Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

concepts 2 > midterm > Flashcards

midterm Flashcards

1
Q

head-to-toe assessment (neurological)

A
  • observation: alert/sedated/drowsy
  • assessment: orientation (person, place, time, situation), confusion
  • glasgow coma scale (eye opening, best verbal response, motor response)
  • PERRLA
  • motor strength (handgrip, push/pull/wiggle)
  • facial symmetry
  • slurred speech/language disturbance
  • perceptual disturbances
  • drift
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pain

A

observation: non-verbal behaviour (agitation, cries)

  • assessment: scale (0-10), LOTARRP
  • use of opioids/analgesics, effects of pain on function and mood, symptoms that may increase suffering
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

respiratory

A
  • observation: resp rate, quality, rhythm, depth, accessory muscle
  • SOB?
  • cough (dry/productive), sputum (colour, quality, consistency, blood)
  • breath sounds (crackles, wheezes)
  • SpO2
  • chest excursion (movement of diaphragm), nasal flaring, pursed lips, work of breathing (orthopnea, dyspnea)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cardiovascular

A
  • edema (pitting/non-pitting)
  • skin warmth, colour, turgor, cap refill
  • movement and sensation to extremities
  • dizziness/light headedness
  • BP, HR, temp, apical HR
  • peripheral pulse, heart sounds (murmur/rub), chest pain (location, intensity, precipitating factors)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

GI

A
  • abdomen soft/distended/rounded/tender
  • bowel sounds present/absent
  • nausea, vomiting, discomfort
  • last BM
  • colostomy (stoma appearance, big intact), tube feed (type, amount, continuous), perianal & sacrococcygeal areas (lesions, external hemorrhoids, ulcers)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

GU

A
  • urine colour, character, amount, frequency
  • continent/incontinent

-pain/burning/discharge with voiding

  • vaginal discharge, painful or swollen tissues, menstrual bleeding, penile pain or swelling, testicular pain, heaviness, enlargement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

integumentary system

A
  • skin turgor/colour/moisture/texture
  • skin lesions/ecchymoses/hematoma
  • dressings
  • wound assessment (length, width, depth, colour, drainage)
  • hair condition (colour, thickness, texture)
  • scalp condition (lesions, lumps)
  • nail condition (colour, cleanliness, length)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a MSE

A
  • psychological equivalent of a head to toe assessment that describes the mental state and behaviours of the person being assessed. it includes both objective observations of the nurse and subjective descriptions given by the pt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why do we do MSE

A
  • provides information (assessment data) for diagnosis and assessment of disorder and response to treatment
  • provides a snapshot at a point in time
  • if another provider sees your pt it allows them to determine if the pts status has changed without previously seeing the pt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

to properly assess the MSE information about the pts….

A

history is needed including education, cultural, and social factors

  • its important to ascertain what is normal for pt
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

components of the MSE

A

appearance, behaviour, speech, mood, affect, thought process, thought content, cognition, insight, judgement, risk assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

appearance: what do you see

A
  • cultural background, height, weight, apparent age, clothes, grooming, gait, psychomotor, posture, cooperative, eye contact, facial experience, grooming and hygiene, jewerly and cosmetic use, tattoos
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

behaviour

A

agitation, hyperactivity, eye contact, attitude, attentiveness to interviewer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

speech

A

rate, volume, spontaneity, pressure, characteristics (accent or dialect)

  • latency of response?
  • production of speech
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

mood

A
  • emotional state the pt tells you how they feel
  • placed in quotes since its what they are telling you
  • rated on scale of 1 to 10
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

affect

A

physical manifestation of mood

  • type (euthymic, dysphoric (depressed))
  • range (full, blunted, flat, labile)
  • congruency
  • stability
  • appropriateness to content and situation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

thought process

A

HOW the person is thinking

  • describes the rate of thoughts, how they flow and are connected
  • normal: organized, tight, logical, coherent, goal directed
  • abnormal: disorganized, incoherent, circumstantial, loose, flight of ideas, thought blocking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tangential

A

move from thought to thought that relate in some way but never get to the point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

loose

A

illogical shifting b/w unrelated topics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

flight of ideas

A

quickly moving from one idea to another (mania)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

thought blocking

A

thoughts are interrupted (psychosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

perservation

A

repetition of words, phrases or ideas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

word salad

A

randomly spoken words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

thought content

A

WHAT the person is thinking

  • refers to themes/content that occupy the pts thoughts
  • preoccupations, ideas of reference, phobia, delusions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

delusions

A

false fixed beliefs (absent, suspected, persecutory, religious, somatic, reference, grandeur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

preoccupations

A

suicidal or homicidal ideation (SI or HI), perseverations, obsessions, phobias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ideas of reference

A

misinterpretation of incidents and events in the outside world having direct personal reference to pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

control delusions

A

outside forces are controlling actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

erotomanic delusions

A

a person, usually of higher status, is in love with the pt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

grandiose delusions

A

inflated sense of self-worth, power, or wealth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

somatic delusions

A

patient has a physical defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

reference delusions

A

unrelated events apply to them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

persecutory delusions

A

others are trying to cause harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

perception

A

hallucinations, illusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hallucinations

