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PSYCH 1000 > MIDTERM 1 REVIEW (CHAPTERS 1-4) > Flashcards

MIDTERM 1 REVIEW (CHAPTERS 1-4) Flashcards

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1
Q

What is psychology?

A

“Psychology is the scientific study of behaviour and the mind” (Textbook page 3)

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2
Q

Behaviour refers to?

A

the responses and actions that we can actually see

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3
Q

The mind refers to?

A

internal state and processes that cannot be seen directly.

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4
Q

How can we make inferences about the mind?

A

We can make inferences about the mind from observable measurable responses..

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5
Q

Psychology is…

A

Empircial.

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6
Q

Observations are driven by…

A

Theories.

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7
Q

Psychologists learn about the natural world.

A

Through a process called the scientific method.

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8
Q

The scientific method…

A

uses direct observations to learn about behaviour.

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9
Q

What are the goals of psychology?

A
  • To describe how people and animals behave.
  • To explain and understand the causes of behaviours.
  • To predict how people and animals behave under certain conditions.
  • To influence or control behaviour through knowledge and control of its causes to enhance human welfare.
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10
Q

The goals of psychology are…

A

interconnected.

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11
Q

What is the applied research?

A

Research conducted to look at a practical problem that occurs in a specific context.

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12
Q

What is basic research?

A

Research conducted to enhance general body of knowledge.

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13
Q

Learning about the way emotions and how the auditory system works are examples of…

A

Basic Research.

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14
Q

What are three levels of behavioural analysis?

A

Biological, psychological, and environmental level.

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15
Q

brain processes, and genetic influences are examples of the….

A

Biological level of behavioural analysis.

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16
Q

thoughts, feelings, and motivation are examples of the…

A

Psychological level of behavioural analysis.

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17
Q

social and physical environments we have been exposed to are examples of the…

A

environment level of behaviour analysis.

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18
Q

What is structualism?

A

Analysis of the mind in terms of its basic elements” to understand conscious experience (textbook p. 12)

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19
Q

Edward Titchener…

A

Used introspection to create map of human consciousness (Was also a student of Wundt)

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20
Q

Who was responsible for making psychology an independent field?

A

Wilhelm Wundt

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21
Q

Who was the founder of experimental psychology?

A

Wilhelm Wundt

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22
Q

What does introspection mean?

A

To look within.

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23
Q

What is an example of introspection?

A

Holding a steel ball with one hand, and describing the feeling as cold, smooth, heavy and hard.

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24
Q

Functionalism

A

Examines the purpose and function of conscious experience rather than its structure.

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25
Q

William James

A
  • Ideas stemmed from Darwin’s evolutionary theories.
  • Studied human mind with focus on behaviour in specific context.
  • Tried to explain how human thoughts and behaviours can help them adapt to their enviornments.
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26
Q

What is Darwin’s evolutionary theory (influence of William James’ ideas)

A
  • Darwin’s evolutionary theory suggested that traits would be passed down according to how beneficial they would be for survival and reproduction.

Example: Animals have traits that better equipped for survival and reproduction in their environment.

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27
Q

Who used the “free association” technique with his patients?

A

Sigmund Freud.

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28
Q

psychoanalytic approach

A

Examines how behaviour and personality can be influenced by unconscious forces.

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29
Q

What is the “free association” technique?

A

This involved asking patients any thoughts that came into their mind.

What he noticed is that eventually his patients who were in pain would talk about painful almost “forgotten” childhood experiences that tended to be sexual in nature.

After his patients remembered and relived the experiences, their symptoms tended to improve.

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30
Q

In the early 20th century psychology started to see a rise in….

A

Behaviorism.

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31
Q

What is Behaviourism?

A

An approach that studies only behaviour that is observable.

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32
Q

Foundation of Behaviourism was based off the works of…

A

Ivan Pavlov

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33
Q

Ivan Pavlov….

A

A Russian psychologists who conducted experiments that showed learning can occur when events are paired with each other.

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34
Q

What’s is an example Ivan Pavlov’s theory of Classical Conditioning?

A

In an example of learning when events that are paired with each other is a bell with food.

Pavlov showed that dogs when food was brought every time a bell rang, dogs would start to salivate when they hear the bell even before they get the food.

This suggests that dogs learned to associate the sound of a bell with getting food had this automatic response.

