Midterm #1 percentages Flashcards

1
Q

ORNJ occurs in what percent of radiation pts?

A

1-3%

  • can be facilitated by poor nutrition and hygiene
  • should never let dentist extract tooth after radiation without consulting radiologist
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2
Q

how long are surgical stents used for?

A

14 days

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3
Q

how long are interim stents used for?

A

3 months (placed 14 days after surgery

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4
Q

when do you place definitive stents?

A

3-6 months post-surgery

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5
Q

when is a MAX resection device used?

A

when part of maxilla is removed but does not have communication with sinus (MOSTLY MANDIB)

*if there is communication, use obturator

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6
Q

staging refers to what?

A

size and location

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7
Q

perio disease if greater than ____ mm pockets

A

4mm

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8
Q

what are stents used for?

A

remove tissue at least 4mm away from teeth to prevent backscatter from metallic restorations

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9
Q

from order of most to least, what types of restorations have the most backscatter?

A

gold
amalgam
titanium
composite

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10
Q

radiation toxicities are what or what?

A

acute (mucositis) or late (permanent)

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11
Q

to reduce mucosal injury during tx, what does the panel recommend?

A
  • midline radiation blocks

- 3-D radiation

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12
Q

what is the joule range for low level lasers?

A

3-4

*4 is what you get on a sunny day

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13
Q

where is cytochrome c found and why is it important?

A

found on inner surface of mitochondria and it is what we are trying to stimulate to improve healing

*deals with electron transport chain

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14
Q

when was the height of eugenics?

A

turn of 20th century

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15
Q

what did deinstitutionalizm start?

A

scandinavia

  • put ppl back into society
  • idea is that it is over and you can treat everyone
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16
Q

what was the PL 94-142 legislative change

A

right to equal public housing

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17
Q

what are the “three strikes” for the system?

A
  • under age of 3
  • covered by gov program
  • having a SHCN
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18
Q

what are the three options for a person with special needs?

A
  • home
  • CRS (community residential setting)
  • PRF (public residential facility)
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19
Q

what percent of ppl with disabilities live at home?

A

60%

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20
Q

how many residents do CRS have?

A

15

*community based and clients are highly funcitonable

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21
Q

how many specialties are recognized by the ADA?

A

9

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22
Q

how many dental school programs and how many non-dental school programs for GPRs in the country?

A

25 school

167 non-school

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23
Q

goals of a GPR?

A

to emphasize:

  • general dentistry
  • student edu
  • patient care
  • comm. service
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24
Q

what rotations does a GPR need?

A
  • anesthesia
  • medicine
  • practice management
  • management of in-patient or same day surgeries
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25
Q

how many job listings wanted GPRs?

A

59 of 709

26
Q

what 5 of GPR grads go on to specialize?

A

1/4

27
Q

what requirements are for a patient in a surgical amitheater?

A
  • less than 40
  • healthy
  • uncoop or unable to tolerate IV sedation
28
Q

what requirements are for a patient in an OR?

A
  • older than 40
  • unhealthy(er)
  • uncooperative
29
Q

what requirements of a pt for IV sedation

A

healthy but anxious

30
Q

what is the ideal interocclusal REST space?

A

3mm

31
Q

what are the two worst kinds of palatal form?

A

flat and V-shaped

*tough to know where to place posterior palatal seal

32
Q

what % of pts have abnormal tongue positions?

A

25-35%

33
Q

what % of pts with cerebral palsy have some sort of intellectual disability?

A

60%

34
Q

if pt have special needs should you use an ultrasonic?

A

no, hand-scaling and high suction always

*prophy cup is OK

35
Q

for pts with special needs, what types of procedures should you start with?

A

least anxiety-invoking procedures

36
Q

what is a food desert?

A

an area with limited access to affordable nutritious foods. typically applies to low-income neighborhoods

37
Q

a true gluten allergy

A

celiac disease

38
Q

what is the female to male ratio of celiac disease?

A

2-3: 1

39
Q

what is the prevalence of celiac disease?

A

0.5-1%

  • 10-12% among first - degree relatives
  • inc prevalence for some genetic disorders (down syndrome, turner syndrome)
40
Q

what are the clinical symptoms of celiac disease?

A
  • diarrhea
  • abdominal pain
  • abdominal swelling

*inc risk of T-cell and B-cell NHL subtypes

41
Q

what is the inc in cancer risk for celiac disease pts?

A

2x that of pop

42
Q

do gluten free diets really dampen effects of autism/

A

showed no harm, but there was poor evidence for efficacy

43
Q

a normal physiologic response that occurs when the dietary carb levels are inadequate to meet the metalic demands for proteins

A

ketosis

44
Q

a PATHOLOGIC condition that can occur in INSULIN-DEPENDENT diabetes mellitus and alcoholism and can be life-threatening

A

ketoacidosis

45
Q

do ketogenic diet help with epilepsy?

A

effective as antiepileptic medication on the short-to-medium term but subjects were unable to follow them long term

*there is some evidence that high protein diets may be more effective in reducing weight, BMI, and waist circumference than low protein diets

46
Q

the term failure to thrive refers to what?

A
  • child’s weight loss
  • underweight
  • failure to gain enough weight

*not an official diagnosis

47
Q

what is teh cause of FTT?

A

malnutrition

*FTT is typically the manifestation of an underlying disease such as cerebral palsy, celiac disease, cystic fibrosis, crohn’s disease

48
Q

in the developed world, FTT affect what % of ppl in the inpatient setting

A

24%

49
Q

how do you treat FTT?

A
  • treat underlying disease first
  • inc food intake (what dentists discourage)
  • inc enrichment of food (leads to poor macronutrient ratios
50
Q

when is parentaral feeding used?

A

as a temp treatment for severe malnutrition?

51
Q

what % of dental erosion cases have to do with GERD?

A

20-30%

52
Q

what can definitve dx of GERD be performed with?

A

pH probe

53
Q

what is the pH of gastric acid?

A

1.2

54
Q

what pH does enamel start to demineralize?

A

5.5

55
Q

surgical correction of GERD

A

Nissen fundoplicaiton

56
Q

what is the diet for chronic kidney disease?

A
  • high in carbs
  • low proteins
  • limited foods
  • limited electrolytes
57
Q

what % of ppl under the age of 4 have food allergies?

A

6-8%

58
Q

what % of ppl over the age of 10 have food allergies?

A

4%

59
Q

what % of the ppl are affected by peanut allergies/

A

1%

60
Q

what % of ppl with peanut allergies “grow out” of it?

A

20%

61
Q

what % of ppl with peanut allergies have allergies to at least 2 of the 8 allergens?

A

90%

62
Q

what is the treatment of peanut allergies?

A
  • administer epi
  • call the sqaud
  • administer benadryl