A

misperception without an actual stimulus in the environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

hallucination types

A

visual, tactile, auditory, gustatory, olfactory, command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

illusions

A

misperceptions of exisiting stimuli. actual perceptions are distorted or altered so they appear to be something different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

cognition

A

level of arousal, orientation, concentration & attention, memory, intellectual capacity, abstraction/concrete thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

short term/immediate memory

A

give client unrelated words to remember, ask the person to repeat right away, distract for about 5 mins & ask them to repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

recent memory

A

ask client qts about current events in past 24 hr or few days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

long term/remote memory

A

ask client qts about place of birth, various schools, occupations, history of presenting illness, important known events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

insight

A

cognitive awareness of person’s surroundings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

different levels of insight

A
  • full insight: recognizes that signs/symptoms are part of illness, able to modify behaviour, full cooperation w/ treatment
  • partial insight: recognizes problems but does not attribute to illness, may understand that others see them as ill, some behaviour changes, variable cooperation
  • impaired/no insight: denial of illness or denial of any problems, blames others, has no capacity to understand concerns by others, poor adherence with treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

judgement

A

process that leads to a decision or an action, during assessment, what the client did or didn’t do with respect to the illness, judgement is assessed by the ability for client to the ability to anticipate the consequences of one’s behaviour and make decisions to safeguard their well being and that of others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

poor judgement evidenced by

A

impulsivity or engaging in actions with high probability of damaging consequences such as shop lifting, buying sprees, promiscuity, physical assault, reckless driving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

other assessments

A
  • CIWA, CAGE questionnaire, DSM-5, beck depression inventory, PHQ9 for depression, HONOS rating scale
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

diabetes

A

multisystem disease related to abnormal insulin production, impaired insulin utilization, or both

  • organ: pancreas –> islets of langerhan –> alpha & beta cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

prediabetes

A

blood glucose levels that are higher than normal, but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

metabolic syndrome

A

also have high blood pressure, high levels of LDL cholesterol & triglycerides, low levels of HDL cholesterol & excess fat around the waist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

types of diabetes

A

type 1, type 2, gestational, secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

pathophysiology of diabetes

A
  • disorder of the endocrine system (pancreas)
  • destruction of beta cells in the pancreas (insulin deficiency) or defective insulin receptors on tissues (glucose unable to be transported into cells)
  • counterbalance of glucagon and insulin fails
  • blood glucose rises resulting in hyperglycemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is type 1 diabetes

A
  • autoimmune destruction of beta cells causing little or no insulin production
  • prone to ketosis
  • abrupt onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the fasting BG for type 1

A

7mmol/L or Hg A1C > 6.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what polys are in type 1

A

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

when is type 1 most common

A

children/adolescents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

type 2 diabetes

A
  • slower onset, 90% of cases, exercise and diet management essential, oral hypoglycemic agents effective in controlling blood sugars but some require insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

risk factors for type 2

A

40 or older, first degree relative with type 2, member of high risk population, history of prediabetes, gestational, delivery of baby over 9 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

gestational diabetes

A

temporary condition that occurs during pregnacy, increased risk of developing diabetes to both mother and child

  • affects 3.7% non aboriginal, 8-18% aboriginal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

cardinal signs of hyperglycemia

A
  • excessive thirst (polydipsia), excessive hunger (polyphagia), polyuria excessive urination (greater than 2.5 or 3L over 24 hrs), weight loss, blurred vision, fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

normal blood glucose

A

4.0 to 6.0 mmol/L when fasting

up to 7.8mmol/L 2 hrs after eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

diabetic complications

A

organ damage is associated & vascular risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

organ damage associated with diabetes

A
  • microvascular (small vessels) (retinopathy, neuropathy, nephropathy)
  • macrovascular (larger vessels) (coronary, cerebrovascular, peripheral)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

vascular risk factors (diabetes)

A
  • high cholesterol or other fats in blood
  • hypertension
  • overweight
  • abdominal obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

key elements in diabetes management

A
  • education, nutrition, weight management, physical activity, insulins & oral hypoglycemics, lifestyle management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

insulin

A

power hormone, produced by beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what does insulin do

A

helps store glucose in liver as glycogen

conversion of glycogen to fat stores in muscle tissue and adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the important factor about insulin

A

only hormone that has the capacity to lower blood sugar; BG levels MUST be done prior to admin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

types of insulin

A

rapid acting (clear), short acting (clear), intermediate acting (cloudy), long acting (clear), mixed (cloudy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

basal-bolus preferred (long acting) for…

A

stability with bolus as needed vs sliding scale insulin dosages according to BG levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

routes for insulin

A
  • subcutaneous (most common), IV (emergencies, short-acting), insulin pens, insulin SC pumps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

unopened insulin vial kept in fridge, opened vial stored either…

A

room temp or fridge & expires in 30 days after opening, always mark date the vial is opened

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the first line treatment for type 2 diabetes

A

biguanide metformin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

action of biguanide metformin

A
  1. decreases glucose production by liver
  2. decreases intestinal absorption of glucose
  3. improves insulin receptor sensitivity in the liver, skeletal muscle, and adipose tissue, increased glucose uptake by these organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

side effects of biguanide metformin

A

GI: abdominal bloating, anorexia, nausea, cramping, feeling of fullness, flatulence, diarrhea, metallic taste in mouth, vitamin B12 reduction

DOES NOT CAUSE HYPOGLYCEMIA*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is the oldest group of medication for type 2