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35
Q

John B. Watson

A

Was known to lead the movement of behaviourism.

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36
Q

John B. Watson believed…

A

psychology should be based on observable behaviour rather than unobservable inner consciouness.

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37
Q

B.F Skinner…

A

examined how behaviour is influenced by rewards and punishments.

He changed the environment to see how it affects behaviour.

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38
Q

B.F Skinner believed

A

the environment can be a powerful way to change to behaviour in beneficial ways, enhancing human welfare.

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39
Q

Skinner’s approach was known as…

A

Radical Behaviorism.

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40
Q

One problem with skinner’s approach…

A

is that it could limit what could be studied in psychology.

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41
Q

In 1960’s and 70’s

A

psychologists were able to show that cognitive behaviourist, processes like attention and memory can actually be studied

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42
Q

Albert Bandura

A

Was a cognitive behaviourist, believed that the environment influences people’s behaviour by influencing their thoughts.

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43
Q

Cognitive Behaviourism suggests

A

Learning experiences and the environment influence people’s behaviours by giving them information to behave effectively.

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44
Q

Cognitive Behaviourists tend to focus on…

A

the way people respond to a certain stimulus.

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45
Q

What is missing from behaviourist and cognitives approaches.

A

The influence other people have on behaviours (behaviour does not occur in isolation)

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46
Q

What inspired development in social and personality psychology?

A

Observations from WWII.

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47
Q

Social psychology is the study of what?

A

how the presence of other people influences our behaviours.

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48
Q

Personality psychology is the study what?

A

How different personality traits and characteristics can influence the way people think and behave.

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49
Q

Our behaviour is a function of what

A

The individual and their environment.

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50
Q

Sigmund Freud believed what?

A

that humans not only have conscious experiences, but also have an unconscious part of the mind that could influence behaviour.

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51
Q

In early 20th century…

A

psychologists in Europe focused on studying mental processes.

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52
Q

Cognitive approach emerged with the work on memory by which two psychologists?

A

Hermann Ebbinghaus and Frederick Bartlett.

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53
Q

Gestalt psychology was…

A
  • emphasized perception and experience as a whole, instead of in parts
  • was a precursor to cognitive psychology.
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54
Q

Noam Chomsky as linguist argued that…

A

grammar and vocabulary were too complex to be explained the behaviourist perspective.

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55
Q

Cognitive psychology is the modern psychological perspective that focuses on what?

A

processes such as memory, thinking and language

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56
Q

The humanistic perspective?

A

Focuses on the positive aspects of humanity and examined conditions that would allow humans to live a productive and fulfilling life.

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57
Q

Who are the prominent psychologists of humanistic perspective?

A

Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow.

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58
Q

The biological perspective?

A

Examines how brain processes and other bodily functions influence behaviour.

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59
Q

Donald Hebb and Wilder Penfield are?

A

Prominent neurosceientists.

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60
Q

Who generated interest in the field of child psychology?

A

Anna Freud.

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61
Q

Who examined healthy childhood attachments and different attachment styles?

A

Mary Ainsworth

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62
Q

Mamie Phipps Clark

A

examined self identity in Black children, negative outcomes of segregation for Black Children?

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63
Q

Overall, what did all these approaches throughout history do?

A

they all contributed to to the study of psychology and provided insights into the facts that shape behaviour?

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64
Q

What are the steps in the scientific process

A
  1. Identify; Identify a question of interest.
  2. Gather; gather information and form hypothesis.
  3. Test; test hypothesis by conducting research.
  4. Analyze; analyze data from research, make tentative conclusions, and report findings.
  5. Build; try to build body of knowledge about the topic.
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65
Q

What is a Hypothesis?

A

a specific prediction about some phenomenon that often takes the form of an “if-then” statement.

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66
Q

What is a theory?

A

a set of formal statements that explains how and why certain events are related to one another (broader than hypotheses, and in psychology theories typically specify lawful relations between certain behaviours and their causes)

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67
Q

What are the two approaches to understanding behaviour

A
  1. Hindsight (after-the-fact understanding) - “learning the hard way”.
  2. Understanding (through prediction and theory building) - “learning the easy way”
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68
Q

What is the law of parsimony?

A

if two theories can explain and predict the sam phenomena equally well, the simpler theory is the preferred one.

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69
Q

What is a variable?

A

any characteristic or factor that can vary. (ex. People’s sex, height, hair colour, age, income, and grade point average)

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70
Q

What is the operational definition of a variable?

A

defines a variable in terms of specific procedures used to produce or measure it (example - testing academic performance and stress, and using GPA as the operational variable for academic performance and using biological level of level of analysis for stress, such as heart rate, muscle tension, and sweating)

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71
Q

What is social desirability bias?

A

the tendency to respond in a socially acceptable manner rather than how one truly feels or behaves.

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72
Q

What are unobtrusive measures?

A

recording behaviour in a way that keeps participants unaware that certain responses are being measured. (for example, testing reaction time while intoxicated, by playing a party game)

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73
Q

What does the term reliable refer to?

A

consistent observations.

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74
Q

What are archival measures

A

records or documents that already exist.

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75
Q

Psychological tests measure?

A

to measure many different variables, by assessing how people typically feel and behave.

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76
Q

Physiological measure record?

A

physiological response to asses what people are experiencing (ex. heart rate, blood pressure, VO2 max etc.)

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77
Q

What is descriptive research?

A

identifying how humans and other animals behave, particularly in natural settings

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78
Q

What is a case study?

A

an in depth analysis of an individual, a group, or event.

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79
Q

What is a naturalistic observation?

A

research observing behaviour as it occurs in a natural setting and attempts to avoid inflicting the behaviour (ex. chimpanzees in the wild)

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80
Q

What is survey research?

A

Obtaining information about a topic by administering questions or interviewing many people.

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81
Q

What is population (in research) ?

A

all individuals who are interested about drawing a conclusion.

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82
Q

What is a sample?

A

the subset of individuals drawn from the largest population of interest.

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83
Q

What is the representative sample?

A

the sample that reflects the important characteristics of population.

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84
Q

What is random sampling?

A

Sampling where every member of the population has an equal probability of being chose.

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85
Q

What is stratified random sampling?

A

random sampling after dividing population into different sub groups. (ex. boys and girls)

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86
Q

What is an unrepresentative sample?

A

A sample that produces distorted results.

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87
Q

What are the 3 components of correlation research?

A
  1. The researcher *measures one variable (X), such as a person birth order.
  2. The research *measures a second variable (Y), ex. personality trait.
  3. The researcher statistically determines whether X and Y are related.
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88
Q

Why are two reasons why correlation does not establish causation?

A
  1. Bidirectionally problem.

2. Spurious

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89
Q

What is the bidirectional problem?

A

The possibility that X may have caused Y, Y may have caused X, or that both variables influenced each other.

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90
Q

What does spurious refer to?

A

The possibility there was no genuine correlation between two events.

(a third unaccounted variable may really be the cause of why X and Y appear correlated)

Z causes X and Y.

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91
Q

What is the correlation coefficient?

A

a statistic that indicates the direction and the strength of the relation between two variables.

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92
Q

What is positive correlation?

A

indicates that higher score on one variable are associated with higher scores on another variable.

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93
Q

What is negative correlation?

A

indicates that higher scores on one variable are associated lower scores on another variable?

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94
Q

What are scatterplots?

A

graphs that show the correlation between two variables.

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95
Q

What does correlation allow us to do?

A

Make predictions.

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96
Q

What does correlation establish?

A

whether there is a real-world association between two variables.

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97
Q

What are the three essential characteristics of an experiment?

A
  1. The researcher manipulates (i.e, controls) one or more variables.
  2. The researcher measures whether this manipulation influences other variables.
  3. The researcher attempts to control extraneous factors that might influence the outcome of the experiment.*
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98
Q

What is an independent variable?

A

the factor (variable) that is manipulated by the experimenter.

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99
Q

What is the dependant variable?

A

The factor that is measured by the experimenter and that may be influenced by the independent variable.

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100
Q

What is an experimental group?

A

A group that receives treatment or an active level of the independent variable.

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101
Q

What is a control group?

A

A group that is not exposed to the treatment or receives zero level of independent variable,

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102
Q

In an experiment what is the minimum amount of levels an independent variable must have?

A

Two levels.

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103
Q

What is between groups design?

A

each group in the experiment is composed of different set of participants.

104
Q

What is random assignment?

A

A procedure in which each participant has an equal likelihood of being assigned to any group within an experiment.

105
Q

What is the problem with between group design and how is it solved?

A

If the groups are preselected, one set may have worse vision, or less driving experience than the other group. This can be solved through a process called random assignment:

106
Q

What are the two basic ways to design an experiment?

A
  1. Between group design.

2. Repeated measures.

107
Q

What is repeated measures?

A

each participant is exposed to all the conditions (levels) of an independent variable.

108
Q

What is the problem with repeated measures and how is it solved?

A

If the levels are tested in chronological order, participants may get tired and fatigued which distorts the study. This problem is solved through counterbalancing.

109
Q

What is counterbalancing?

A

a procedure in which the order of conditions is varied so that no condition has an overall advantage relative to the other.

110
Q

What is interaction?

A

a procedure in which the order of conditions is varied so that no condition has an overall advantage relative to the other.

ex. traffic density, cellphone use, and driving safety.
- may show that it is less safe to drive in high density traffic while using a cellphone, then low density traffic.

111
Q

What are confounding variables?

A

When two independent variables are intertwined in such a way that we cannot determine which one has influenced a dependent variable.

ex. Music, Mood-level, and ability to do a task.

we do not know whether the music or mood level influenced the ability of the participants to do a cognitive task.

112
Q

What is a placebo?

A

a substance that has no pharmacological effect.

113
Q

What is the placebo effect?

A

When people receiving a treatment show a change in behaviour because of their expectations, not because the treatment itself had any specific benefit.

114
Q

What is the experimenter expectancy effect?

A

the subtle and unintentional way researchers influence their participants to respond in a manner that is consistent with the researcher’s hypothesis.

115
Q

What is a double blind procedure?

A

the participants and the experimenter are kept blind as to which experimental condition the participant is in, which simultaneously minimizes the participants placebo effects, and the experimenters expectancy effects.

116
Q

What is external validity?

A

the degree to which the results of a study can be generalized to other populations, setting and conditions.

117
Q

What is replication?

A

the process of repeating a study to determine whether the original effects can duplicated.

118
Q

What is meta-analysis

A

A statistic procured of combing the results of different studies that examine the same topic to test the overall significant of the findings.

119
Q

What is cross-cultural replication?

A

examining whether findings generalize across different cultures.

120
Q

What must psychologists do when conducting a study?

A
  • protect and promote the welfare of participants.
  • Avoid doing harm to participants.
  • Not carry out any studies unless the probable benefit is proportionately greater than the risk.
121
Q

What is incomplete disclosure?

A

occurs when participants are misled about the nature of a study is highly controversial Participants must be debriefed at the end of the experiment.

122
Q

What is informed consent?

A

explaining all the aspects of the procedure and ensure that the procedure is understood.

123
Q

What is debriefing?

A

telling the participants who have been incompletely disclosed, true nature of the study at the end of the experiment.

124
Q

What is pseudoscientific misinformation?

A

Psychobabble that is made up to sound scientific.

125
Q

What are neurones?

A

specialized cells that are the basic building blocks of the nervous system.

126
Q

What are dendrites?

A

Branchlike fibres from the cell body that are specialized receiving units that provide the input from neighbouring neurones.

127
Q

Axons…

A
  • Conduct electrical impulses away from the cell body to other neurones.
  • brand out at the end to from a number of axon terminals.
128
Q

What 2 important things do neurones do?

A
  1. Generate electricity.

2. Release chemicals (allow them to communicate with other neurones with muscles and glands.

129
Q

What do glial cells do?

A

support, nourish, and protect the neurones.

  • manufacture nutrients chemical neurones need, absorb toxins and waste.
130
Q

Glial cells outnumber neurones?

A

10:1

131
Q

What is the blood brain barrier?

A

a specialized barrier that prevents many substances, including a wide range of toxins, from entering the brain.

132
Q

What are the 3 steps of nerve activation?

A
  1. At rest, the neurone has an electrical resting potential due to the distribution of positively and negatively charged chemicals (ions) inside and outside the neurones.
  2. When stimulated, a flow of ions in and out through the cell membrane reverses the electrical charge of the resting potential, producing an action potential.
  3. The original distribution of ions is restored, and the neurone is again at rest and capable of again being activated.
133
Q

What is resting potential (in millivolts)

A

resting potential is -70 millivolts

134
Q

What is graded potential?

A

changes of neurone membrane that is not all or none.

depolarization?

135
Q

What is depolarization?

A

The shift from negative to positive voltage.

136
Q

What is action potential?

A

a sudden reversal in the neurone membrane voltage, during which the membrane voltage momentarily moves from -70 millivolts (inside) to +40 millivolts.

137
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

A

When the membrane is not excitable and cannot generate another action potential.

138
Q

What does the absolute refractory period do?

A

Places a limit on the rate at which impulses can occur (in humans this is about 3000 impulses per second.

139
Q

Action potential is….

A

all or nothing! for specific type of neon, action potential occur at uniform and maximum intensity or they do not occur at all this is all-or-none law.

140
Q

What is graded potential?

A

changes in the negative resting potential that do not reach the -50 millivolts action potential threshold.

141
Q

What is the action potential threshold?

A

-50 millivolts.

142
Q

To reach action potential the negative potential inside an action must change from?

A

-70 to -50 millivolts.

143
Q

What is the myelin sheath?

A

A insulating fatty layer derived from glial cells that increases the rate of neural transmission.

144
Q

What are the nodes of ranvier?

A

gaps where the the myelin interrupted and is either extremely thin or empty.

145
Q

Neural signals jump from…

A

one node of ranvier to the next.

146
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

A neurological disorder, where the immune system attack the myelin sheath.

147
Q

How do neurones communicate?

A

through synaptic transmission.

148
Q

What is a synapse

A

A functional (not physical) connection between a neurone and its target.

149
Q

What is a synaptic cleft?

A

a gap between the axon terminal of one neurone and the dendrite of the next neurone.

150
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

chemicals produced by neurones that carry messages across the synapse to either excite or inhibit the activity of the next cell.

151
Q

Where are neurotransmitter synthesized?

A

inside neurones.

152
Q

Where are neurotransmitters stored?

A

In synaptic vesicles.

153
Q

What released neurotransmitters?

A

Postsynaptic neurones.

154
Q

What do neurotransmitter bind to?

A

cross synaptic space, and bind receptor sites

155
Q

What are receptor sites?

A

large protein molecules embedded in the receiving neurone’s cell membrane.

156
Q

Specific Neurones bind to…

A

specific sites?

157
Q

What are excitatory transmitters?

A

neurotransmitters that create depolarization, stimulate the inflow of sodium ions, and increase likelihood of action potential.

158
Q

What are inhibitory neurotransmitters?

A

hyper-polarizes the neurones membrane, stimulates ion channels (to allow K+, potassium to flow out) decreases the likelihood of action potential.

159
Q

What do inhibitory neurotransmitters help prevent?

A

Uncoordinated discharges such as seizures, by fine-tuning responses.

160
Q

Neurotransmitters activate or inhibit neurones until what?

A

Deactivation.

161
Q

What are the two ways deactivation can happen?

A
  1. Breakdown: other chemicals in synapse break down neurotransmitter components.
  2. Re-uptake: neurotransmitters are taken back into presynaptic axon.
162
Q

What are neurophysical tests?

A

Measure verbal and nonverbal behaviour.

163
Q

What is Acetylcholine (AcH)?

A

best understood neurotransmitter involved in memory and muscle production.

164
Q

What happens if Acetylcholine AcH is underproduced?

A

Thought to be an important factor of Alzheimer’s Disease, a degenerative brain disorder involving profound memory impairment.

165
Q

What is dopamine?

A

neurotransmitter that meditates a wide range of function that includes motivation, reward, and feeling of pleasure, voluntarily motor control, and control of thoughts process.

166
Q

What happens if dopamine if underproduced?

A

thought to be an important factor of Parkinson’s disease, a disorder where people lose voluntarily motor control.

167
Q

What is serotonin?

A

a neurotransmitter that influence mood, eating, sleep, and sexual behaviour.

168
Q

What happens if someone is abnormally sensitive to serotonin?

A

Greater likelihood of depression.

169
Q

What are endorphins?

A

neurotransmitters reduce pain and increase feelings of well-being.

170
Q

What are neuromodulators?

A

modulators that can either increase or decrease the sensitivity of neurone on their specific transmitters. (effect on eat, sleep help maintain homeostasis)

171
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

a constantly balanced or constant internal state.

172
Q

What is TMS?

A

transcarnial magnetic stimulation: magnetic coil is placed to a person’s head to generate a magnetic field that disrupts activity in the brain region just under the coil. This allows the region to be displayed temporarily without any form of surgery or other invasive activity.

173
Q

What is EEG?

A

electrical troencephalogram - Electrical recording: records electrical activity of thousand of neurones. Some EEG patterns correspond to wakefulness & sleep.

174
Q

What is a CT scan?

A

Computerized axial tomography: uses X-ray technology to study brain structures. Computer analysis’ brain image and then reconstructs it.

175
Q

What is a PET?

A

Positron emission tomography scans: measures brain activity including metabolism, blood flow, and neurotransmitter activity.

176
Q

What is a MRI?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging: combines features of of CT and PET scans and can be used to study both brain functions and activity. Measures magnetic pulse and is more sensitive then CT or PET.

177
Q

What are 4 major areas of the brain?

A
  1. Hindbrain
  2. Midbrain
  3. Forebrain
  4. Cerebral Cortex
178
Q

What is the medulla (Hindbrain)?

A

part of hindbrain that plays in important role in vital bodily functions such as heart rate and respiration. Two way thoroughfare for all sensory information, where neurones cross over.

179
Q

What is the Pons (Hindbrain)?

A

lies just above the medulla, and regulates sleep, dreaming and respiration.

180
Q

What is the Cerebellum (Hindbrain)?

A

the motor conditioning centre: is concerned primarily with the muscular movement coordination but it also plays a role in certain types of learning and memory.
Alcoholic disrupts movement-control functions of the cerebellum.

181
Q

What is the midbrain?

A

The Midbrain contains clusters of sensory and motor neurone, as well as many sensory and motor fibre tracts that connect higher and lower portion of the nervous system. Is an important relay centre for the visual and auditory systems. Here nerve impulses from the eyes and ears are organized and sent to forebrain structures involved in visual and auditory perception. Contains motor neurone that control eye movement.

182
Q

What is the reticular formation? (midbrain)

A

Reticular formation: Is the brain’s gatekeeper. Shaped like a reticulum or net. Acts as a kind of sentry, both alerting higher centres of the brain that messages are coming and then either blocking those messages or allowing them to go froward. (ascending and descending part)

183
Q

What is the thalamus?

A

Thalamus: sensory switchboard that routes sensory information to appropriate place. eg, visual goes to visual centres; auditory goes to auditory centres.

184
Q

What is the Basal Ganglia?

A

Basal Ganglia: Critical for voluntary movement and muscle control. Is 5 distinct structures around thalamus.

185
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

play a major role in controlling biological drives such as sexual behaviour, eating, drinking aggression and emotion. Manafuactures ‘orexin’ - stimulates eating and connects to pituitary glands which control hormones. Damage can disrupt these behaviours.

186
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

system that helps coordinate behaviours needed to satisfy motivational and emotional urges that arise in the hypothalamus.

187
Q

What is the pleasure centre and reward & motivation area of limbic system called?

A

‘nucleus accumbens’.

188
Q

What is the nucleus accumbens?

A

part of limbic system linked to to effects of drugs & abuse and rewards. Cocaine, amphetamines, opitaites, stimulates the release of fompanine in the nucleus accumbens. Rewards such as food, and sexual activity also release dopamine in this area.

189
Q

What is the hippocampus?

A

is involved in forming and retrieving memories.

190
Q

What is the forebrain?

A

Consists of two large verbal hemispheres, left and right, that wrap around brain stem?

191
Q

What is the amygdala?

A

organizes emotional responses patterns, particularly those linked to aggression and fear. Produces emotional responses without the brain knowing.

192
Q

What does the cerebral cortex consist of?

A

2/3 cm of sheet of grey (unmyelinated cells), 75% of area lies within fissures folds. Provides landmarks for dividing cortex into major areas.

193
Q

What are the four lobes of the verbal cortex called?

A

Frontal, Parietal, Occipital, and Temporal.

194
Q

What is the function of the motor cortex?

A

controls movement on opposite side of body (over 600 voluntary muscles)

195
Q

What is the function of the somatic sensory cortex

A

receives sensory infromation from the opposite side of the body. At least one specific are for each sense. Located in parietal lobe.

196
Q

What are the two areas that govern the production of speech?

A
  • Wernicke’s area.

- Broca’s area.

197
Q

What is Wernicke’s area?

A

An area in the temporal lobe involved in language comprehension

198
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A

in the frontal lobe is necessary for normal speech production.

199
Q

What is the association cortex?

A

found within all levels of cerebral cortex is critically involved in the highest level of mental functioning; including perception, language, and thought. Referred to as the “silent areas” because the electrically stimulating them does not give rise to either sensory experience or motor response. Accounts for 75% of human brain.

200
Q

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

A

it is responsible for human qualities such as: self awareness, planning, emotional experience. Much bigger in humans than animals.

201
Q

What is the function of the prefrontal cortex?

A

seat of executive functions. responsible for goal setting, judging and planning.

202
Q

What is (brain) lateralization?

A

refers to the relatively greater localizations of a function in one hemisphere or the other. (ex. spacial relations, melodies)

203
Q

What is the human difference?

A

Frontal lobe much bigger in humans than animals.

204
Q

What is the corpus callosom?

A

a neural bridge that acts as a major communication link between the two hemispheres and allows the two hemispheres to connect. (ex. verbal, logical abilities)

205
Q

What is aphasia?

A

the partial or Toal loss of the ability to communicate using language.

206
Q

What is neural plasticity?

A

refers to the ability of neurone to change in structure and function.

207
Q

What causes neurones to change>.

A

experience and the environment.

Cultura factors: chines language uses pictorial images. Does this mean less language specialization in the left hemisphere.

208
Q

Recovery of function, neural reoganization:

A
  • 1/2 year-ol has 50% more synapses than mature adult.
  • Unused, weaker synapses deteriote.
  • Adults, surviving neurone can modify themselves structurally or biochemically.
209
Q

Right Hand Left Hand Brain Lateralization analogy:

A

Right Hand - 90% of population.

  • 95% have left hemispheres language dominance.

Left-handed

  • 50 % have left hemisphere language dominance.
  • 25% have right hemishoehr language dominance.
  • 25% have language function in both hemispheres.
210
Q

What is a genotype?

A

the specific genetic makeup of an individual.

211
Q

What is a phenotype?

A

observable characteristics produced by genetic endowment.

212
Q

What is chromosome?

A

tightly coiled molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) that is partially covered in protein.

213
Q

How many chromosomes are in a cell?

A

46 (23 pairs)

214
Q

What is the 23rd chromosome?

A

sex chromosome (xx female, xy male)

215
Q

What are genes?

A

the DNA portion of the chromosome carrying hereditary blueprints in units.

216
Q

What are alleles

A

alternative forms of a gene that produce different characteristics.

217
Q

What is a dominant allele?

A

always expressed in phenotype

218
Q

What is a recessive allele

A

Only expressed in homozygous pair of alleles.

219
Q

What are dominant genes?

A

a gene where the particular characteristic it controls will be displayed.

220
Q

What are recessive genes?

A

a gene where the particular characteristics of the gene will not be displayed.

221
Q

What is polygenic transmission?

A

when a number of gene pairs combine their influences to create a single phenotypic trait.

222
Q

What are epigenetic?

A

refers to lasting change in gene expression during development that were not due to genetic changes (changes to the gene themselves) , but to changes around genes

223
Q

Recombinant DNA procedures?

A

researches use specific enzymes to cut the long threadlike molecules of genetic DNA into pieces, combine them with DNA from another organisms and insert new strand into a host organism

224
Q

What is the Knockout procedure?

A

altering a specific gene in order to prevent it from carrying out is normal function.

225
Q

What is the hereditary coefficient?

A

Determines the extent to which variation in particular characteristic in a group can be attributed to genetic factors. (ex. height = 0.80 or 80%)

226
Q

What is Adoption studies?

A

an adoptee is compared on some characteristics with the biological parents, genetic endowment vs adoptive parents, no genes shared.

227
Q

What is twin studies?

A

zygotic one egg, identical twins, and dizygotic (two eggs) fraternal twins, are studied in terms of characteristics.

228
Q

What is the reaction range?

A

the range possibilities - the upper and lower limits -that

229
Q

What is evolution?

A

is the change over time in the frequency with which particular genes and their characteristics they produce occur within and interbreeding population.

230
Q

What is natural selection?

A

Characteristics that increase the likelihood of survival and ability to reproduce within a particular environment are more likely to be preserved in the population and therefore will become more common in species over time. The opposite is also true.

