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Removable Partial Prosthodontics > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

tooth used to support prosthesis:

A

abutment

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2
Q

Residual bone and soft tissue covering that remains after tooth loss; part of support for certain types of RPDs

A

Residual (edentulous) ridge

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3
Q

RPD that depends entirely on natural teeth for support:

A

Tooth-supported RPD

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4
Q

Also called extension base RPD:

A

Tooth-tissue supported RPD

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5
Q

RPD supported and retained by teeth at ONLY one end:

(also relies on tissues for support)

A

Tooth-tissue supported RPD

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6
Q

In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, the denture base is supported by:

A

Teeth and residual ridge

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7
Q

In tooth-tissue supported RPD, discuss the goal of force distribution:

A

Least destructive forces are directed towards natural teeth (trying to preserve the remaining teeth)

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8
Q

Areas towards the posterior of the prosthesis are called:

A

Distal extensions

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9
Q

Indications for RPD:

Endentulous area(s) are too:

A

long or numerous for a fixed prosthesis

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10
Q

Indications for RPD:

Need to restore lost _____, especially in the _____ region

A

soft & hard alveolar tissue; anterior

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11
Q

Indications for RPD:

Reduced _______ of remaining teeth

A

periodontal support

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12
Q

Indications for RPD:

Need to distribute ____ across the dental arch (= ______)

A

masticatory stresses; cross-arch stabilization

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13
Q

Indications for RPD:

No _______ tooth

A

posterior abutment

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14
Q

Indications for RPD:

Immediate:

A

replacement of teeth

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15
Q

Indications for RPD:

_____ and ____ of patient (______)

A

attitude; desires; (economic considerations)

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16
Q

Disadvantages of and RPD:

  1. Removable, so not:
  2. May be:
  3. ______ may be visible, reducing ____
  4. may _____ during function
  5. may _____ while eating
A
  1. considered “part” of the patient
  2. lost or broken
  3. clasps; esthetics
  4. dislodge
  5. trap food
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17
Q

(True/False) : A fixed prosthesis should be used over an RPD when it is not contraindicated

A

True

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18
Q

Line encircling a tooth that designates its greater diameter at a selected position determined by a dental surveyor:

A

Height of contour/ survey line

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19
Q

How do you determine the height of contour of a tooth?

A

Dental surveyor (survey line)

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20
Q

The height of contour will change if the _____ is changed

A

axial inclination

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21
Q

Portion of tooth ABOVE the height of contour:

A

Suprabuldge area

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22
Q

(True/False): The suprabulge area is always concave toward the occlusal

A

FALSE: its always CONVEX to the occlusal

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23
Q

Portion of tooth BELOW the height of contour:

A

Infrabulge area

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24
Q

The infrabulge area may also be referred to as the:

A

undercut

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25
Q

Surface of object below the height of contour in relation to the path of placement:

A

undercut

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26
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. Preservation of _____ not _____
A
  1. that which remains and not the meticulous replacement of that which has been lost
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27
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. Eliminate _____
A
  1. Disease
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28
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. ______, ______ and _____ of health of remaining teeth
A
  1. Preservation, restoration, and maintenance
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29
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. ______ of lost teeth
A
  1. selected replacement
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30
Q

What is the objective of prosthodontic treatment?

  1. Restoration of ______ and ______ in _____ manner
A
  1. function and comfort; esthetically pleasing
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31
Q

-Why were the teeth lost?

-Does patient have caries or perio diagnosis?

-Has the patient had a previous unsuccessful RPD?

What part of the clinical examination do these questions relate to?

A

Dental history

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32
Q

-Diabetes: reduced healing potential

What part of the clinical examination does this relate to?

A

Medical history

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33
Q

-Smoking
-Excessive sugar intake

What part of the clinical examination does these relate to?