A

sulfonylureas gliclazide, glyburide, glimepiride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

sulfonylureas gliclazide, glyburide, glimepiride must have

A

functioning beta cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

sulfonylureas gliclazide, glyburide, glimepiride action

A
  1. stimulates insulin secretion from beta cells of pancreas
  2. improves the sensitivity to insulin in tissue
  3. decreases the production of glucagon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

side effects of sulfonylureas gliclazide, glyburide, glimepiride

A

GI: nausea, epigastric fullness and heartburn, photosensitivity, skin eruptions, and weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

sulfonylureas gliclazide, glyburide, glimepiride may cause

A

hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

nursing assessment and care for diabetes

A

blood glucose level, follow proper agency policies and procedures, assess client’s knowledge & provide client education as necessary, ensure meal trays are available, oral hypoglycemia agents admin 30 min before meals, oral hypoglycemia agents take one week to be effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

aboriginal diabetes key points

A

among highest risk populations for diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

screening for diabetes for aboriginals

A

should be done every 1 to 2 years

early indentifications of diabetes in preg should be emphasized and post-partum screening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is hypoglycemia

A

glucose levels becomes too low - blood sugars under 4mmols, however if the patient does not have stable blood sugar and the BS lowers these symptoms may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

hypoglycemia can be caused by

A

too much insulin, too little food, exercising too vigorously or drinking too much alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia

A

heart palpitations, fatigue, pale skin, shakiness, anxiety, sweating, hunger, irritability, tingling sensation around mouth, crying out during sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

hypoglycemia worsening signs and symptoms

A

confusion, abnormal behaviour, visual disturbances (blurred vision), seizures, loss of consciousness, may appear intoxicated (slur words and unsteady gait)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

treatment hypoglycemia

A

oral glucose, IV glucose, glucagon (IM or SC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

diabetic ketoacidosis

A

serious complication of diabetes that occurs when the body produces high levels of blood acids called ketones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

diabetic ketoacidosis develops when

A

the body can not produce enough insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

without enough insulin, what happens (diabetic ketoacidosis)

A

body begins to break down fat as fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

diabetic ketoacidosis produces

A

a buildup of acids in the bloodstream called ketones, eventually leading to DK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

DKA (muscle cells

A

muscle cells become starved for energy, your body may respond by breaking down fat stores

process forms toxic acids known as ketones

left untreated, diabetic ketoacidosis leads to coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

signs and symptoms of DKA

A

flushed, hot dry skin
blurred vision
polyuria
polydipsia
drowsiness
decreased LOC
tachypnea
strong, fruity breath
loss of appetite
abdominal pain
vomiting
confusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

diabetic ketoacidosis most common

A

type 1 diabetes but can occur in type 2 & gestational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

treatment for DKA

A

IV fluids, small amounts of insulin, replacement of electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

hypersomolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS)

A

complication diabetes often triggered by infection or illness, involves extremely high blood glucose level w/o significant presence of ketones, excess sugar passes from blood to urine, triggering a filtering process that draws tremendous amounts of fluid from your body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

left untreated, HHS

A

life-threatening dehydration & coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

HHS most common in

A

elderly adults who have type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

treatment of HHS

A

IV fluids, small amounts of insulin, replacement of electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is schizophrenia

A

disturbance of the brain’s functioning, seriously disturbs the way ppl think, feel and relate to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

schizophrenia is one of the most..

A

severe, complex mental illness and is present in all cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

has there been a cause found for schizophrenia?

A

no, although there is a clear genetic link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

men & women are affected ? related to schizophrenia

A

equally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

when is mens and womens onset of schizophrenia

A

men: first episode in late teens/early 20s

women: usually few years later than men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

how does the illness start

A

gradually, ppl begin to have symptoms but they & family may not be aware of illness, may be rapid as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

the course of schizophrenia is

A

unique & unpredictable & differs from person to person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what shows prmise for increased rates of recovery in ppl with first onset of schizophrenia

A

early intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

phases of schizophrenia

A

prodromal, aute, recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

prodromal phase aspects

A
  • early symptoms may be vague & hardly noticeable
  • may be changes in the way the person describes their thoughts, feelings, perception
  • begin to lose interest in usual activities
  • easily confused
  • trouble concentrating
  • apathetic
  • prefer to spend most days alone
  • ## become intensely preoccupied with religion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

how long can the prodromal phase last

A

weeks or months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

acute phase

A
  • clear psychotic symptoms
  • may include delusions, hallucinations, marked distortions in thinking
  • most frightening to person experiencing symptoms & others around them
  • most times hospitalized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

recovery phase

A
  • after symptoms stabilized goal is recovery
  • some will recover back to previous level of functioning
  • some will require medications & support for the rest of lives
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

goal of recovery for schizophrenia

A

regain the previous level of functioning and improve the quality of life for patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

symptoms of schizophrenia divided into 3 cateogires

A

positive, negative, cognitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

positive symptoms include

A

delusions, hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

delusions are

A

false fixed beliefs that usually involve a mistinterpretation of the experience (grandiose, persecutory, somatic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

hallucinations are

A

all 5 senses (olfactory, gustatory, auditory, visual, somatic)

  • most common are auditory & visual
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

negative symptoms of schizophrenia include

A

affective flattening, alogia, avolition/apathy, anhedonia, inattention, ambivalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what is affective flattening

A

diminished emotional responsiveness = few expressive gestures, changes in facial expression, poor eye contact, lack of vocal inflection and decreased spontaneous movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what is alogia