231
Q

What are adaptations?

A

the product of natural selection. Allow organisms to meet recurring environmental changes to their survival thereby increasing their reproductive ability.

232
Q

What are domain specific adaptations?

A

adaptations designed to solve a particular problem (ex. suitable mate, safe foods, environmental hazards etc.)

233
Q

What is evolutionary personality theory?

A

Where did the traits come from in the first place?

Buss argues basic personality traits found in all humans are found for two reasons: physical survival and reproduction of species.

234
Q

What is parental investment?

A

Parental Investment refers to the time, effort, energy, and risk associated with caring successfully for each offspring.

235
Q

What is polygamy?

A

one male, many females: occurs in species where there is low male parental investment and high female personal investment (ex. males must be bigger and compete, more aggressive females discriminate, picky)

236
Q

What is a monogamous mating system?

A

one male, one female, occurs when parental investment is high for both parents. (where it’s impossible for only one parent to care for their young: ex. birds)

237
Q

What is polyandry?

A

one female, many males. (females are larger, stronger, and more aggressive) ex. bees

238
Q

Polygynadrous (promiscuity)

A

Polygynandry (Promiscuity) - many females, many males. (reduces competition, creates piece ex. Bonoboos) birth control has stopped natural pressures.

239
Q

What is cooperation?

A

refers to situations where one individual helps another and in doing so also gains some advantage

240
Q

What is altruism?

A

occurs when one individual helps another, but in so doing they accrues some cost. (ex. bird alerting flock of predators, helps other birds get away, endangers itself)

241
Q

What is kin selection theory?

A

argues that altruism developed in order to increase survival or relatives.

242
Q

What is theory of reciprocal altruism?

A

argues that altruism is, in essence, a long-term cooperation.

243
Q

What is genetic determinism?

A

The idea that genes have invariant and unavoidable effects that cannot be altered.

  • the idea that genes are destiny (not true).
244
Q

What is Tay- Sachs?

A

An early onset disease caused by a recessive gene. Dysfunctional protein lead to breakdown of fats in brain which lead to blindness, mental dysfunctional, and death.

245
Q

What Huntington’s Chrorea?

A

a late onset disease where protein builds up in nervous systems cells, killing key cells in basal ganglia and cortex. This leads to movement disorders, complete behavioural beakrdown death. Caused by dominant gene.

246
Q

What is Down syndrome?

A

Chromosome abnormality. Usually, extra copy of chromosome 21 from one parent - trisomy. Affects 1 in 700 children. 21 smallest chromosome but has a profound impact on phenotype. Characteristic include facial features, short stature, heart deffects, susceptibility to respiratory infections, intellectual disabilit. Leukemia, Alzheimers. However, they are capable of substantial compensation.

247
Q

What is cloning?

A

Molecular technique where nucleus of adult cell is implant into un-fertilized egg. Identical offspring.

248
Q

What is concordance rate?

A

rate of co-occurence of a characteristics among individuals. Possible genetic contribution (higher rate among those more related genetically)

249
Q

Correlation and child IQ scores:

A

biological parent .28, adoptive . 15. Correlation with adopted parent declines with time and reaches nearly zero at teenage years. Strong evidence of genetic influence, little for experience.

250
Q

What is the Flynn effect?

A

worldwide improvement of IQ scores.

b/c Environment can influence IQ scores.

better environment = better average IQ scores

251
Q

What is Heritability?

A

is not an estimate of how much genetic contributes to intelligence of individual - but how much it contributes to differences in intelligence between people.

252
Q

Attitudes that have inherited component:

A

Attitudes toward preservation of life, equality, athleticism highest genetic componen, also tendency to abuse alcohol, personality disorder dimensions, seasonal mood changes.

253
Q

Greater parental investment =

A

more discriminating

254
Q

Lesser parental investment =

A

less discriminating, more competitive

255
Q

What is Darwin’s first deduction?

A

Given that organisms have an enormous capacity to overproduce, and populations, with a few exceptions, remain remarkably stable, we can deduce that: there is a struggle for survival.

256
Q

What is Darwins second deduction?

A
  • Individuals differ in their characteristics and many of these differences are heritable: this individuals who posses adaptive characteristics will reproduce more successfully than those who don’t and will pass on these characteristic to their offspring.

PSYCH 1000 (1 decks)

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