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ANP 1115 > Midterm 1 Review > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these develops from lymphoid stem cells?

A

Both T and B lymphocytes arise from lymphoid stem cells. Plasma cells are cloned from activated B lymphocytes.

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2
Q

What are functional characteristics of leukocytes?

A

positive chemotaxis, diapedesis, amoeboid motion

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3
Q

Which type of leukocyte provides protection against parasitic worms?

A

eosinophil

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4
Q

Which granular leukocytes act as our body’s bacteria killers and would dramatically increase in number during a bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils

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5
Q

You are awaiting the white blood cell differential results for a patient who presented with a ruptured appendix and peritonitis. Which type of leukocyte do you expect to be most elevated over its normal value?

A

Neutrophils are the body’s bacteria slayers, so you would expect more of them to be present during a serious acute bacterial infection like the one your unfortunate patient has.

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6
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is NOT used to propel lymph through lymphatic vessels?

A

small, heart-like pumps

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7
Q

What is the unique structural modification in lymphatic capillaries that increases their permeability?

A

Minivalves

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8
Q

Which of the following promotes closure of the minivalves associated with lymph capillaries?

A

increasing pressure inside the lymph capillary. Minivalves will allow fluid in when external pressure exceeds internal pressure but will prevent fluid loss when the pressures are reversed.

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9
Q

Lymph from the right leg ultimately is delivered to which duct in the thoracic region?

A

The thoracic duct. It seems like odd plumbing, but lymph from the entire body below the diaphragm (both the right and left sides) enters the venous circulation via the thoracic duct.

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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
to return excess interstitial fluid to the bloodstream
to transport absorbed lipids from the small intestine to the bloodstream
to participate in gas exchange at capillaries
to carry pathogens towards lymph nodes

A

to participate in gas exchange at capillaries

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11
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are NOT found in __________.

A

Bone marrow. Lymphatic vessels are absent from bone marrow and teeth, as well as most of the central nervous system.

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12
Q

Which statement correctly describes the origin of lymph fluid?
Lymph is secreted into the lymph vessels.
Lymph is excess tissue fluid formed from plasma that has leaked from capillaries
Lymph is fluid collected from arteriovenous anastomoses.
Lymph is collected from fluid that accumulates in veins as blood slowly circulates back toward the heart.

A

Lymph is excess tissue fluid formed from plasma that has leaked from capillaries

As blood circulates through the body, nutrients, wastes, and gases are exchanged between the blood and the interstitial fluid. The hydrostatic and colloid osmotic pressures operating at capillary beds force fluid (plasma) out of the blood at the arterial ends of the beds and cause most of it to be reabsorbed at the venous ends. The fluid that remains behind in the tissue spaces, as much as 3 L daily, becomes part of the interstitial fluid. The lymphatic vessels collect this excess interstitial fluid (now called lymph) and return it to the bloodstream.

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13
Q

Which of these lymphoid organs is part of a collection of tissues called the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) and removes pathogens entering the pharynx (throat)?

A

The tonsils function to protect the throat and surrounding tissues from infection via the mouth and nose.

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14
Q

Which of these lymphoid organs is organized with trabeculae and compartments containing white pulp and red pulp?

A

The spleen is a large lymphoid organ containing areas of lymphocytes on reticular fibers (white pulp) and areas of reticular connective tissue cords and blood-filled sinuses (red pulp).

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15
Q

Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs do(es) NOT contain reticular connective tissue?

A

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not contain reticular connective tissue. The stroma of the thymus consists of epithelial cells rather than reticular fibers. These epithelial cells provide the physical and chemical environment in which T lymphocytes mature.

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16
Q

What region of the lymph node contains follicles filled with dividing B cells?

A

The cortex. The lymphoid follicles of the cortex contain germinal centers dominated by B cells, which produce antibodies against antigenic agents.

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17
Q

Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?
They filter lymph.
They produce red blood cells.
They produce lymph.
They return lymph to circulation.