A

poverty of speech and content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

avolition/apathy

A

lack of interest, enthusiasm, decrease in the motivation to initiate and perform self-directed purposeful activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

anhedonia

A

inability to experience pleasure - few recreational activities/interests, detached, uncommunicative, impaired social and personal relationships, distant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

inattention

A

impaired concentration, social inattentiveness; poor rapport, lack of focus during conversation

124
Q

ambivalence

A

not able to make decisions or contribute to conversations with others

125
Q

neuro-cognitive symptoms for schizophrenia

A
  • loss of short-term memory & organizational skills in planning, prioritizing & decision making
  • disorganized thinking and speech
  • disorganized behaviour = slow, rhythmic or ritualistic movements
126
Q

suicide risk for persons with schizophrenia

A

40-50% ppl attempt
approx 12-15% succeed

127
Q

treatment options for schizophrenia

A

hospitalization, electroconvulsive therapy, medications

128
Q

hospitalization for schizophrenia

A

crisis periods or times of severe symptoms, this may be necessary to ensure safety, proper nutrition, adequate sleep and basic hygiene

129
Q

electroconvulsive therapy for schizophrenia

A

do not respond to drug therapy, ECT may be considered, may be helpful for someone who also has depression or a mood disorder

130
Q

what is the essential treatment for schizophrenia

A

medications

131
Q

what kind of medication is most common for schizophrenia

A

antipsychotics

132
Q

antipsychotics are thought to …

A

control symptoms by affecting the brain neurotransmitter dopamine

133
Q

the goal of treatment with antipsychotic medications is to

A

effectively manage symptoms at the lowest dose possible

134
Q

medications for schizphrenia can cause serious side effects, ppl with schizo may be reluctant to take them? t/f

A

TRUE

135
Q

pts who are resistant to taking medication consistently may need to be given….

A

injections instead of oral

136
Q

how antipsychotics work?

A
  • reduce or increase the effect of neurotransmitters in the brain to regulate levels
  • effect of blocking dopamine transmission in the brain which decrease positive symptoms
137
Q

what are the newer antipsychotic medications and what do they effect

A

risperidone, olanzapine, quetiapine effect other neurotransmitters in the brain including serotonin which effect both positive & negative symptoms

138
Q

1st generation antipsychotics examples and side effects

A
  • typical/conventional
  • dopamine receptor antagonist (haldol, clopixol, loxapine)
  • extrapyramidal symptoms
  • sedation
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • weak anticholinergic side effects
  • development of movement disorder (tardive dyskinesia)
139
Q

2nd generation antipsychotics

A

created to produce less side effects

  • clozapine, risperidone, olanzapine
140
Q

side effects of 2nd generation antipsychotics

A

weight gain, anticholinergic side effects, sedation, agranulocytosis

141
Q

what can be seen in clozapine

A

agranulocytosis

142
Q

agranulocytosis is

A

blood disorder characterized by decrease in WBC

143
Q

how often does blood work for agranulocytosis

A

qweek for 6 months and then q2weeks

144
Q

fatalities related to agranulocytosis are due to

A

compromised immune system

145
Q

symptoms of agranulocytosis

A

chills, mouth ulcerations, sore throat, fatigue, signs of infection, hyperthermia

146
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

MEDICAL EMERGENCY
- 3-9 days after beginning or a change in medications

147
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome symptoms

A

sweating, tremor, changes in LOC, tachycardia, leukocytosis, difficulty swallowing, incontinence, elevated/labile blood pressure

148
Q

extrapyramidal symptoms

A
  • seen in up to 90% of pts getting typical antipsychotics
  • involuntary & uncontrollable movement disorder caused by meds
149
Q

signs of extrapyramidal symptoms

A
  • akinesia (weakness)
  • akathisia (restlessness)
  • acute dystonic reactions (muscle spasms)
  • parkinsonism
  • pisa syndrome
  • rabbit syndrome
150
Q

acute dystonic reaction

A
  • appear early in neuroleptic treatment (first 3 days)
  • 1st to appear & most dramatic
  • more common in young male
  • severe involuntary muscle spasms
  • difficulty swallowing
  • stiff neck, torticollis
  • oculogyric crisis (rotation of eyes upward)
  • extreme facial grimacing
  • thick tongue, protrusion of tongue
151
Q

parkinsonism

A
  • mask like face
  • tremor at rest
  • rigidity of muscles
  • motor retardation
  • hypersalivation (drooling)
  • shuffling gait, stooped posture
  • incidence increases with age
  • develop within a few weeks to months
152
Q

akinesia

A
  • slowed movement
  • immobility, weakness
  • fatigue
  • lack of muscle movement
  • painful muscles
  • develop mostly by 3rd week in 33% of pts
153
Q

akathisia

A
  • restlessness, restless legs, jittery feeling, nervous energy
  • leg swinging or repeated crossing
  • need to rapidly sit & stand
  • need to movement or pacing
  • foot shuffling
  • could be confused for agitation or anxiety
154
Q

rabbit syndrome

A

fast rhythmic movement of the lips

155
Q

tardive dyskinesia

A
  • involuntary movement appearing later in treatment (chronic exposure to dopamine receptor-blocking agents)
  • worsen with stress or trying to hide
  • will stop with sleep
156
Q

what is used to treat EPS and other movement disorders induced by meds?

