allow for alignment of anterior teeth:

A

FALSE- you should alter the cast tilt mediolaterally

147
Q

You should avoid exaggerated cast tilt to the path of insertion because the patient is:

A

unable to open mouth sufficient to accommodate

148
Q

When marking the height of contour/survey line, the side of the ____ indicates survey line of abutment teeth at chosen path of insertion

A

carbon marker

149
Q

The tip of the carbon marker will show you the:

A

incorrect survey line

150
Q

ALL components of RPD except ____, lie above the survey line

A

terminal 1/3 of retentive clasp

151
Q

The survey line is ideally at:

A

junction of middle & gingival 1/3

152
Q

The proximal 2/3 of retentive clasp and the entire reciprocal clasp is located:

A

In middle 1/3, above the survey line

153
Q

If the survey line is too high (occlusally), the clasp is too high on the tooth and this may cause: (2)

A
  1. interference with occlusion
  2. increased leverage on the tooth
154
Q

If the survey line is too high (occlusally), what should you do to the survey line?

A

recontour the tooth to lower survey line

155
Q

If survey line is too low, no ____ exist

156
Q

If the survey line is too high, the ____ is too high on the tooth

If the survey line is too low, no ___ exist

A

clasp; undercut

157
Q

If the survey line is too low, no undercut exists meaning : (2)

A
  1. no clasp retention
  2. can’t use enameloplasy to change
158
Q

If the survey line is too low, no undercuts exist. What does this require?

A

surveyed crown (basically you took too much tooth structure away and now the patient needs a crown)

159
Q

How do you measure the retentive undercut?

A

measured with proper undercut gauge chosen at path of insertion

160
Q

The amount of undercut varies depending on the:

A

clasp type

161
Q

The amount of undercut varies on the clasp type.

CrCo= ____
Wrought wire= ____

A

CrCo= 0.010

Wrought wire= 0.02 or 0.03

162
Q

Undercuts are marked with:

A

red pencil

163
Q

How should you fix an inadequate undercut? (3)

A
  1. enameloplasty
  2. addition of composite
  3. surveyed crown
164
Q

When tripodizing the cast, record tilt of cast at:

A

chosen path of insertion

165
Q

Tripodizing the cast ensures:

A

The lab tech can re-establish the path of insertion

166
Q

How do you tripodize the cast?

A

marker touches 3 widely separate tissue surface areas and vertical lines are drawn parallel to analyzing rod on these points

167
Q

Color code for RPD:

  • metal framework outline
  • wrought wire clasp
168
Q

Color code for RPD:

  • retentive undercut
  • tooth modification areas
  • guiding planes
  • survey line reposition
  • rest seat areas
169
Q

Color code for RPD:

  • Survey line
  • Tripod marks
  • Soft tissue undercuts
170
Q

The impression for the master cast is done:

A

after mouth preparation

171
Q

When resurveying the master cast: (4)

A
  1. align guiding planes
  2. mark retentive undercuts
  3. mark survey line
  4. tripoidize the cast
172
Q

RPD survey & design steps: (4)

A
  1. Survey diagnostic cast
  2. RPD design
  3. Mouth preparations
  4. Master cast
173
Q

The RIGID extension of FPD/RPD

174
Q

Prevents cervical movement of the RPD:

175
Q

If the rest does not prevent cervical movement of the RPD, this can cause damaged to:

A

underlying soft & hard tissues (initially a sore spot but can then lead to bone loss of the abutment tooth)

176
Q

What limits lateral movement of the RPD?

177
Q

Maintains the retentive arm in proper vertical relation:

178
Q

The rest maintains the retentive arm in proper vertical relation and by doing this it stabilizes ____ and prevents ____.

A

occlusal forces & prevents gingival dislodgment

179
Q

What are the 5 functions of a rest:

A
  1. directs forces down the long axis of teeth
  2. prevents cervical movement of RPD
  3. limits lateral movement of RPD
  4. maintains retentive arm in proper vertical relation
  5. improves occlusal plane
180
Q
  1. Prevents cervical movement of RPD
  2. Limits lateral movement of RPD
181
Q

Portion of natural tooth/cast restoration prepared (for the rest)

182
Q

When preparing a rest seat, evaluate ___/____ relationships in both ___ & ___ movements

A

interocclusal/interincisal; static & excursive

183
Q

Types of rests include: (5)

A
  1. occlusal
  2. embrasure
  3. cingulum/lingual
  4. hooded
  5. incisal
184
Q

Rest located on the mesial/distal pits of PM and molars:

185
Q

Occlusal rests should be centered over the ____ whenever possible

A

marginal ridge

186
Q

What type of teeth are occlusal rest seats narrower on?