A

They filter lymph. Lymph nodes are rich with macrophages, B cells, and T cells; therefore, the lymph nodes are primed for activating the immune system. Structurally, lymph nodes have a capsule and medullary chords and sinuses that serve to filter lymph fluid.

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18
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A

The spleen is located in the left side of the abdominal cavity just beneath the diaphragm and is curled around the anterior aspect of the stomach. Its position leaves it vulnerable to damage in certain vehicle collisions.

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19
Q

Which tonsil is located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and is referred to as the adenoids if it is enlarged?

A

The pharyngeal tonsil is located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and is referred to as the adenoids if it is enlarged.

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20
Q

Which of the following organs or locations do(es) not contain MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)?

A

Lymph nodes. Lymph nodes are not a component of MALT, as they are not associated with mucous membranes.

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21
Q

With what does our immune system coat pathogens to facilitate their capture and accelerate phagocytosis?

A

Opsonins. Opsonins are needed to provide a gripping point on some cells that have capsules or other defenses against adherence by phagocytes.

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22
Q

What characterizes the chemotaxis phase of phagocyte mobilization?

A

Neutrophils and other WBCs migrate up the gradient of chemotactic agents to the site of injury.

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23
Q

How do interferons protect against viral infection in healthy cells?

A

Interferons encourage the production of antiviral proteins. These antiviral proteins are coded in the cell’s DNA. These proteins can degrade viral RNA and interfere with viral protein synthesis.

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24
Q

Which of the following events is not directly associated with inflammatory responses?

A

antibody production. Inflammation is a component of the body’s innate defenses. Antibody-mediated (humoral) immunity is a component of adaptive defenses.

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25
Q

Which type of chemical induces fever?

A

Pyrogens target neurons in the hypothalamus to increase the set point for thermoregulation, raising body temperature above normal (37°C).

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26
Q

Which of the following is an effect of complement activation?
fever
tissue repair
T cell activation
opsonization

A

opsonization. Complement proteins stimulate inflammation, serve as opsonins to aid in the phagocytosis of targeted antigens, and facilitate cytolysis.

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27
Q

The percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the:

A

Hematocrit

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28
Q

The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains

A

White blood cells

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29
Q

Which of the following is not a role of albumin?

It acts as a blood buffer
It contributes to plasma osmotic pressure
It serves an immune system function
It acts as a carrier molecule

A

It serves an immune system function

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30
Q

Match the component of plasma with its description and/or importance: Globulins.

A

Involved in transport of lipids; involved in immune response

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31
Q

Match the component of plasma with its description and/or importance: Electrolytes

A

Sodium, calcium, potassium, chloride, phosphate, sulfate

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32
Q

Match the following function of blood with the correct example: Transport.

A

Delivering oxygen from the lungs

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33
Q

Match the component of plasma with its description and/or importance: Water

A

Ninety percent of plasma volume; dissolving and suspending medium for solutes of blood

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34
Q

Which of the following is a protective function of blood?

A

Preventing infection

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35
Q

A healthy adult male has approximately __________ liters of blood.

A

5 to 6

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36
Q

A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is __________.

A

Albumin

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37
Q

Match the following part of separated blood with its definition: Hematocrit.

A

Erythrocyte portion of centrifuged blood

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38
Q

Match the following function of blood with the correct example: Regulation.

A

Match the following function of blood with the correct example: Regulation.

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39
Q

Match the component of plasma with its description and/or importance: Albumin.

A

Produced by liver; exerts osmotic pressure to maintain water balance between blood and tissues

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40
Q

Match the following part of separated blood with its definition: Plasma.

A

The liquid portion of centrifuged blood that sits atop everything else

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41
Q

Match the following disorder with the appropriate description: Sickle-cell anemia.

A

Caused by abnormal hemoglobin from a change in DNA, resulting in a change in one of the 146 amino acids of the beta chain of the globin molecule

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42
Q

Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have which type of anemia?