A

antiparkinsonian agents

157
Q

antiparkinsonians examples

A

anticholinergic (good for all EPS) benztropine, procyclidine

  • antihistaminergic (diphenhydramine = good for all except akinesia)
  • benzodiazepine (clonazepam = good for acute dystonia & akathisia) (diazepam = good for all EPS) (lorazepam = good for all except akinesia)
158
Q

psychosocial interventions for schizophrenia

A

individual therapy, social skills training, family therapy, vocational rehabilitation & supported employment

159
Q

vocational rehab & supported employment

A

helping ppl w/ schizo prepare for, find and keep jobs

160
Q

psychosis

A

conditions that affect the mind where there is some loss of contact with reality

  • first experience = first episode psychosis
161
Q

psychosis often starts

A

in adolescence or young adults when individuals starting to develop own identity, form long term relationships, and plan future

162
Q

what different b/w psychosis & schizophrenia

A
  1. schizo is mental illness that CAUSES psychosis
  2. schizo also has other positive and negative symptoms
  3. schizo isnt only cause of psychosis
    - delirium, depression, bipolar, schizoaffective, borderline all can cause psychosis
163
Q

symptoms of psychosis

A

hallucinations, delusions, paranoia, disorganized thoughts, disorganized speech, feelings & behaviour also affected

164
Q

what is a psychotic episode

A
  • period of time when symptoms of psychosis are strong & interfere with reg life
  • length can be hours to days to weeks to months
165
Q

stages of psychosis

A

prodromal, acute, recovery

166
Q

prodromal phase of psychosis

A

1st phase before psychosis becomes obvious
- changes in thoughts, feelings, perceptions, behaviours

167
Q

acute phase of psychosis

A
  • typical psychotic symptoms emerge
  • psychosis easiest to recognize and diagnosis
  • most ppl begin recieving treatment
168
Q

recovery phase of psychosis

A
  • symptoms that are apparent in the acute phase may still be present
  • majority of ppl recover from their first episode
169
Q

common prodromal symptoms

A
  • social withdrawal
  • reduced concentration, attention span
  • depressed mood
  • sleep disturbance
  • anxiety
  • suspiciousness
  • irritability
  • skipping school or work
170
Q

psychotic symptoms

A

emerge in acute phase, are intense, active & continuous, interfere w/ normal functioning, frequently categorized as positive or negative

171
Q

positive symptoms of psychosis

A

delusions, hallucinations (seeing, feeling, smelling, or tasting something isn’t there), disorganized speech or behaviour (person may move quickly from one topic to the next)

172
Q

negative symptoms of psychosis

A
  • displaying little emotion
  • poverty of speech
  • difficulty thinking or generating new ideas
  • decreased ability to initiate tasks
  • lowered levels of motivation
173
Q

other problems that often occur with psychotic symptoms

A

depression, anxiety, suicidal thoughts or behaviours, substance abuse, difficulty functioning, disturbed sleep

174
Q

recovery phase of psychosis

A
  • acute symptoms lessen & start to fade
  • some symptoms may linger
  • problems with work or school, depression, anxiety, social problems, decreased self esteem may be evident
175
Q

causes of psychosis

A
  • no definite answers
  • multiple theories though: biology, genetics, brain changes, stress, drugs
176
Q

biology theory of cause of psychosis

A

neurotransmitter dysfunction

177
Q

genetic theory cause of psychosis

A

at increased risk if close relative has psychosis

178
Q

brain changes cause of psychosis

A

found in some individuals

179
Q

stress cause of psychosis

A

a vulnerability to psychosis

180
Q

drugs cause of psychosis

A

can induce psychosis, or increase vulnerability

181
Q

angina is

A

recurring chest pain or discomfort

182
Q

angina occurs when

A

heart muscle (myocardium) doesn’t receive enough blood and oxygen to meet body needs

183
Q

symptoms of angina

A
  • a pressing, squeezing, or crushing pain, usually in chest under sternum
  • pain radiating in arms, shoulders, jaw, neck
  • weakness/fatigue
  • occurs in response to exertion and is relieved by rest
  • lasts 3-5 mins
  • emotional stress may cause
184
Q

causes of angina

A
  • occurs when the heart’s workload (and need for oxygen) exceeds the ability of the coronary arteries to supply
  • coronary blood flow can be limited when the arteries are narrowed by atherosclerosis
185
Q

stable angina

A
  • chest pain or discomfort that typically occurs when activity or stress
  • episodes of pain or discomfort are provoked by similar or consistent amounts activity or stress
186
Q

unstable angina

A

pattern of symptoms change
- usually angina stays constant, any change is serious
- change reflects sudden narrowing of a coronary artery bc an atheroma has ruptured or a clot as formed
- risk of heart attack is high
- considered an acute coronary syndrome

187
Q

angina diagnosis

A
  • complete medical history
  • ECG
  • stress test
  • echocardiography
  • CT
  • cardiac catheterization
188
Q

echocardiography

A

uses ultrasound waves to produce images of the heart, shows heart size, movement of muscles, blood flow through heart valves, and valve function

189
Q

cardiac catheterization

A

contrast agent is injected into an artery & x-rays are taken to locate narrowing, occulsions, and other abnormalities