A

pre molars

187
Q

Describe the shape of an occlusal rest seat:

A

concave; saucer/spoon shaped

188
Q

The base of the occlusal rest seat should be ____ over the ____

A

triangular; marginal ridge

189
Q

Occlusal rest seat measurements:

____ B/L width
____ width between cusp tips

A

1/3 B/L width; 1/2 width between cusp tips

190
Q

In an occlusal rest seat, what is the reduction over the marginal ridge? what is the reduction in the deepest area?

A

1.0-1.5 mm

1.5-2.0 mm

191
Q

The floor of an occlusal rest seat should incline towards ____ , forming angle less than

A

axial center; 90 degrees

192
Q

If a tooth is tilted, an occlusal rest seat can be ____ to ensure maximum bracing which redirects forces along the long axis of the abutment tooth

193
Q

What type of rest is on 2 adjacent posterior teeth?

194
Q

The form of an embrasure rest follows the form of:

A

an occlusal rest

195
Q

In an embrasure rest, you should avoid eliminating:

A

the contact point

196
Q

The “sluiceway” of an embrasure rest should be around _____ (____)

A

2mm wide; within embrasure

197
Q

A “sluiceway” of an embrasure rest allows for:

A

1mm thickness of metal on each tooth

198
Q

How wide should a “sluiceway” of an embrasure rest be? How deep should it be?

A

2mm wide; 1 mm deep

199
Q

An embrasure rest should have a ___ shaped trough to accommodate clasp assembly

200
Q

What type of rest should be prepared on canines with a gradual lingual slope? (maxillary canines specifically)

A

cingulum/lingual

201
Q

Although cingulum/lingual rests should be prepared on canines (specifically maxillary canines) with a gradual lingual slope, they can be prepared on:

A

any anterior tooth in cast restoration

202
Q

For a maxillary cingulum/lingual rest, how do you accomplish?

For a mandibular cingulum/rest, how d you accomplish?

A

cut into enamel

use composite resin

203
Q

How wide should the floor be in a cingulum/lingual rest? Where should it extend?

A

1mm wide; marginal ridge to marginal ridge

204
Q

From an incisal view, a cingulum/lingual rest is what shape?

A

crescent shaped with widest point at center

205
Q

From a lingual view, a cingulum/lingual rest is what shape?

A

Inverted V

206
Q

Rests on inclined surfaces displaces teeth and destroys bone which is why we use a ____ rest.

207
Q

A hooded rest is ONLY used for:

A

mandibular 1st premolar

208
Q

A hooded rest decreases ____ by lowering ____

A

torque; lowering center of rotation

209
Q

A hooded rest is ONLY used for mandibular 1s PM and only in Kennedy class:

210
Q

Where does a hooded rest extend from? What is it part of?

A

extends from marginal ridge to marginal ridge; part of lingual plate

211
Q

The least desirable type of rest:

212
Q

Why is an incisal rest the least desirable? (3)

A
  1. poor esthetics
  2. occlusal interference
  3. increased torquing forces
213
Q

When discussing rests, do we want the torque to be increased or decreased?

214
Q

Incisal rests (the least desirable rests) are used primarily on:

A

mandibular caninines

215
Q

Incisal rests are usually used as:

A

indirect retainer

216
Q

Describe the shape of an incisal rest:

A

small, V-shaped notch

217
Q

What types of rests are most commonly used?

A
  • occlusal
  • embrasure
  • cingulum
218
Q

What is the MINIMUM reduction for rest seat preparation?

219
Q

A 1 mm minimum reduction for rest seat preparation allows for:

A

adequate thickness of metal

220
Q

If the rest seat preparation is not at least 1 mm this is considered inadequate thickness which may result in:

A

rest fracture

221
Q

What phase of patient treatment is being described?

  • Relieve pain & infection
  • Diagnostic cast & mounting
  • Tx plan- design RPD
  • Educate & motivate patient
  • Occlusal equilibration
222
Q

What phase of patient treatment is being described?

  • Remove deep caries & temporary restorations (disease control)
  • Extract non-retainable teeth
  • Preprosthetic surgery (tori reduction etc.)
  • Periodontal treatment & plaque control
  • Interi proshtesis- functional & esthetic
  • Occlusal equilibration
223
Q

What phase of patient treatment is being described?

  • Definitive endo tx
  • Definitive restorative tx- surveyed crowns, amalgams, composite, FPD
  • Occlusal plane correction
  • Enameloplasty for RPD
224
Q

What phase of patient treatment does “enameloplasty for RPD” occur in?

225
Q

What is involved in both phase 1 & 2 of patient treatment?

A

Occlusal equilibration

226
Q

In what phase of patient treatment does construction of the RPD occur in?

227
Q

What phase of patient treatment is being described?

  • Post-insertion care
  • Periodic recall
  • Continued plaque control (hygiene!!!)
228
Q

Preliminary design of RPD with tooth modification areas marked:

A

diagnostic casts

229
Q
  • Perform tooth modifications according to RPD design
  • Use QA worksheet

These steps are involved in:

A

mouth preparation

230
Q

Steps of enameloplasty (5):

A
  1. Develop guiding planes
  2. Enlarge embrasure for minor connectors
  3. Lower height of contour
  4. Create undercut if needed
  5. Prepare rest seats
231
Q

When developing guide planes during an enameloplasty:

The proximal guide plane should be adjacent to:

A

edentulous area

232
Q

When developing guide planes during an enameloplasty:

ML contains:

Lingual contains:

A

stress release clasps; reciprocal clasps

233
Q

During an enameloplasty, you should _____ for minor connectors

A

enlarge embrasure

234
Q

When lowering the height of control in an enameloplasty, what components are involved?

A
  1. proximal 2/3 circumferential retentive clasp
  2. reciprocal clasp
  3. lingual guide plate
235
Q

After doing the enameloplasty, you should:

A

make additional impression & survey interim casts to confirm that the preps are parallel to the path of insertion

236
Q

If there is an insufficient undercut, what surface should be sloped when performing the enameloplasty?

237
Q

When creating an undercut during an enameloplasty, what bur should be used?

A

round-end tapered diamond bur

238
Q

What is another name for lingual rest seat?

239
Q

What types of rest seats are most common?

A

Occlusal & lingual

240
Q

When preparing rest seats, you need at least ___ of space, and this can be measured with ____

A

1mm; beading wax

241
Q

Kennedy Class _____ & ____ : residual ridge not providing RPD support (tissue supported)

242
Q

In what Kennedy classes is the residual ridge IMPORTANT source of RPD support (tooth-tissue supported)?

A

Kennedy Class I & II

243
Q

In what Kennedy classification is it more important to accurately record maximum tissue support areas (broad-stress distribution concept):

A

Kennedy Class I & II

244
Q

In what Kennedy classification is the occlusal pressure concentrated on the distal end of the base?

A

Kennedy Class I & II

245
Q

In an extension RPD impression, equalize support from:

A

tissue & teeth

246
Q

In an extension RPD impression, a ___ should be used with elastomeric material that is ____

A

custom tray; border molded

247
Q

What type of impress is most commonly used?

A

1 step impression

248
Q

What impression technique is considered “very complicated”?

A

Corrected/Altered cast technique- 2 step impression (alternate technique)

249
Q

The major connector can be described as:

250
Q

The major connector should function as:

251
Q
  • Broad stress distribution
  • Counter- arch stabilization
  • Reduce torque
  • Avoid tissue damage

These are all functions of:

A

major connector

252
Q

The major connector should not enter______ and should avoid terminating on _____.

A

Should not enter undercut areas; free gingival margin, lingual frenum & movable soft palate

253
Q

Maxillary major connector borders should be ____ to & _____ from the gingival margins

A

parallel to & 6mm

254
Q

For a maxillary major connector, the anterior and posterior borders should:

A

cross midline at right angle

255
Q

Maxillary major connector borders beaded ____ wide & deep

256
Q

What are the types of suprabulge clasps?

A
  1. circumferential
  2. akers
  3. circlet
257
Q

What are the type of infrabulge bar clasps?

A
  1. T
  2. 1/2 T
  3. I-bar
258
Q

What type of infrabulge bar clasps are most common?

A

1/2 T and I-bar

259
Q

What are the advantages of bar clasps?

A
  1. more esthetic
  2. more flexible
  3. less conductive caries
  4. wider range of undercut adaptability (I-bar)

Removable Partial Prosthodontics (12 decks)

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