A

Sickle-cell anemia

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43
Q

Erythropoietin is made primarily by the __________.

A

Kidneys

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44
Q

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on making red blood cells (RBCs) very efficient oxygen transporters?

A

They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.

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45
Q

Aging red blood cells are fragmented and trapped mainly in the __________.

A

Capillaries of the spleen

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46
Q

One molecule of hemoglobin can bind a maximum of __________ oxygen molecules.

A

Four

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47
Q

Pernicious anemia may result from __________.

A

the lack of vitamin B12 in the diet or a deficiency of the intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12

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48
Q

Erythropoiesis is best defined as __________.

A

Red blood cell production

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49
Q

Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with __________.

A

Hemoglobin molecules

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50
Q

Choose the true statement about fetal hemoglobin.

Fetal hemoglobin is called hemoglobin A.

Fetal hemoglobin contains four alpha chains.

Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.

Fetal hemoglobin is produced until the baby is one year old.

A

Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.

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51
Q

The terms biconcave and anucleate apply to __________.

A

Red blood cells

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52
Q

Match the following disorder with the appropriate description: Hemorrhagic anemias.

A

Result from blood loss

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53
Q

Which type of anemia results from the destruction or inhibition of the red marrow by drugs, chemicals, ionizing radiation, or viruses?

A

Aplastic anemia

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54
Q

Match the following disorder with the appropriate description: Iron-deficiency anemia.

A

Can be a secondary result of hemorrhagic anemia, but it also results from inadequate diet or impaired absorption

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55
Q

Another term for reduced hemoglobin is __________.

A

deoxyhemoglobin

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56
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is caused by __________.

A

an Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy

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57
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Lymphocyte.

A

Small agranulocyte with a lifespan that varies from a few hours to decades

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58
Q

What is a function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytize bacteria

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59
Q

The process of actively metabolizing oxygen by neutrophils to produce bleach and hydrogen to kill bacteria is known as __________.

A

the respiratory burst

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60
Q

The most numerous leukocyte is the __________.

A

neutrophil

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61
Q

Which of the following is a function of basophils?

A

Release histamine during an allergic reaction

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62
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Basophil.

A

Bilobed nucleus and dark-staining cytoplasmic granules

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63
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Macrophage.

A

Highly phagocytic cell with a U or kidney shaped nucleus

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64
Q

Which cell would be expected to be elevated in a chronic infection like tuberculosis?

A

Monocytes (macrophages). Macrophages are actively phagocytic, and they are crucial in the body’s defense against viruses, certain intracellular bacterial parasites, and chronic infections such as tuberculosis.

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65
Q

Which of the cells might rise in an illness associated with eating raw shellfish?

A

Eosinophils

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66
Q

The migration of white blood cells out of the capillary blood vessels is called __________.

A

Diapedesis

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67
Q

Overproduction of white blood cells is called __________.

A

Leukocytosis

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68
Q

Match the following term with its function: Play a critical role in immunity.

A

Lymphocytes

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69
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Platelet-derived growth factor.

A

Stimulates blood vessel healing

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70
Q

Platelets are derived from __________.

A

Megakaryocytes

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71
Q

Match the following term with its function: Increase in number significantly during bacterial infections.

A

Neutrophils

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72
Q

Which of the following is considered a type of lymphocyte?

Neutrophils

Basophils

Macrophages

B-cells

A

B-cells

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73
Q

Match the following type of blood cell formed element with the appropriate description: Eosinophils.

A

Their deep purple nucleus has two lobes connected by a broad band of nuclear material; their large, coarse granules stain red with acid dyes.

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74
Q

Which cell would be expected to be elevated in a viral infection?

A

Lymphocytes

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75
Q

Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms, destroys antibody complexes, and modulates the immune response?

A

Eosinophils

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76
Q

Match the following term with its function: Differentiate into macrophages

A

Monocytes

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77
Q

The most numerous leukocyte is the __________.

A

Neutrophil

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78
Q

Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?

A

Phagocytize bacteria

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79
Q

Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms, destroys antibody complexes, and modulates the immune response?

A

Eosinophils

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80
Q

Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?

A

Destruction of virus-containing cells

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81
Q

Diapedesis refers to __________.

A

the movement of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces

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82
Q

Match the following type of blood cell formed element with the appropriate description: Platelets.

A

Not complete cells, but fragments of cells; they are very small compared to other cellular components.

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83
Q

Which property do white blood cells (WBCs) have in common?

A

WBCs are nucleated and have a protective function.

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84
Q

The lining of the heart chambers is called the __________.

A

Endocardium

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85
Q

The vessels that carry oxygen to the myocardium are called __________.

A

Coronary arteries

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86
Q

The walls of the __________ are thicker than the walls of any other heart chamber.

A

Left ventricle

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87
Q

The endocardium is composed of __________.

A

Squamous epithelium

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88
Q

Match the following structure with its description: Serous pericardium.

A

Thin, slippery, two-layered membrane

89
Q

Match the following structure with its description: Myocardium.

A

Middle layer of the heart, composed mainly of cardiac muscle

90
Q

The interventricular septum forms a dividing wall between the __________.

A

Left and right ventricles

91
Q

Guided by powerful signaling molecules, the human heart develops from __________.

A

Mesoderm

92
Q

Which of the following structures lies on the outside surface of the heart and is an integral part of the heart wall?

A

The epicardium

93
Q

The superior chambers of the heart are called the __________.

A

Atria

94
Q

The trabeculae carneae are located in the __________.

A

Ventricles

95
Q

Match the following structure with its description: Epicardium.

A

Inner layer of pericardium (called the visceral layer)

96
Q

Which of the following is not a role of the pericardium?

It anchors the heart to surrounding structures

It protects the heart

It facilitates heart conraction

It prevents the heart from overfilling with blood

A

It facilitates heart contraction. This is false

97
Q

Match the following structure with its description: Fibrous pericardium.

A

Loosely fitting superficial part of the sac enclosing the heart

98
Q

Which is the correct sequence of layers in the heart wall, starting with the outer layer?

A

Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium

99
Q

What part of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump?

A

The left ventricle

100
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about the shape, position, and location of the heart?

A

The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the pleural membrane.

101
Q

Identify the correct sequence of blood flow through the chambers of the heart.

A

Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle

102
Q

The inner lining of the fibrous pericardium is formed by the __________.

A

parietal layer of serous pericardium

103
Q

Match the following structure with its description: Myocardium.

A

Middle layer of the heart, composed primarily of cardiac muscle

104
Q

Match the area of the heart with the “exit” through which the blood leaves: Left ventricle.

A

Aortic semilunar valve

105
Q

When the mitral valve closes, it prevents the backflow of blood from the __________.

A

left ventricle into the left atrium

106
Q

What makes the heart valves open and close?

A

Differences in blood pressure

107
Q

Match the area of the heart with the “exit” through which the blood leaves: Left atrium.

A

Mitral (bicuspid) valve

108
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Aortic semilunar valve.

A

Prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle

109
Q

What is the purpose of the chordae tendineae?

A

Anchor the AV valves in the closed position so that they cannot open into the atrium

110
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Pulmonary semilunar valve.

A

Prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle

111
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Mitral valve.

A

Valve between the left atrium and left ventricle

112
Q

Indicate the valve separating the following areas of the heart: Right ventricle and pulmonary trunk.

A

Pulmonary semilunar valve

113
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Tricuspid valve.

A

Valve between the right atrium and right ventricle

114
Q

What muscles prevent the atrioventricular valves from everting during ventricular contraction?

A

Papillary muscles

115
Q

Indicate the valve separating the following areas of the heart: Right atrium and right ventricle.

A

Tricuspid valve

116
Q

Indicate the valve separating the following areas of the heart: Left ventricle and aorta.

A

Aortic semilunar valve

117
Q

Failure of which heart valve would allow blood to move from the left ventricle to the left atrium?

A

Mitral (bicuspid) valve

118
Q

Match the area of the heart with the “exit” through which the blood leaves: Right atrium.

A

Tricuspid valve

119
Q

Match the area of the heart with the “exit” through which the blood leaves: Right ventricle.

A

Pulmonary semilunar valve

120
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Aortic semilunar valve.

A

Prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle

121
Q

When the mitral valve closes, it prevents the backflow of blood from the __________.

A

Left ventricle into the left atrium

122
Q

Which of the following valves is most often faulty in the heart?

A

The mitral, or bicuspid, valve

123
Q

A metarteriole is a vessel that __________.

A

is intermediate between the arteriole and the capillary bed

124
Q

Match the following type of vessel with its structure: Elastic arteries.

A

Thick-walled, large vessels near the heart that conduct blood continuously away from the heart

125
Q

Blood flows directly from __________ into capillary beds.

A

arterioles

126
Q

Which of the following is true when comparing arteries and veins?

A

Arteries carry blood away from the heart; veins carry blood to the heart.

127
Q

Which of the following types of blood vessels have the proportionally thickest tunica media of all vessels?

A

Distributing arteries

128
Q

The endothelium is composed of __________.

A

Simple squamous epithelium

129
Q

Which vessels have a tunica media with relatively more smooth muscle than elastic tissue, and an elastic membrane on each face of the tunica media?

A

Muscular arteries

130
Q

The vessel layer that has a direct role in vasoconstriction is the __________.

A

Tunica media

131
Q

Match the following blood vessel layer with its description: Tunica intima.

A

Contains the endothelium (made of simple squamous epithelium)

132
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of layers in the vessel wall from outside to inside?

A

Tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima

133
Q

Match the following type of vessel with its structure: Arterioles.

A

Smallest of the vessels that lead into capillary beds

134
Q

_________ inhibits fibrinolysis by competing with plasminogen and may contribute to the formation of atherosclerotic plaques.

A

Lipoprotein (a)

135
Q

Which of the following blood vessels is the most susceptible to atherosclerosis?

A

The aorta

136
Q

Which of the layers of an artery wall is regulated by the sympathetic nervous system and many hormones?

A

Middle layer

137
Q

Match the following type of vessel with its structure: Muscular arteries.

A

Smaller vessels that distribute blood to specific body organs

138
Q

Exchange of gases and nutrients occurs by diffusion between the __________.

A

capillaries and tissue cells

139
Q

Match the following type of vessel with its structure: Veins.

A

Contain valves to assist blood flow back toward heart

140
Q

Which of the following regulates blood flow through most capillary beds?

A

Terminal arterioles

141
Q

Match the following type of vessel with its structure: Venules.

A

Smallest vessels leading away from capillaries

142
Q

Which of the following blood vessels do not contain intercellular clefts?

A

Arterioles

143
Q

Fluids would be likely to leave or filter out of the capillary if __________.

A

net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is greater than net osmotic pressure (OP)

144
Q

Which of the following conditions would not increase the chances of developing varicose veins?

A

Running in place

145
Q

The presence of __________ stabilizes the wall of capillaries.

A

Pericytes

146
Q

The vessels that exhibit the lowest level of permeability are the __________.

A

Continuous capillaries

147
Q

Up to 65% of the body’s blood supply is found in __________.

A

Veins

148
Q

The only vessels that provide direct access to nearly every cell in the body are the __________.

A

Capillaries

149
Q

The minute-to-minute blood flow through the capillary beds is determined by the __________.

A

Diameter of arterioles

150
Q

Match the lymphatic structure with the correct characteristic: Lymphatic capillary.

A

Smallest lymphatic vessel that collects excess tissue fluid

151
Q

A major function of the lymphatic system is __________.

A

return of tissue fluid to the cardiovascular system

152
Q

Which sequence best describes the flow of lymph through the lymphatic system?