190
Q

treatment for angina

A
  • attempts to slow/reverse the progression of coronary artery disease by dealing with risk factors
  • quitting smoking is crucial
  • a low-fat, varied diet that’s low in carbs & exercise are recommended
  • weight loss if needed
191
Q

risk factors for angina

A

hypertension, high cholesterol levels

192
Q

medical treatments for angina

A
  • nitrates (nitroglycerine spray)
  • beta-blockers (metoprolol)
  • calcium channel blockers (verapamil)
  • antiplatelet drugs (aspirin)
  • percutaneous coronary intervention (balloon angioplasty, stent)
  • coronary artery bypass graft surgery
193
Q

what are the leading causes of death in canada

A

heart disease & stroke

194
Q

most deaths from heart attacks are caused by

A

ventricular fibrillation of heart

195
Q

what is the % of survival if you make it to the ED w/ MI

A

90%

196
Q

heart attack symptoms

A
  • chest pain or pressure
  • pain
  • fullness
  • squeezing sensation of chest
  • jaw pain
  • toothache
  • headache
197
Q

what is heart attack

A

death of heart muscle from the sudden blockage of a coronary artery by a blood clot

198
Q

blockage of a coronary artery deprives the heart muscle of

A

blood and oxygen, causing injury to the muscle, injury to the heart muscle causes chest pain and chest pressure sensation

199
Q

if blood flow is not restored to the heart muscle within

A

20-40 mins, irreversible death of heart muscle begins

200
Q

causes of heart attack

A
  • atherosclerosis
201
Q

atherosclerosis

A
  • gradual process = cholesterol plaques deposited in walls of arteries
  • plaques cause hardening of walls & narrowing of inner channel of artery
  • those arteries cant deliver enough blood to maintain normal function of parts of body they supply
202
Q

problem with atherosclerosis

A

can be silent (no symptoms)

203
Q

what can accelerate early atherosclerosis

A

smoking, hypertension, elevated cholesterol, diabetes mellitus especially if there is family history of early onset

204
Q

the cause of the rupture of plaque to causes the formation of the clot is unknown but contributing factors include

A

nicotine exposure, elevated LDL cholesterol, elevated levels of adrenaline, hypertension

205
Q

more heart attacks occur b/w

A

4am-10am because of the higher blood levels od adrenaline released from the adrenal glands

206
Q

symptoms of heart attack

A
  • chest pain/pressure
  • jaw pain, toothache, headache
  • nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort
  • heartburn/indigestion
  • arm pain (left arm)
  • upper back pain
  • general malaise (vague feeling of illness)
  • asymptomatic (common in diabetes mellitus)
207
Q

women are more likely to have atypical heart attack symptoms like

A
  • neck & shoulder pain
  • abdominal pain
  • nausea
  • vomiting
  • fatigue
  • shortness of breath
208
Q

what are the complications of a heart attack

A
  • heart failure
  • large amount of muscle dies, ability to pump blood to the rest of body is diminished
  • body retains fluid
209
Q

cholesterol that is combined with low-density lipoproteins (LDL) is the

A

“bad” cholesterol that deposits cholesterol in arterial plaques = elevated levels of LDL cholesterol associated w/ increased risk of heart attack

210
Q

cholesterol combined with HDL is the

A

“good” cholesterol = decreases risk of heart attack

211
Q

family history of heart disease

A
  • ppl w/ history have increased risk of heart attack
  • higher risk of early coronary heart disease including heart attack or sudden death before age 55 in males & before 65 in female
212
Q

how is a heart attack diagnosed?

A

ECG, blood tests

213
Q

what are cardiac enzymes

A

proteins that are released into the blood by dying heart muscles

214
Q

what are the cardiac enzymes

A

creatine phosphokinase (CPK) & troponin

215
Q

series of blood tests for the enzymes performed over a 24hr period are useful not only in confirming the diagnosis of a heart but…

A

the changes in their levels over time also correlates with the amount of heart muscle that has died

216
Q

people who think they are having heart attack should

A
  • chew 2 aspirins STAT after calling 911
  • increases chances of survival by reducing the size of the clot
217
Q

decreasing the hearts workload also helps limit tissue damage, what is given to do this

A

beta-blocker to slow heart rate
- slowing heart rate enables the heart to work less hard and reduce the area of damaged tissue

218
Q

most ppl also given what for heart attack

A

anticoagulant drug (heparin) to help prevent the formation of additional blood clots

219
Q

medical treatment options for heart attack

A
  • O2 given via nasal prongs = providing more O2 to heart helps keep tissue damage min
  • ppl experiencing extreme discomfort = morphine used to calm and reduce workload
  • given nitroglycerine = relieves pain by reducing the workload of heart & possibly by dilating arteries
220
Q

heart failure occurs

A

when heart muscle becomes weak & can’t pump enough blood to meet the body’s needs = not enough blood flow to provide the body’s organs with O2 & nutritions

221
Q

term heart failure means

A

heart is not working efficiently

222
Q

how does the heart compensate for heart failure

A

beats faster or more forcefully but eventually these fail & heart becomes more & more impaired

223
Q

heart failure results from a condition that

A

forces the heart to work harder & faster to keep blood flowing & may involve right, left, or both sides

224
Q

there are 2 basic problems in heart failure

A

systolic dysfunction, diastolic dysfunction

225
Q

systolic dysfunction

A

occurs when the heart can’t pump enough blood to supply all the body’s needs

226
Q

diastolic dysfunction

A

occurs when the heart cant accept all the blood being sent to it

227
Q

causes of heart failure

A
  • coronary artery disease
  • persistent hypertension
  • heart attack
  • diabetes
  • arrhythmias
  • heart valve disease
  • heart valve damage
  • viral infection
  • an enlarged wall
  • certain kidney conditions
228
Q

coronary artery disease (CAD)

A

condition that causes narrowing of arteries that supply the heart with blood, can damage & weaken

229
Q

persistent hypertension

A

forces the heart to pump against higher pressure, which causes it to weaken over time