A

Habits

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34
Q

In a clinical examination, in addition to the dental history, medical history and habits, we also need to consider if the patients:

A

Desires/expectations are reasonable or not

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35
Q

Fill in the remaining portions of the clinical examination

  1. Dental history
  2. Medical history
  3. Habits
  4. Patient desires/expectations
  6. 7.
A
  1. visual examination
  2. radiographic examination
  3. diagnostic casts
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36
Q

What are the eight components to a visual examination?

A
  1. Oral hygiene
  2. Restorations
  3. Caries
  4. Periodontal assessment
  5. Condition of soft tissue
  6. Quality of residual ridge and hard tissue
  7. Occlusion
  8. Vertical space
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37
Q

Why is “oral hygiene” a component of the visual examination? (2)

A
  1. Good hygiene habits are necessary or decreased life of RPD
  2. Presence of RPD, cause increase of plaque
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38
Q

When completing the “restoration”component of the visual examination what should be looking for and why?

A

We should be looking at the condition of existing restorations to determine if they need to be replaced prior to the RPD (for adequate support of RPD)

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39
Q

When completing the “caries” component of the visual examination, what should we be looking for?

A

active disease

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40
Q

When completing the “periodontal assessment” component of the visual examination, what five aspects are we looking for?

A
  1. probing depths in relation to CEJ
  2. attachment level
  3. furcation involvement
  4. mucogingival problems
  5. tooth mobility
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41
Q

When assessing the periodontal component of the visual examination, if tooth mobility is noted, what else should be noted?

A

Whether the mobility is biologic, iatrogenic or pathologic

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42
Q

-Location of junction of residual ridge and unattached tissue (no flabby soft tissue)
-hypertrophied or hyperplastic tissue
-need for tissue surgery
-need for tissue conditioning

What component of the visual examination are these describing?

A

Condition of soft tissue

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43
Q

-Displaceable fibrous tissue
-Tori
-Exostoses & undercuts
-Need for surgery

What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?

A

Quality of residual ridge and hard tissue

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44
Q

-Number of remaining teeth in occlusal
-Tooth wear
-Pathologic migration (mesially-tipped teeth and intra-arch space issues)
-Over-erupted teeth (inter-arch space issues- occlusal plane)

What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?

A

Occlusion

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45
Q

When examining inter-arch space issues (occlusal plan), we need a minimum of _____ space for material

A

4-5mm

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46
Q

-Is there enough space for treatment to be successful?
-Thickness of materials: metal, denture base, teeth
-Excessively large non-resorbed ridges
-Over-erupted teeth

What component of the visual examination are these evaluated in?

A

Vertical space

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47
Q

What radiographs should be taken prior to fabrication of RPD?

A
  1. Full mouth PAs
  2. Vertical bitewings
  3. Pano
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48
Q

It is important to correlate the radiographic examination with the:

A

Visual examination

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49
Q

How do we evaluate prospective abutment teeth and what are we looking for?

A

Radiographically; root length, size and form

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50
Q

Teeth with _____ or _____ roots are more favorable for abutment teeth

A

large or long roots

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51
Q

What is the most important factor to evaluate when looking at prospective abutment teeth radiographically:

A

the crown-root ratio

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52
Q

When looking at the crown-root ratio, we are looking at:

A

The length of the clinical crown and amount of root embedded in bone

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53
Q

What is a must for crown root ratio of a prospective abutment tooth?

A

Need at least half of root embedded in bone

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54
Q

If the crown root ratio is greater than 1:1, this results in

A

Poor prognosis

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55
Q

What are the three types of RPD framework?

A
  1. Cast-metal
  2. acrylic
  3. flexible base
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56
Q

What is an advantage to cast-metal RPD framework?

A

Better force distribution

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57
Q

What metals are commonly used for cast-metal RPD framwork? What is used most at UMKC?

A

CoCr (used most at UMKC) & NiCr

(many people have Ni allergy)

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58
Q

What is the trade name for the flexible base RPD framework?

A

Valplast

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59
Q

What are the two types of clasp assemblies and where are they located on the tooth?