A

Capillaries, vessels, trunks, ducts

153
Q

What is the lymphatic system’s role in relation to the cardiovascular system?

A

It maintains blood volume and, hence, pressure.

154
Q

Which of the following best describes the arrangement of lymphatic vessels?

A

A one-way system of vessels beginning with blind-ended lymphatic capillaries

155
Q

Lymphangitis presents itself as __________.

A

red lines under the skin that are sensitive to touch

156
Q

Match the lymphatic structure with the correct characteristic: Thoracic duct.

A

Receives lymph from all but the right upper limb and right side of the head and thorax

157
Q

Which statement is true of the thoracic duct?

A

It drains the lymph from the entire left side of the body and also the right abdomen and leg.

158
Q

Match the lymphatic structure with the correct characteristic: Right lymphatic duct.

A

Drains right side of the head, upper limb, and neck region

159
Q

Match the following with the appropriate description: Collecting lymphatic vessels.

A

Same three tunics as veins; the second-smallest lymph vessels

160
Q

Which of the following features is not common to both lymphatic vessels and veins?

A

Transport of chyle

161
Q

Select the lymphoid organ that cleanses the lymph.

A

Lymph nodes

162
Q

Which of the following vessels transport fluid back into the blood that leaks from the vascular system?

A

Lymphatics

163
Q

What part of the lymphatic system is most closely associated with capillary beds?

A

Lymphatic capillaries

164
Q

Match the following structure with its function: Lymphatic ducts.

A

Largest vessels; carry lymph fluid to subclavian veins

165
Q

Tumors that block the lymphatics or lymphatics are removed during cancer surgery may result in what condition?

A

Lymphedema

166
Q

Which of the following is not a function of lymphatic vessels?

A

Delivery of nutrients to tissues

167
Q

How are lymphatic capillaries different from blood capillaries?

A

Lymphatic capillaries have endothelial flap valves, but blood capillaries do not.

168
Q

Match the following with the appropriate description: Lymphoid tissue.

A

A type of loose connective tissue called reticular connective tissue; dominates all lymphoid organs except the thymus

169
Q

Which of the following lists the correct order of lymph flow through the lymph node?

A

Afferent vessel, subcapsular sinus, medullary sinuses, efferent vessel

170
Q

Match the following area of a lymph node with its description: Subcapsular sinus.

A

A large, baglike structure leading into a number of small sinuses

171
Q

Large lymphatic capillaries in a lymph node spanned by crisscrossing reticular fibers are known as __________.

A

Lymph sinuses

172
Q

Match the following area of a lymph node with its description: Hilum.

A

The indented region on the concave side of the node leading into the efferent vessels

173
Q

Match the following term to its description: Dendritic cell.

A

Captures antigens and brings them back to lymph nodes

174
Q

Match the following structure with its function: Lymph nodes.

A

Distinct bean-shaped structures that “filter” lymph fluid as it is moved toward the circulatory system

175
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of lymph nodes?

A

Lymph nodes produce lymph.

176
Q

Which of the following is a common way to distinguish an infection from cancerous growth in the lymph nodes?

A

Swelling due to cancer is often painless.

177
Q

A sentinel node is the first lymph node __________.

A

that receives lymph drainage from a body area suspected of cancer

178
Q

The lymphoid tissue’s structural framework is composed of __________.

A

reticular connective tissue

179
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant cell type found in the germinal center in a lymph node?

A

B lymphocytes

180
Q

Which statement is true about lymph nodes?

A

They have fewer efferent vessels than afferent vessels.

181
Q

Which lymphatic structure may also be a site of erythrocyte production in the fetus?

A

Spleen

182
Q

Which of the following statements about the spleen is false?

A

It is best to perform a splenectomy if the spleen is damaged in a car accident.

183
Q

Match the condition with the available descriptions: Splenomegaly.

A

Typically caused by septicemia, mononucleosis, malaria, or leukemia

184
Q

Which of the following are located in the spleen’s white pulp?

A

Lymphocytes

185
Q

In addition to providing a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance, the spleen also functions to ___________.

A

cleanse the blood

186
Q

Which of the following is not a role of the spleen?

A

Serves as a site of T cell maturation

187
Q

In addition to its lymphoid function, this organ holds a reservoir of platelets.

A

Spleen

188
Q

What blood vessels serve the spleen?

A

Splenic artery; splenic vein

189
Q

Match the lymphoid structure with the correct characteristic: Spleen.

A

A filter and reservoir for the blood

190
Q

Areas of lymphocytes suspended by reticular fibers in the spleen are known as __________.

A

White pulp

191
Q

This structure, attached to the first part of the large intestine, is in an ideal location to destroy bacteria before they breach the intestinal wall.

A

Appendix

192
Q

Which of the following is not a part of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)?

A

The spleen

193
Q

Match the condition with the available descriptions: Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

Uncontrolled multiplication and metastasis of undifferentiated lymphocytes

194
Q

Match the condition with the available descriptions: Lymphadenopathy.

A

Any disease of lymph nodes

195
Q

Match the condition with the available descriptions: Elephantiasis.

A

Tropical disease in which the lymphatics become blocked

196
Q

Match the condition with the available descriptions: Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

Giant malignant B cells

197
Q

The lymphoid organ(s) located in the throat that defend(s) against invading bacteria coming in through the mouth and nose is (are) __________.

A

the tonsils

198
Q

Match the following term with its description and/or location: Thymus gland.

A

Located in the inferior neck and extends into the superior thorax

199
Q

Match the condition with the available descriptions: Lymphoma.

A

A tumor of the lymphoid tissue (may be benign or malignant)

200
Q

Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are __________.

A

T lymphocytes

201
Q

Which of the following is the major lymphoid organ that “trains” T lymphocytes to become immunocompetent?

A

Thymus

202
Q

Collections of lymphoid tissue (MALT) that guard mucosal surfaces include all the following, except __________.

A

the thymus

203
Q

Which organs of the lymphatic system might be difficult to identify on a cadaver image of an elderly individual.

A

the thymus

204
Q

What lymphatic structures trap bacteria in the posterior oral cavity?

A

Palatine tonsils

205
Q

Match the following term with its description and/or location: Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).

A

Small lymphoid tissues found in digestive and respiratory tracts

206
Q

What lymphatic structure absorbs lipids in the intestine?

A

Lacteal

207
Q

Match the lymphoid structure with the correct characteristic: Tonsils.

A

Invite infection to promote immunity

208
Q

Choose the true statement about the thymus.

A

After puberty, the thymus begins to decrease in size.

209
Q

Aggregates of lymphoid nodules located in the wall of the ileum of the small intestine are __________.

A

Peyer’s patches

210
Q

All of the following describes interferons except that _____________.

A

they are virus-specific.

211
Q

Match the following term with its correct description: Leukocytosis.

A

An increase in the number of white blood cells that are in circulation

212
Q

When collagen fibers are laid down to wall off a sac of pus, what structure is formed?

A

An abscess

213
Q

What is the definition of exudate?

A

Fluid that seeps from the capillary containing clotting factors and antibodies during inflammation

214
Q

Which of the following minerals needed for bacterial reproduction do both the liver and spleen sequester during a fever?

A

Iron and zinc

215
Q

Which of the following describes edema?

A

Caused by excess tissue fluid in the injured area; helps to dilute harmful substances and brings in excess oxygen

216
Q

Which of the following inflammatory processes attracts neutrophils to the injured area?

A

Chemotaxis

217
Q

Which nonspecific defense cells specialize in attacking cancer cells and virus-infected cells?

A

Natural killer cells

218
Q

Match the following cell of the immune system with its function: Macrophages.

A

Derived from circulating monocytes

219
Q

Which of the following describes hyperemia?

A

Increased blood flow due to vasodilation of blood vessels entering the injured area

ANP 1115 (1 decks)

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