230
Q

arrhythmias

A

abnormal heart rhythms causing pump inefficiently

231
Q

heart valve disease

A

caused by abnormalities been present since birth or developed over time

232
Q

heart valve damage

A

caused by rheumatic disease or infection

233
Q

viral infection

A

of heart muscle can weaken heart

234
Q

enlarged wall

A

b/w heart chambers (genetic condition) may be cause

235
Q

certain kidney conditions

A

increase BP & fluid buildup can increase the risk of HF by placing more stress on heart

236
Q

the heart compensates in 3 ways for HF

A
  • dilating (enlarging) to form a bigger pump
  • adding new muscle tissue to pump harder
  • beating at a faster rate
237
Q

appearance of HF symptoms can be

A

delayed for years bc heart tries to compensate

238
Q

as the heart compensates, several things happen…

A
  • heart can’t pump well enough to pump blood through body & back to heart again
  • blood backs up into legs & lungs, causing fluid build up = edema of ankles & legs, shortness of breath (pulmonary edema)
239
Q

right-sided HF

A

blood backs up into body

240
Q

right-sided HF causes…

A

edema of feet, ankles, & legs = leading to frequent urination at night, sudden weight gain, weakness, vertigo, painful stomach bloating

241
Q

left-sided HF

A

pulmonary edema can cause breathing problems = SOB, dyspnea (lying down), wheezing, coughing up blood tinged mucus, a dry cough, weakness, chest pain, rapid pulse

242
Q

diagnosing HF

A

exam to check for edema in legs & fluid in lungs
- dr order blood & urine tests, ECG, chest xray

243
Q

ejection fraction

A

proportion of blood that gets pumped out

244
Q

treating & preventing HF

A
  • managed with lifestyle adjustments & medication
  • cutting back on fluids
  • staying active but avoiding triggering HF symptoms
  • lower sodium intake to 2.3g daily (less sodium reduces fluid retention)
  • wearing special elastic stockings = reduce swelling in legs caused by fluid retention
  • weight management program
245
Q

HF can be treated with the following medications

A
  • ace inhibitors
  • angiotensin receptor blockers
  • certain beta-blockers
246
Q

ace inhibitors

A

expand blood vessels, allowing blood to flow more easily & making the heart’s work easier or more efficient

247
Q

angiotensin receptor blockers

A

useful in place of ACE inhibitors when they can’t be used or sometimes in addition

248
Q

certain beta-blockers

A

(metoprolol, bisoprolol)
- proven to help improve heart function

249
Q

digoxin increases the

A

force of the pumping action of the heart

250
Q

diuretics (furosemide) help the body

A

elimiate excess salt & water

251
Q

ways to maintain/improve heart health

A
  • control hypertension
  • eat a healthy diet
  • exercise
  • maintain blood sugar
  • maintain healthy cholesterol levels
  • quit smoking
252
Q

CAD is a type of

A

blood vessel disorder that occurs when fatty deposits (plaques) build up inside arteries (atherosclerosis)

253
Q

the major cause of CAD is

A

atherosclerosis

254
Q

risk factors for CAD (modifiable)

A
  • hypertension
  • high blood cholesterol & triglyercides
  • diabetes
  • unhealthy weight
  • unhealthy diet
  • too much alcohol
  • not enough physical activity
  • smoking
  • stress
255
Q

non-modifiable risk factors

A
  • age
  • sex (increases after menopause)
  • family history
  • women who had pre-eclampsia during pregnancy
  • indigenous heritage
  • south asian & african heritage
  • socioeconomic status
256
Q

symptoms of CAD

A
  • angina
  • SOB
  • fatigue
  • pain
  • dizziness
    women experience different symptoms suchas
  • vague chest discomfort
  • fatigue
  • sleep difficulties
  • indigestion
  • anxiety
257
Q

what is the first symptom of CAD

A

heart attack

258
Q

how is CAD diagnosed

A
  • full med history (full physical)
  • chest xrays
  • angiography
  • echocardiogram
  • ECG
  • stress test
259
Q

treatment for CAD

A
  • medications (anti-platelets, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, nitroglycerine)
  • surgical and non-surgical procedures (percutaneous coronary intervention, coronary artery bypass surgery, lifestyle)
260
Q

acute coronary syndrome

A

sudden blockage of a coronary artery, causes angina or heart attack

261
Q

ppl who experience an acute coronary syndrome have

A

chest pressure, SOB, and fatigue

262
Q

symptoms of acute coronary syndrome

A
  • may occur at rest or during exertion
  • pain in back, jaw, neck, arm
  • nausea
  • chest pain (described as tightness or heaviness)
  • SOB
  • loss of consciousness
  • pain in the upper abdomen
  • sweating
263
Q

ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) refers to

A

ST segment elevation of a pts ECG who generally have cardiac biomarkers (elevated troponin level) which indicate necrosis of heart muscle

264
Q

management of STEMI focuses on

A

early reperfusion therapy by thrombolytic or revascularisation w/ percutaneous coronary intervention

265
Q

non ST segment elevation acute coronary syndrome

A

symptomatic ppl whose 1st ECG shows no ST elevation

266
Q

NSTEMI

A

ppl who have not had ST elevation on their ECG, however, subsequent cardiac biomarkers are elevated

267
Q

define health

A

objective process characterized by functional stability, balance & integrity & viewed on a continuum

268
Q

determinants of health

A

complex interactions b/w social and economic factors, the physical environment & individual behaviours that determine health