A
  1. retentive- buccal/facial side
  2. reciprocal- lingual side
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60
Q

Prevent the RPD from going towards the gingiva when patient bites down:

A

Clasp assemblies (retentive & reciprocal)

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61
Q

States its ideal for the clasp to wrap around more tooth surface:

A

Principle of encirlement

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62
Q

Prosthodontics replaces ________ and ____ and can replace the palate with _____

A

Teeth and oral tissues; obturator

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63
Q

Reproduction for demonstration (no accuracy implied)

A

model

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64
Q

Accurate, positive reproduction of arch:

A

Cast

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65
Q

Encircles tooth and designates its greatest diameter:

A

Height of contour/survey line

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66
Q

The height of contour will change if _____ is changed

A

axial inclination

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67
Q

Area ABOVE the height of contour:

A

Suprabulge

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68
Q

Area BELOW the height of contour:

A

Infrabulge

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69
Q

The retentive undercut is located within what area?

A

Infrabulge

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70
Q

Only ______ contact the tooth below the survey line

A

Clasps tips

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71
Q

Only clasp tips contact the tooth:

A

Below the survey line

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72
Q

Depends entirely on the natural teeth for support:

A

Tooth-supported RPD

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73
Q

What Kennedy class is associated with a tooth-supported RPD?

A

Class III

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74
Q

Extension base RPD:

A

Tooth-tissue supported RPD

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75
Q

RPD supported and retained by teeth at only one end:

A

Tooth-tissue supported RPD

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76
Q

What Kennedy class is assofcatiaed with a tooth-tissue supported RPD:

A

Class I or II

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77
Q

In a tooth-tissue supported RPD, the denture base is supported by:

A

Teeth & residual ridge

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78
Q

When fabricating a tooth-tissue supported RPD, it is better to have forces distributed on _____ vs. _____

A

teeth; soft tissue

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79
Q

Edentulous area other than those determining the classification:

A

Modification space

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80
Q

In Applegate’s rules, no modifications exist in _____ arches (because this would make it a class ______)

A

Class IV; Class III

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81
Q

The objectives of removable partial dentures include:

(hint: 3 restores, provide, improve, splint)

A
  1. restore anatomical defect
  2. restore function
  3. restore occlusal plane
  4. provide posterior occlusal support
  5. improve esthetics
  6. splint periodontially compromised teeth
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82
Q

Then metal framework of an RPD includes:

A
  1. Major connector
  2. Minor connector
  3. Rests
  4. Direct retainers
  5. Indirect retainers
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83
Q

Joins the units on opposite sides of the arch:

A

Major connector

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84
Q

List three functions of the major connector:

A
  1. stress distribution (teeth & soft tissue)
  2. unification (partial denture acts as one unit)
  3. cross-arch stabilization (counterleverage)
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85
Q

What are the four types of maxillary major connectors:

A
  1. palatal strap
  2. AP palatal strap
  3. complete palate
  4. U-shaped (horseshoe) connector
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86
Q

What are the types of mandibular major connectors? (3)

A
  1. lingual bar
  2. lingual plate
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87
Q

A RIGID extension from the major connector or base that contacts the proximal surface of abutment tooth:

A

Proximal plate

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88
Q

Connecting link between major connector/base and other units (retainers & rest):

A

Minor connector

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89
Q

Describe the three types of minor connectors:

A
  1. guiding planes/plates
  2. meshwork
  3. any unit connecting any type of rest to major connector
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90
Q

A component of the RPD that transfers the forces against the prosthesis down the long axis of the abutment tooth:

A

Rest

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91
Q

The rest should transfer the forces against the prosthesis down the ________ of the abutment tooth

A

Long axis

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92
Q

Prepared surface of a tooth/restoration to receive the rest:

A

Rest seat

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93
Q

Component of the RPD used to retain & prevent dislodgment:

A

Direct retainer

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94
Q

Portion of the direct retainer in which two arms are joined by a body, which may connect to a rest:

A

Direct retainer- clasp assembly

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95
Q

Stabilizes the RPD against displacing forces away from tissue in pure rotation around the fulcrum:

A

Indirect retainer

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96
Q

Usually connects to the major connector and is some form of rest:

A

Indirect retainer

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97
Q

In what case is an indirect retainer necessary?

A

ALWAYS necessary in Class I or II situations

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98
Q

Where should an indirect retainer be located?

A

Perpendicular to fulcrum line, as far away as possible

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99
Q

Vertically parallel surfaces of abutment teeth

A

Guiding planes

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100
Q

Guiding planes are _____ surfaces of ______ teeth

A

vertical parallel; abutment teeth

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101
Q

Why must guiding planes be created on teeth?

A

Because flat planes don’t exist naturally

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102
Q

How do you determine guiding planes?

A

Tilting cast in anterior-posterior direction

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103
Q

Guide planes provide one:

A

path of placement/removal for RPD

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104
Q

Guide planes ensure _____ of RPD components

A

intended actions

105
Q

Guide planes eliminate/decrease:

A

gross food traps

106
Q

Guide planes increase the frictional components of:

A

minor connectors

107
Q

Lowers height of contour on proximal surfaces to allow better positioning of arms:

A

guide planes

108
Q

When creating a guide plane, _________ should be reduced in size:

A

large undercut adjacent to proximal surfave

109
Q

When creating a guide plane, reduction can be accomplished by either ______ of the cast or _____ the enamel

A

altering the tilt; selectively grinding

110
Q

When altering the tilt of the cast to create a guide plane, cast tilt should not:

A

vary far from horizontal

111
Q

Where does selective grinding most often occur when creating guide planes?

A

occurs in occlusal 1/3 to 1/2

112
Q

Location of guide planes:

A

proximal surfaces of abutment teeth

113
Q

Guide planes should be parallel to _____ if possible

A

long axis of teeth (posterior molars will be tilted mesially)

114
Q

When creating guide planes its important to remember that, as length is increased:

A

retention is increased & resistance to rotation is increased

115
Q

The width of the guideline should be as wide as the:

A

Widest portion of the occlusal rest

116
Q

The width of the guideline should be as wide as the widest portion of the occlusal rest:

_____ Bucco-lingual width of the tooth
_____ distance between cusp tips

A

1/3 BL width of tooth
1/2 distance b/w cusp tips

117
Q

What should be the length of the guiding plane in tooth supported (class III) abutments?

A

3-4 mm

118
Q

What should be the length of the guiding plane in tooth-tissue supported (class I or II) abutments (distal extension):

A

1.5-2 mm

119
Q

Paralleling instrument used in RPD fabrication:

A

dental surveyor

120
Q

What is our brand of surveyor?
What is another brand of surveyor?

A

Ney; Jelenko

121
Q

Components of a surveyor include: (6)

A
  1. cast holder (with surveying table)
  2. surveying stand
  3. vertical support post
  4. horizontal arm
  5. analyzing arm
  6. mandrel for surveying tools
122
Q

Surveying tools include: (4)

A
  1. analyzing rod
  2. carbon marker
  3. carbon sheath
  4. undercut gauges (0.01, 0.02. 0.03)
123
Q
  • survey diagnostic cast
  • contour wax patterns
  • contour ceramic & cast restorations
  • place attachments requiring parallelism
  • survey master cast

these are all functions of:

A

dental surveyor

124
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. determine most:
A

acceptable path of insertion

125
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. Identify ______ the can function as _____
A

proximal tooth surfaces; guiding planes

126
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. locate and measure areas of teeth that may be used for:
A

retention

127
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. determine if soft or bony areas of ____ (____) exist
A

interference (undercuts)

128
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. determine most suitable path of insertion to:
A

satisfy esthetics

129
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. _______ on abutment teeth
A

delineate height of contour

130
Q

The objectives of the dental surveyor:

  1. record cast position to selected path of insertion (______)
A

tripod cast

131
Q

The path of insertion is determined based on: (4)

A
  1. guiding planes
  2. retentive undercut
  3. interferences
  4. esthetics
132
Q

The greater the # of guiding planes =

A

the more specific path of insertion

133
Q

The final orientation of guiding planes is seldom >

A

10-15 degrees from horizontal

134
Q

When determining the path of insertion, the mechanical retention is is provided by:

A

clasp that negates the retentive undercut

135
Q

The clasp that engages the retentive undercut (providing mechanical retention) resists:

A

RPD dislodging forces

136
Q

What is the location of the retentive undercut?

A

Lies between the survey line & gingival margin

137
Q

The retentive undercut is located by what device?

A

surveryor

138
Q

T/F a distal undercut is the preferred retentive undercut

A

FALSE: FACIAL undercut is preferred

139
Q

The retentive undercut is ideally within:

A

Gingival 1/3, at least 1 mm from gingival margin

140
Q

The illusion of undercut due to excessive cast tilt:

A

false undercut

141
Q

A false undercut (2):

A
  1. does not exist clinically
  2. makes for an awkward path of insertion
142
Q

List some interferences that may seen when determining the path of insertion:

A
  1. lingually inclined mandibular teeth
  2. buccally inclined maxillary teeth
  3. bony tori
  4. height of contour too high
  5. clasp placement too high
  6. tissue undercut area of bar clasp
143
Q

How can we located and eliminate the interferences? (2)

A
  1. altering tilt of cast/ change path of insertion
  2. maintain cast tilt, eliminate b y surgery or recontouring teeth
144
Q

For the best esthetics, when determining the path of insertion:

Alter _____ cast tilt to allow natural alignment of anterior teeth

A

mediolateral

145
Q

For the best esthetics, when determining the path of insertion:

If inadequate space of natural tooth width:

A

recontour proximal surfaces to restore lost dimension

146
Q

(True/False): For esthetic purposes when determining path of insertion, we should tilt the cast mesial-distal to allow for alignment of anterior teeth

A

FALSE: you should alter the cast tilt mediolaterally

147
Q

You should avoid exaggerated cast tilt to the path of insertion because the patient is:

A

unable to open mouth sufficient to accommodate

148
Q

When marking the heigh of contour/survey line, this side of the ____ indicates survey line of abutment teeth at chosen path of insertion

A

carbon marker

149
Q

The tip of the carbon marker will show you the:

A

incorrect survey line

150
Q

ALL components of the RPD except _____, lie above the survey line

A

terminal 1/3 of retentive clasp

151
Q

Where should the survey line be located ideally?

A

at junction of middle & gingival 1/3

152
Q

The proximal 2/3 of retentive clasp & the entire reciprocal clasp should be located ______

How is this in relation to the survey line?

A

junction of middle & gingival 1/3; ABOVE the survey line

153
Q

If the survey line is too high (occlusal), the calls is too high on the tooth and this may cause: (2)

A
  1. interference with occlusion
  2. increased leverage on the tooth
154
Q

If the survey line is too high (occlusally), what should you do to the survey line?

A

Recontour tooth to lower survey line

155
Q

If the survey line is high, the _____ is too high on the tooth

If the survey line is too low, no _____ exist

A

claps; undercuts

156
Q

If the survey line is too low, no undercut exists meaning: (2)

A
  1. no clasp retention
  2. can’t use enameloplasty to change
157
Q

If the survey line is too low, no undercuts exist. What foe this require?

A

surveyed crown (basically you took too much tooth structure away, now the patient needs a crown)

158
Q

How do you measure the undercut?

A

Measured with proper undercut gauge at chosen path of insertion

159
Q

The amount of undercut varies depending on:

A

Clasp type

160
Q

The amount of undercut varies depending on the clasp type.

CoCr= _______
Wrought wire= _____

A

CrCo= 0.010
Wrought wire= 0.02 or 0.03

161
Q

Undercuts are marked with:

A

red pencil

162
Q

How should you fix an inadequate undercut? (3)

A
  1. enameloplasty
  2. addition of composite
  3. surveyed crown
163
Q

When tripodizing the cast, record tilt of cast at:

A

path of insertion

164
Q

Tripodizing the cast ensures:

A

the lab tech can re-establish the path of insertion

165
Q

How do you tripodize the cast?

A

marker touches three widely separate tissue areas & vertical lines are drawn parallel to analyzing rod at these points

166
Q

Color code for RPD:

-metal framework outline
-wrought wires clasp

A

Blue

167
Q

Color code for RPD:

-retentive undercut
-tooth modification areas
-guiding planes
-survey line reposition
-rest seat areas

A

Red

168
Q

Color code for RPD:

-survey line
-tripod marks
-soft tissue undercuts

A

Black

169
Q

The impression for the master cast is done:

A

after mouth preparation

170
Q

When resurveying the master cast: (4)

A
  1. align guiding planes
  2. mark retentive undercuts
  3. mark survey line
  4. tripodize the cast
171
Q

RPD survey & design steps: (4)

A
  1. survey diagnostic casts
  2. RPD design
  3. mouth preparations
  4. master cast
172
Q

The RIGID extension of FPD/RPD:

A

Rest

173
Q

Prevents cervical movement of RPD:

A

Rest

174
Q

If the rest does not prevent cervical movement of the RPD, this can cause damage to:

A

Underlying soft & hard tissues (initial sore spot can lea to bone loss of abutment tooth)

175
Q

What limits lateral movement of RPD?

A

Rest

176
Q

Maintains the retentive arm in proper vertical relation:

A

Rest

177
Q

The rest maintains retentive arm I proper vertical relation and by doing so, this stabilizes _____ and prevents _____

A

occlusal forces; gingival dislodgment

178
Q

What are the 5 functions of a rest:

A
  1. Directs forces down long axis of teeth
  2. Prevent cervical movement of RPD
  3. Limits lateral movement of RPD
  4. Maintains retentive arm in proper vertical relation
  5. Improves the occlusal plane
179
Q
  1. Prevents cervical movement of RPD
  2. Limits lateral movement of RPD
A

Rest

180
Q

Portion of the natural tooth/cast restoration prepared for the rest:

A

Rest seat

181
Q

When preparing. a rest seat, evaluate _____/_____ relationships in both ______ & ______ movements

A

interocclusal/interincisal; static & excursive

182
Q

Types of rests include: (5)

A
  1. occlusal
  2. embrasure
  3. cingulum/lingual
  4. hooded
  5. incisal
183
Q

Rest located on the mesial/distal pits of PM and molars:

A

Occlusal

184
Q

Occlusal rests should be centered over the _____ when possible:

A

marginal ridge

185
Q

what type of teeth are occlusal rest seats narrower on?

A

Premolars

186
Q

Describe the shape of an occlusal rest?

A

Concave; saucer/spoon shaped

187
Q

The base of the occlusal rest seat should be ______ over the ____

A

Triangular; marginal ridge

188
Q

Occlusal rest seat measurements:

_____ B/L width
______ width between cusp tips

A

1/3 BL width
1/2 width between cusp tips

189
Q

In an occlusal rest, what is the reduction over the marginal ridge?

A

1.0-1.5 mm

190
Q

In an occlusal rest, what is the reduction at the deepest portion (pit area)?

A

1.5-2.0 mm

191
Q

The floor of an occlusal rest seat should incline towards ____, forming angle less than ____

A

axial center; 90 degrees

192
Q

If a tooth is tilted, an occlusal rest can be ____ to ensure maximum bracing which redirects forces along the long axis of the abutment tooth

A

extended

193
Q

What type of rest is on 2 adjacent posterior teeth?

A

Embrasure

194
Q

The form of an embrasure rest seat follows the form of:

A

An occlusal rest

195
Q

In an embrasure rest, you should avoid eliminating:

A

the contact point

196
Q

The “sluiceway” of an embrasure rest should be around _____ (_____)

A

2 mm wide (within embrasure)

197
Q

A “sluiceway” of an embrasure rest allows for:

A

1mm thickness if metal on each toot

198
Q

How wide should a “sluiceway” of an embrasure rest be? How deep should it be?

A

2mm wide; 1 mm deep

199
Q

An embrasure rest should have a _____ shaped trough to accommodate clasp assembly

A

U-shaped

200
Q

What type of rest should be prepared on canines with a gradual lingual slope? (maxillary canines specifically)

A

cingulum/lingual

201
Q

Although cingulum/lingual rests should be prepared on canines (specifically maxillary canines) with a gradual lingual slope, they can be prepared on:

A

any anterior tooth in cast restoration

202
Q

For a maxillary cingulum/lingual rest, how do you accomplish?

For a mandibular cingulum/lingual rest, how do you accomplish?

A

Maxillary- cut into enamel
Mandibular- use composite resin

203
Q

How wide should the floor be in a cingulum /lingual rest? Where should it extend?

A

1 mm wide; marginal ridge to marginal ridge

204
Q

From an incisal view, a cingulum/lingual rest is what shaped?

A

Crescent shaped with widest portion at center

205
Q

From a lingual view, a cingulum/lingual rest is what shape?

A

Inverted V

206
Q

Rests on inclined surfaces displaces teeth and destroys bone which is why we use a _____ rest

A

cingulum

207
Q

A hooded rest is ONLY used on:

A

Mandibular 1st Premolar

208
Q

A hooded rest decreases _____ by lowering _____

A

torque; lowering center of rotation

209
Q

A hooded rest is ONLY used on mandibular 1st premolar and ONLY in Kennedy Class:

A

I or II

210
Q

Where does a hooded rest extend from? What is it part of?

A

Marginal ridge to marginal ridge; part of lingual plate

211
Q

Why is an incisal rest the LEAST desirable?

A
  1. poor esthetics
  2. occlusal interference
  3. increased torquing forces
212
Q

When discussing rests, do we want the torque to be increased or decreased?

A

decreased

213
Q

Incisal rests (the LEAST desirable rests) are used primarily for:

A

Mandibular canines

214
Q

Incisal rests are usually used as:

A

indirect retainer

215
Q

Describe the shape of an incisal rest:

A

Small, V shaped notch

216
Q

What types of rests are most commonly used?

A

-occlusal
-embrasure
-cingulum

217
Q

What is the MINIMUM reduction for a rest seat preparation?

A

1 mm

218
Q

A 1 mm reduction for rest seat preparation allows for:

A

adequate thickness of metal

219
Q

If the rest seat preparation is not atleast 1 mm this is considered inadequate thickness which may result in:

A

rest fracture

220
Q

What phase of patient treatment is described below?

-relieve pain & infection
-diagnostic cast & mounting
- Tx plan - design RPD
-education & motivate patient
-occlusal equilibrium

A

Phase 1

221
Q

What phase of patient treatment is described below?

-remove deep caries & temporary restorations (disease control)
-extract non-retainable teeth
-prepreosthetic surgery - tori reduction, etc.
-periodontal Tx & plaque control
-interim prosthesis - functional & esthetic
-occlusal equilibration

A

Phase 2

222
Q

What is involved in both phase 1 & 2 of patient treatment?

A

occlusal equilibration

223
Q

What phase of patient treatment is described below?

-definitive endo treatment
-definitive restoration Tx (surveyed crowns, amalgams, composites, FPD)
-occlusal plane correction
-enameloplast for RPD

A

Phase 3

224
Q

What phase of patient treatment does “enameloplasty for RPD” occur in?

A

Phase 3

225
Q

In what phase of patient treatment does the construction of the RPD occur in?

A

Phase 4

226
Q

What phase of patient treatment is described below?

-post-insertion care
- periodic recall
-continued plaque control (Hygiene!!!)

A

Phase 5

227
Q

Preliminary design of RPD with tooth modifications marked:

A

Diagnostic casts

228
Q
  • Perform tooth modifications according to RPD design
  • Use QA worksheet

these steps are involved in:

A

mouth preparation

229
Q

Steps of enameloplasty (5):

A
  1. develop guiding planes
  2. enlarge embrasure for minor connectors
  3. lower height of contour
  4. create undercut if needed
  5. prepare rest seats
230
Q

When developing guiding planes during an enameloplasty:

Proximal guide plane should be adjacent to:

A

edentulous areas

231
Q

When developing guiding planes during an enameloplasty:

ML contains:

L contains:

A

ML: stress release clasps
L: reciprocal clasps

232
Q

During an enameloplaty, you should _____ for minor connectors

A

enlarge embrasure

233
Q

When lowering the heigh of contour during an enameloplasty, what components are involved?

A
  1. proximal 2/3 circumferential retentive clasp
  2. reciprocal clasp
  3. lingual guide plate
234
Q

After doing the enameloplasty, you should:

A

Make additional impression & survey interim casts to confirm that preps are parallel to path of insertion

235
Q

If thee is an insufficient undercut, what surface should be sloped when performing an enameloplasty?

A

Slope buccal surface

236
Q

When creating an undercut during an enameloplasty, what bur should be used:

A

Round-ended tapered diamond bur

237
Q

What is another name for a lingual rest seat?

A

Chevron

238
Q

What types of rest seats are the most common?

A

Occlusal & lingual

239
Q

When preparing rest seats, you need at least ______ of space, and this can be measured with:

A

1 mm; beading wax

240
Q

Kennedy Class ______ & _____ - residual ridge not providing RPD support (tissue supported)

A

III & IV

241
Q

Kennedy Class _____ & ______ - residual ridge is an important source of RPD support (tooth-tissue supported)

A

I & II

242
Q

In what Kennedy class RPD’s is it more important to accurately record maximum tissue support area (broad-stress distribution concept)

A

Kennedy Class I & II

243
Q

In a Kennedy Class I or II RPD (tooth-tissue supported) the occlusal pressure is concentrated on:

A

distal end of base

244
Q

in an extension RPD impression, equalize support from:

A

Tissue & teeth

245
Q

In an extension RPD impression, a ____ should be used with elastomeric material that is ____

A

custom tray; border molded

246
Q

What type of impression is most commonly used?

A

1-step impression

247
Q

What impression technique is considered “very complicated”?

A

Corrected/altered cast technique (2 step impression- alternate technique)

248
Q

The major connector can be described as:

A

RIGID

249
Q

The major connector should function as:

A

1 unit

250
Q
  • broad stress distribution
  • counter-arch stabilization
  • reduce torque
  • avoid tissue damage

These are all functions of:

A

Major connector

251
Q

The major connector should not enter _____ and should avoid terminating on _____

A

Should not enter undercut areas; free gingival margin, lingual frenum & movable soft palate

252
Q

Maxillary connectors borders should be _____ to & ____ from gingival margins

A

parallel; 6 mm

253
Q

For a maxillary major connector, the anterior and poster borders should:

A

Cross midline at right angle

254
Q

Maxillary major connector borders beaded _____ wide & deep

A

1 mm

255
Q

What are the types of suprabulge clasps?

A
  1. Circumferential
  2. akers
  3. circlet
256
Q

What are the type of infrabulge clasps?

A
  1. T bar
  2. 1/2 T
  3. I bar
257
Q

What type of infrabulge bar claps are most common?

A

1/2 T & I-bar

258
Q

What are the advantages to bar clasps?

A
  1. more aesthetic
  2. more flexible
  3. less conducive to caries
  4. wider range of undercut adaptability (I bar)
259
Q
A

Removable Partial Prosthodontics (12 decks)

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