269
Q

disease

A

condition that a practitioner views from pathophysiological model

270
Q

illness

A

experience of symptoms and suffering, refers to how the disease is perceived, lived with, & responded to by individuals & families

271
Q

health promotion

A

process of enabling people to increase control over,and to improve their health

272
Q

disease prevention

A

reduce the number of ppl afflicted with chronic diseases/health conditions and the cost burden on health care system

273
Q

canadian health act

A

federal legislation for health care insurance thats publically funded. its objective is to set out health care policy to protect, promote, and restore the physical & mental well-being of ppl & to facilitate reasonable access to health services without barriers

274
Q

primary prevention

A

aimed at preventing the onset of disease/condition

275
Q

example of primary intervention

A

immunizations, seat belts, education & counselling

276
Q

secondary prevention

A

aimed at early diagnosis & prompt treatment

277
Q

secondary prevention examples

A

screening examinations for pre-clinical evidence of cancer or pap smears

278
Q

tertiary prevention

A

aimed at decreasing complications & negative health effects in an individual with established disease

279
Q

tertiary prevention examples

A

meds & lifestyle change to normalize blood glucose levels in pts with diabetes

280
Q

primary health care

A

approach to health and a spectrum of services beyond traditional health care system (health promotion, illness & injury prevention, diagnosis & treatment)

281
Q

psychosocial rehab

A

range of social, educational, occupational, behavioural, and cognitive interventions to increase role performance & promote recovery in persons with illness

282
Q

case management

A

collab process of assessment, planning, facilitation, an advocacy for options and services to meet an individual’s health needs through communication and available resources

283
Q

who is the federal health minister

A

dr. jane philpott

284
Q

who is provincial health minister

A

adrian dix

285
Q

health regions in bc

A

fraser health, interior health, island health, northern health, vancouver coastal health

286
Q

health informatics

A

discipline at the intersection of infomation science, computer science & health care, deals with resources, devices, and methods required optimizing the storage, retrieval, and use of information in health

287
Q

what is legislation

A

laws enacted by a legislative body

288
Q

what are some laws that are enacted by psych nurses

A
  • mental health act
  • hospital act
  • health professions act
  • health care consent & care facility (admission) act
289
Q

what is the relationship of psychiatric nursing to other professional

A
  • looked at as professionals in mental health
  • looked at as part of a team
290
Q

2 main purposes of mental health act

A
  • provides authority, crtieria, & procedures for invountary admission & treatment
  • contains protections/safeguards for the rights of ppl involuntary admitted to facilities
291
Q

adults may be admitted voluntary for treatment of mental disorders under which acts?

A

hospital & mental health act

292
Q

what are 3 methods of arranging for involuntary treatment

A
  • physicians medical certificate = form 4, 2nd form 4 must be completed within 48 hrs for continue involuntary admission
  • police intervention = section 28, police apprehend person & take to physician for exam which then determines if pt is certifiable or not
  • order by judge = form 10 (completed by judge), form 9 (is completed by anyone with. areason to believe a person meets criteria for involuntary admission)
293
Q

what 4 criteria for involuntary admission under section 22

A
  • suffering from mental illness
  • requires psych treatment in designated facility
  • require care & supervision through designated facility to prevent the persons a substantial mental deterioration or for the persons own protection or others
  • not suitable as voluntary pt
294
Q

is it necessary to ahve involuntary pts sign form 5 (consent for treatment)

A

not necessary for pt to sign b/c pt can refuse & the director can sign to give consent, it is mandatory to have form 5 signed as this give consent to provide psych treatment

295
Q

what type of treatment does the form 5 give consent to

A

psych treatment

296
Q

1st form 4

A

medical certificate (48 hrs)

297
Q

2nd form 4

A

medicate certificate (1 mont)

298
Q

1st form 6

A

renewal certificate (1 month)

299
Q

2nd form 6

A

renewal certificate (3 mon)

300
Q

3 form 6 & so on

A

renewal certificate (6 months)

301
Q

what is form 11 & who signs

A

request for 2nd opinion (pt)

302
Q

what is form 13 & how often staff required to give form & review it with pt

A
  • pt rights
  • given upon admission, transfers to another facility, pt status changes from voluntary to involuntary, when renewal certificates are completed
303
Q

how is rights info given to pts

A
  • pt must be given a copy of form 13 & have info explained. tothem
  • form must be signed & copy retained on pts chart
  • if pt doesn’t understand, must be repeated as soon as person is able to understand
  • facility should provide assistance to ppl who may not understand their right info
304
Q

what rights do involuntary pts have

A
  • hospital name & location
  • right to be informed of reasons why person was admitted
  • right to contact, retain, & instruct lawyer
  • right to regular reviews (renewals)
  • right to apply for a review panal hearing
  • right to have validity of the detention determined by court
  • right apply to court for discharge
  • right to second medical opinion
305
Q

what is review panel & what form is required

A
  • form 7
  • independent tribunal established to coonduct review panel hearings under MHA
306
Q

what difference b/w pt who has been discharged from hospital & an involuntary pt who has been on extended leave

A

when pt is discharged they no longer certified & have no conditions to follow
- if pt place on extended leave = means pt is still an involuntary pt on a leave from hospital longer than 14 days with conditions they must follow (FORM 20)

307
Q

what is form 21 & who completes it

A

directors warrant
- authorizes peace officers (police) to apprehend a person & take them designated facility

concepts 2 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions