Midterm 1 Material Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 main hormones produced by the placenta?

A
  1. hCG
  2. hPL
  3. Estrogen
  4. Progesterone

hCG (drops after the first trimester),
hPL (human placental lactose) - helps regulate sugar for baby,
Estrogen & progesterone (sustains endometrial lining to nourish blood supply to baby, prepares mammary glands for production)

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2
Q

When does increased urinary frequency occur to mom, what drives this change? Provide Nursing Interventions

A

1st trimester, d/t vascular engorgement and pressure on the bladder.
Nursing: empty bladder frequently, Kegel exercises, report painful urination

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3
Q

When does N&V typically occur in pregnancy and what drives it?
Provide Nursing interventions

A

1st trimester d/t increased HcG levels.

Nursing: small frequent meals, low fat content, crackers at the bedside & citrus scents

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4
Q

Which trimester does Heartburn start and what drives it?

A

Heartburn: typically second trimester and d/t increased progesterone and reduced intestinal mobility

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5
Q

What are Montgomery’s tubercules?

A

Found around the nipples as a result of increased hormones; lead to increased lubrication for the nipples while breastfeeding

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6
Q

What is the corpus luteum (C.L)? What hormones does it produce?

A

Remnants of the follicle after ovulation.
hCG produced by the inital cells of fetus signal for the CL to remain viable.
CL produces estrogen and progesterone to sustain endometrial lining and produce a habitable enviro for implantation and growth.
CL also produced relaxin ( to relax joints of the symphysis pubis) & inhibin to limit contractions
C.L will produce hormones for about 3-4 months until the placenta can take over

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7
Q

What drives nasal stuffiness & epistaxis in pregnant mom?

A

estrogen levels, occurs in 1st trimester resolves after delivery
Nursing: humidifier, NS nasal drops

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8
Q

What changes occur to BP during pregnancy?

A

diastolic: decreases 1st trimester until 24-32 weeks&raquo_space; increases to pre-pregnancy levels
systolic: remains the same or slowly lower as pre-pregnancy levels

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9
Q

What are the physiological changes that occur to the body during pregnancy?

A
  • Fatigue&raquo_space; d/t hormone changes
  • Urinary frequency&raquo_space; vascular engorgement & fluid changes
  • N&V&raquo_space; increased hCG
  • Heartburn&raquo_space; progesterone & decreased intestinal motility
  • Breast Tenderness&raquo_space; Hypertrophy of tissue
  • Montgomery’s tubercles&raquo_space; hormone driven
  • Back pain&raquo_space; Relaxin and changes in center of gravity
  • Faintness&raquo_space; Postural hypotension
  • Epistaxis&raquo_space; Estrogen levels
  • Ankle edema&raquo_space; increased fluid, decreased circulation
  • Varicose veins&raquo_space; heredity, enlarging uterus, relaxed smooth muscle walls in veins
  • Hemorrhoids&raquo_space; smoot muscle walls relax in veins & congestion in pelvis
  • Constipation» low GI motility
  • Difficulty sleeping&raquo_space; discomforts, baby moving
  • round ligament pain&raquo_space; stretching of ligaments
  • BP&raquo_space; diastolic: increase 1st trimester until 24-32wks / systolic: remains the same, may lower slightly
  • Respirations» change in respiratory center results in lowered threshold of Co2. increased tidal volume and increased O2 consumption by 20-40%
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10
Q

When does the fetal heart beat at a regular rhythm
when is the fetal heart fully developed
when can the fetal heart be detected by doppler

A

4weeks
8weeks
10-12 weeks

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11
Q

When do the neural tubes begin to develop?

When does ultrasound verification of the embryo occur

A

3 - 8 weeks

between the 6 - 8 weeks

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12
Q

when do maternal antibodies begin transferring to the baby?

A

8- 10weeks

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13
Q

Timeline of key fetal developments in the first trimester:

  1. Neural tubes begin developing between weeks ____ to _____
  2. Fetal Heart beats at a regular rhythm @ _____weeks
  3. Heart of the fetus is fully developed by _____ weeks
  4. The embryo becomes a fetus at the end of the _____ week
  5. Maternal antibodies begin to transfer to the baby at about ___to ____ weeks
  6. The first trimester last from ____________ to _________
  7. Fetal heart rate can be detected on doppler @ ___ to ___ weeks
  8. sex of the baby is determined at ____ weeks
  9. Urine begins to be produced and excreted at ____ weeks
  10. by the end of the _____ trimester all organs are formed
  11. by the end of 12 weeks the fetus
    - resembles a ______
    - ______ is secreted
    - kidneys are _____________
    - _________ is present
    - earliest _______ _______ are present
    - ______ recognizable
A
  1. 3 - 8weeks
  2. 4 weeks
  3. 8 weeks
  4. 8 week
  5. 8 -10 weeks
  6. 1st day of last period to 12 weeks
  7. 10-12 weeks
  8. 12 weeks
  9. 12 weeks
  10. 1st trimester
  11. human, bile, able to secrete urine, suckling, taste buds, sex is recognizable
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14
Q

Timeline of key fetal developments in 2nd trimester:

  1. 2nd trimester last from _____ week to ______ week
  2. Fetal movements are felt by the mom (quickening) at ____ to ____ wks
  3. Lanugo begins to grow on the fetus and Vernix begins to protect the baby at about _____ weeks
  4. Alveolar ducts and sacs are present at _____ weeks
  5. Brown fat deposits are developed beneath the skin @ ____ to ___ weeks
  6. Lecithin begins to appear in amniotic fluid at about ____ weeks
A
  1. 13 week to 28th week
  2. 14 to 18 weeks
  3. 20 weeks
  4. 24 weeks
  5. 26 - 30 weeks
  6. 21 weeks
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15
Q

Why are some fish and shellfish detrimental to the developing NS of the fetus?
How many servings of and what types of fish are recommended while pregnant?

A

high levels of mercury

2-3 servings per week of salmon, sardines and trout. Canned light tuna. All of these are low in mercury

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16
Q

Foods such as hot dogs, lunch meats, bologna, deli meats, soft cheeses, raw and unpasteurized dairy products are recommended to be avoiding by pregnant women because they pose a risk of:

A

listeriosis
rare serious infection caused by consuming listeria monocytogenes bacterium

if infection developed in 1st trimester: risk of miscarriage
if infection developed later in pregnancy&raquo_space; infection can be passed to the fetus: risk of premature or still birth

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17
Q

What is a safe dose of daily caffeine while pregnant?

A

300 mg/day (equivalent to 2 8oz cups of coffee a day)

* fetal growth restriction can occur with high caffeine intake

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18
Q

Pregnant women handling cat feces and eating undercooked meat can lead to infection of

A

toxoplasma gondis&raquo_space; protozoan parasite&raquo_space; toxoplasmosis

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19
Q

Pregnant women with periodontal disease may have increased risk of:

A

delivering preterm or having a low birth weight

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20
Q

It is best to seek dental care between the _____ & _____ month of pregnancy

A

4th - 6th month

during the 2nd trimester

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21
Q

Risk associated with hot tubs and pregnancy

A

Breeding ground for bacterial infections
* can cause fetal tachycardia
* high temps can cause discomfort to the fetus
avoid temps above 38.9C
* hypotension&raquo_space; dizzy and faint. do not enter hot tub alone

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22
Q

Risks of smoking while pregnant

A
    • single greatest modifiable cause of poor pregnancy outcomes
  • low birth weight
  • preterm birth
  • premature rupture of the membranes
  • SIDS (higher incidence of babies who are born to mothers who smoke)
  • Smoking is associated with IUGD
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23
Q

What is IUGR, what modifiable actions increase the risks o IUGR

A

Intrauterine growth restriction

smoking / chronic exposure to secondhand smoke

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24
Q

Multiparous
gravid
para
primiparous

A
  1. two or more births
  2. state of being pregnant
  3. having given birth (live or stillborn) after 20weeks gestation
  4. 1 birth at more than 20weeks gestation (live or stillborn)
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25
Q
G
T
P
A
L
A

G: total # of pregnancies, including the current one
T: total number of term infants; (>37weeks) twins count as 2
P: total # of children born prematurely ( 20 - 37 weeks) twins count as 2
A: total # of pregnancies that ended in either therapeutic abortion or spontaneous abortion before 20 weeks gestation
L: Total # of children currently alive

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26
Q

Nageles rule
determine the ____ day of the last menstrual period
Subtract ______ months, and 7 days
Add ___ year

A

FIRST
3 months
1 year
*** this rule is an estimate assuming the woman has a regular 28 day cycle & and that pregnancy occurred on the 14th day of the cycle

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27
Q

What are the primary components of an antenatal assessment?

A
Interview
Health history
Physical exam
Lab tests
Fetal wellbeing >> fundal height, gest age, health status
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28
Q

Importance of the RH protein lab evaluation ?

A

Rh factor protein found on RBC
If it is present&raquo_space; Rh positive / if not Rh negative
If the mother is Rh negative and baby is Rh positive&raquo_space; Rh incompatibility.
if fetal blood (from Rh +’ve baby) transfers to mom (Rh -‘ve) the mothers body will begin producing antibodies. This will become an problem for the second baby, where the mothers blood (which now has antibodies for Rh) will attack fetal RBC

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29
Q

What is Win Rho?

When and why is it given?

A

Injection given at 28 weeks gestation for ALL Rh mothers and then within 72 hours of delivery. IM or IV injection
Designed to prevent Rh antibodies from developing.

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30
Q

What are the increased caloric demands on the pregnant mom at each trimester?

A

1st trimester: synthesis of fetal tissue few demands for maternal nutrition

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31
Q

What is the average total weight gain of the baby at 40 weeks?

A

13kg (29 lbs)

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32
Q

What assessments should be conducted at the first prenatal visit?

A
Vitals
Height & weight
H2T
Head and Neck inspection
chest inspection
abdomen inspection
Extremities
Pelvic exam
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33
Q

What is fundal height and what does it measure

A

fundal height is the measurement of the uterus above the pubis symphysis&raquo_space; used as an indicator of fetal growth
fundal height» provides a rough estimate of the duration of pregnancy.
use measurement of fundal height (+/- 2cm) to estimate gestational weeks
ie. fundal height of a women @ 28 weeks gestation w/ empty bladder should measure around (26 - 30 cm)

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34
Q

What is the fundus

A

Top of the uterus

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35
Q

Fundus is slightly above the pubis symphysis: _____to _______ weeks
Fundus is halfway between the pubis symphysis and the umbilicus: _______ weeks
Fundus is at the umbilicus: ____ to____ weeks ** think halfway
Fundus is three fingerbreadths above the umbilics _____ weeks
Fundus is at the xiphoid process: ______ weeks

A
12- 14 weeks
16 weeks
20 weeks
28 weeks
28 weeks
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36
Q

What is a normal fetal heart rate

A

110 - 160bpm

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37
Q

We want baby’s HR to ________ moms contractions

A

mirror. This is called early deceleration
The fetal HR should decelerate with moms contractions. Not substantial decrease still within normal (120-160bpm) but slight dip
Compression of baby’s head on pelvis/soft tissue of cervix
this is normal no interventions necessary

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38
Q

When fetal HR deceleration follows the contraction it is known as

A

late deceleration
Appears as a “u” pattern when compared with contractions
Causes: uteroplacental insufficiency&raquo_space; not enough nutrients and oxygen when mom is having a contraction. uterus and placenta aren’t meeting their nutrient / requirements
Needs intervention

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39
Q

The cause of variable fetal HR deceleration is

A
cord compression (prolapsed, wrapped around the baby) 
Needs intervention
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40
Q

What are Leopold’s Maneuvers

what is their purpose

A

4 maneuvers of palpating the maternal abdomen to determine:

  1. the number of fetuses
  2. fetal presentation, lie and attitude
  3. Determine the degree of decent into the pelvis
  4. Determine the point of maximal intensity of the FHR on maternal abdomen
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41
Q

When can Leopold’s Maneuvers be done

A

as early as 20-24 weeks. At this point the uterine wall has become thin enough to palpate.
Can also be performed antenatally in labor and during contractions

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42
Q

When thinking about Leopold’s maneuvers the fetus is referred to as the ____________, while the maternal pelvis is referred to as the _____________

A

passenger

passageway

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43
Q

4 sutures in the fetuses skull

A

Frontal
Lambdoid
Coronal
sagittal

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44
Q

Fetal attitude refers to

A

the fetal body parts in relation to one another
deviations from normal fetal attitude can cause issues for labor and birth process
Normal: general flexion, head and chin tucked in

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45
Q

Fetal lie refers to:

name the 3 types

A

position of the baby’s spine in relation to moms
longitudinal (99% fall in this category) - lines up with moms spine
Oblique
transverse

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46
Q

Fetal presentation refers to:

name the 3 types:

A

presentation or presenting part indicates the portion of the fetus that overlies the pelvic inlet.

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47
Q

the passageway refers to the mothers pelvis.

name the 3 bones that make up the pelvis

A

Ilium
ischium
Pubis

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48
Q

When discussing the fetus in the womb and how it sits we consider these 3 terms

A
Fetal attitude ( how its body parts are arranged; normal >> general flexion. head and chin tucked)
Fetal lie ( baby's spine in relation to moms)
Fetal presentation (cephalic, breech, shoulder)
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49
Q

The true pelvis is divided into 3 sections

A

inlet
midpelvis
pelvic outlet

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50
Q

Three notations to describe fetal position:
_____ _______ _______
the middle notation is viewed first. It refers to:
the first notation is viewed next and refers to:
the third notation refers to:

A

Look at the middle blank first. This refers to the landmark. What is the landmark of the
presenting part? Occiput (O)? Mentum (M)? Sacrum (S)? Scapula (Sc)?

Middle notation refers to left or right in relation to the mothers pelvis (L) or (R).

Third notation refers to whether the landmark is in the front, back or side of maternal pelvis. Anterior (A), Posterior (P) or transverse (T).

_________________________________________

  1. Is the landmark towards the left or the right
    L - left
    R - right
Determine middle blank first!
2. Determine Landmark: Position of fetus in mother
O - occiput (flexed head)
M - mentum (un flexed head, straight up)
S - sacrum (sacrum first)
  1. Is the landmark facing anterior, posterior or transverse (in regard to mom)
    A - anterior
    P - posterior
    T - transverse

Ex. LOA = left, occiput, anterior

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51
Q

How many extra calories should mom intake at each stage to maintain proper nutrition?

A

1st trimester: Synthesis of fetal tissue occurs, there are few demands on maternal nutrition.

2nd trimester: 340 extra calories a day, (for women with normal bodyweight before pregnancy).

3rd trimester: 452 extra calories per day (for women with normal bodyweight before pregnancy).

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52
Q

What is the total weight gain for a 40 week pregnancy?

A

13 kg (25 - 30lbs)

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53
Q

In the 1st & 2nd trimester growth primarily takes place in _________ __________

In the 3rd trimester growth primarily occurs in the ________ _________

A

Maternal Tissues

Fetal tissues

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54
Q

Fetal __________ condition where the baby is born larger than 8lbs 13 ounces
What are the primary drivers of this conditon

A

fetal macrosomia

diabetes & obesity of the mother during pregnancy

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55
Q

Mom reports “I’ve gained SOOOO much weight” during the pregnancy and has visible fluid retention.
What are your thoughts upon assessment, what causes large babies? is it an underlying condition?

A

modifiable factors: is she eating more than necessary, are her dietary choices nutrient dense, is she a diabetic, is she experiencing gestational diabetes.
Does she have hypertension or HF that could be causing fluid retention?

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56
Q

These nutrients play an important role in growth and development of the infant

A

Omega-3 fatty acids

    • remember safe sources of fish to avoid listeria
    • no sushi or uncooked fish.
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57
Q

Mom requires additional ______ to permit expansion of maternal RBC mass

A

iron

red meats, eggs, poultry, whole grains, enriched breads & cereals

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58
Q

The practice of consuming nonfood substances or excessive amounts of food stuffs low in nutritional values.
Related to iron deficiency anemia

A

Pica

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59
Q

What are the primary nutrients that require daily increases in pregnancu

A

Iodine [150»220mcg] ( iodized salt, seafood & milk products)
Iron 18mg&raquo_space; 27mg
Magnesium[360» 400mg] (nuts legumes cocoas meats whole grains)
Zinc [ 9&raquo_space; 12mg] (shellfish, meats, whole grains)
Vit A [700&raquo_space; 750mcg] (deep green leafy and dark yellow veg)
Vit B6 1.2&raquo_space; 1.9mg
Vit C[65mg&raquo_space; 80] (citrus fruits, strawberries, tomatoes peppers).

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60
Q

Family is ____ or ____ individuals who depend on each other for ______, ________, and ______ support

A

2 or more

physical, emotional, financial

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61
Q

Family as _______ refers to family-centered or family focused. Individual as the foreground. traditional nursing approach.

A

Family as CONTEXT

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62
Q

Family as _________ refers to family as foreground . All members of the family are assessed. Assessing how the family is affected by illness/wellness of the individual

A

Family as CLIENT

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63
Q

Family as ________, believes that the whole is more than the sum of it’s parts. Interactions are the targets for interactions

A

Family as SYSTEM

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64
Q

Family as _________ of _______ is used in community health nursing. and believes the family is an institution within ________

A

component of society

institution within society

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65
Q

Three primary concepts essential to understanding family:

  1. _______ : individuals that comprise the family.
  2. ________: large purposes or roles of families. The way families serve of benefit each other.
  3. _________: Family coping skills, roles
A

Structure
Function
Process

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66
Q

An individuals health affects the entire _________ functioning

A

family’s

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67
Q

A theory is ways of thinking about and explaining _________

A

phenomena

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68
Q

name the 3 primary family theory’s

A

family systems theory
Family development & life cycle theory
biological system theory

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69
Q

4 major concepts of family systems theory:

  1. All parts of the system are ________
  2. The ______ is more than the sum of its ______
  3. All systems have ______ & _____ between the system and the enviro
  4. ______ can be further organized into _________
    * Subsystems consider 3 dimensions of families:
A
  1. interconnected
  2. whole, parts
  3. borders and boundaries
  4. systems, subsystems

structure, function and processes.

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70
Q

What is the goal of nursing in the family systems thoery

A

To help maintain/restore stability of family to help members achieve highest level of functioning they can.

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71
Q

Assessment questions in the family systems theory relate to interaction between _________ & __________. And interaction between ________ & _________ in which they live

A

individual & family

Family & community

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72
Q

What are some strengths and weaknesses of family systems theory

A

Strengths:

  • It focuses on family as a whole, its subsystems or both
  • it is generally understood and accepted theory in society

Weaknesses:

  • too broad and general
  • Does not give definitive and prescriptive interventions
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73
Q

The following questions support which assessment theory?

  • How does the event impact various family members
  • who is affected most by this event?
  • what kind of boundaries exist between the family and the enviro?
  • Has there been a similar event in the past? what helped?
A

Family systems theory

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74
Q

This assessment theory believes:

  • the family is a system
  • family has a life cycle
  • the family follow common and predictable stages & changes
A

Family development & life cycle theory

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75
Q

name strengths and weaknesses of family development & life cycle theory

A

strengths:
- focuses on the family as a whole
- provides a framework for predicting family events at any given stage in the family life cycle
- can offer anticipatory guidance

weaknesses:

  • traditional, linear family life cycle is NOT the norm
  • modern families vary widely in structure & roles
  • developmental milestones shift with shifting structure of modern families
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76
Q

The following assessment questions belong to which family theory?

  • what stage of the family life cycle is the family at?
  • What are the typical stressors at this stage?
  • is the family experiencing normative or non-normative events?
A

Family development & life cycle theory

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77
Q

This assessment theory believes:

- combines children’s biological deposition & environmental forces

A

biological systems theory

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78
Q

You would evaluate these 5 systems when using the biological systems theory

A
microsystem
mesosystem
exosystem
macrosystem
chronosystem
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79
Q

Provide some strengths and weaknesses of the biological systems theory

A

strengths

  • holistic
  • bio/psycho/social/cultural/spiritual approach

weaknesses:
- not specific enough to define contextual changes over time
- time consuming
- larger context in which the family is embedded can’t be controlled

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80
Q

The following assessment questions support which systems theory?

  • Which social structure does the family interact with?
  • assessment consists of looking at all levels of the system
A

biological systems theory

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81
Q

________ is a pictorial display of a persons family relationship and medical history

A

genogram

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82
Q

________ is a graphical representation that shows all the systems at play in an individuals life

A

ecomap

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83
Q

What are the primary principles of family centered care

A
  • respect and dignity
  • information sharing
  • participation
  • Collaboration
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84
Q

Family as structure

A
  • Individuals that comprise the family
  • Interactions with other social systems
  • Ordered set of relationships within the family
  • Does not include roles or functions
  • Does not indicate health of family or how it function
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85
Q

Family as system

A

-Interactions in a system
-Whole is more than the sum of its
Parts, more than each individual alone

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86
Q

Family Function

A
-The way families serve or benefit each other
Reproductive
Socialization
Affective
Economic
Health care
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87
Q

Family process

A

Family coping skills, roles, communication, decision making, rituals and routines
Interactions between members of a family including :
-relationships
-communication patterns
-time spent together
-satisfaction with family life.

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88
Q

Family process
Family coping skills, roles, communication, decision making, rituals and routines
Interactions between members of a family including :
-relationships
-communication patterns
-time spent together
-satisfaction with family life.
What are the three concepts essential to understanding family interactions that affect health, illness and well-being?

A

Structure
function
process

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89
Q

family structure: who is the family?

A

Who is in family:

  • Relationships between family members
  • Interactions between family members
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90
Q

Family nursing process

A
  • Assessment
  • Analysis
  • Design
  • Intervention
  • Evaluation
  • Analysis
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91
Q

Nurses role to engaging families in care

A
  • Background and first contact
  • Making Community-Based appointments
  • Family assessments in Acute Care settings
  • Using interpreters with families
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92
Q

Genograms include at least ______ generations

A

3

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93
Q

How are children organized in a genogram

A

oldest to youngest

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94
Q

What is the purpose of a genogram

A

highlights disease and conditions the family might be at risk for

maps out all family members in an organized ‘tree-like’ fashion

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95
Q

What will the nurse assess in biological systems theory

A

Assess: social structures (environmental systems) this family interacts with.
-Assessment includes looking at all levels of the system: micro, meso, macro and chronosystems.

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96
Q

Define preconception health

A

Preconception care is the promotion of the health and well-being of a woman and her partner before pregnancy

Preconception health refers to the positive health practices that youths/adults of reproductive age can make to improve their health before pregnancy

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97
Q

What is the role of estrogen produced by the placenta

A

increases prostaglandin production when labour to start; increases blood flow to baby; increases secretion of prolactin

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98
Q

What is the role of progesterone produced by the placenta

A

decreases uterine contractions; decreases immunologic response preventing rejection of fetus; gradually rises to term then drops and labour starts

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99
Q

When is side-lying a more appropriate position over supine in those who are pregnant

A

side-lying takes pressure off the vena cava

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100
Q

Why is preconception health important?

A

The health of parents, their lifestyle choices, and the environment in which they live before and during pregnancy have lifelong implications for their children’s health, learning, and behaviour.

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101
Q

Definition of preterm births

A

The preterm birth rate is defined as the
number of live births with a gestational age at birth of less than 37 completed weeks (<259 days),
expressed as a proportion of all live births

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102
Q

Definition of SGA birth rate

A

The number of live births for which birth weight is below the 10th percentile of the sex and gestation-specific birth weight, expressed as a proportion of all singleton live births.

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103
Q

The period of greatest sensitivity of the developing fetus to maternal conditions and environmental exposures is between _____ days and ____ weeks after conception.

** the sensitive period occurs between the woman’s ___ and ____ periods.

A

15 days & 8 weeks

between the 1st & 2nd periods

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104
Q

Organogenesis begins ____days after conception

A

17 days

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105
Q

What are the 4 Components of Preconception Health

A
  1. safe guarding fertility
  2. preparing for pregnancy
  3. modifying risk factors
  4. optimizing the early fetal environment
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106
Q

Why is FA recommended during preconception care

A

Taking FA before you get pregnant substantially reduces the risk of occurrence of neural tube defects (NTDs)

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107
Q

What is preconception care?

A

Provides health promotion, screening, and interventions for women of reproductive age to reduce risk factors that might affect future pregnancies

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108
Q

Primary factors that influence preconception health

A

individual factors
environmental factors
SDOH

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109
Q

______are associated with mortality in the immediate perinatal period

A

NDTs

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110
Q

Dietary sources of FA

A

Leafy greens
Citrus fruits
Enriched breads and cereals
Beans

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111
Q

If a mother has NO known NTDs/ no risk factors prior to pregnancy, how much folic acid is recommended daily

A

0.4 mg/day folic acid 3 months prior to pregnancy and continuing throughout pregnancy is recommended

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112
Q

If a mother is at risk for NTDs OR had a prior pregnancy affected with folate sensitive anomalies: what is the recommended daily dose

A

4 mg/day folic acid 3 months prior to pregnancy and through the first trimester,

Then 0.4 mg/day folic acid for the remainder of pregnancy.

OR 5mg per day

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113
Q

Individual factors affects preconception health

A
Folic acid consumption
Alcohol use
Obesity
Smoking
Underlying infections;
Hepatitis B vaccination
HIV/Aids screening and treatment
Rubella vaccination
Varicella vaccination
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) screening and treatment
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114
Q

T or F

Obesity is an individual risk factor for preconception health. Once pregnant weight loss of 10lbs is recommended

A

False

weight loss once pregnant is not recommended

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115
Q

AVOID CONCEPTION FOR ___ ______ AFTER RECEIVING LIVE-ATTENUATED VACCINES

A

4 Weeks

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116
Q

Advanced maternal age is a risk factor for:

A

trisomy 21 , Down syndrome

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117
Q

____________ Canadians have higher risks of adverse pregnancy and infant health outcomes independent of socio-economic status and neighbourhoods

A

Indigenous

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118
Q

Pregnancy last for _____ lunar months

A

10 lunar months (28 days in 1 lunar month)

So… 280 days/ 40 weeks

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119
Q

How many weeks is the first trimester

A

The first trimester begins on the first day of your last period and lasts until the end of week 12.

0-13 weeks

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120
Q

How many weeks is the second trimester

A

14-26 weeks

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121
Q

How many weeks is the third trimester

A

27-40 weeks

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122
Q

T or F
A couple has decided to start trying to get pregnant. The first visit to the physician should be scheduled as soon as the woman suspects she is pregnant.

A

False
ideally she would visit prior to conception
** taking FA 3 months before conception has proven to be effective for reducing the risk of NTD

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123
Q

T or F
All baby’s organs and body systems have fully
formed by 8 weeks from conception.

A

False not fully

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124
Q
T or F
Women with diabetes 
are more likely to have 
a baby born heavier 
than normal at birth.
A

True

macrosomia

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125
Q

T or F

Obese, pregnant women are more likely to have a baby born with a birth defect than a pregnant woman of normal weight

A

True

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126
Q

T or F

Women of normal weight prior to becoming pregnant are advised to gain 11.5 - 16 kg (25-35 lbs) during pregnancy.

A

False weight gain is dependent on BMI

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127
Q

T or F

Women who smoke in pregnancy are more likely to deliver an infant with a low birth weight.

A

True

SGA

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128
Q

T or F
Women could transmit sexually transmitted
infections, like syphilis, to their baby

A

Women could transmit sexually transmitted

infections, like syphilis, to their baby

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129
Q

T or F
During the last 3 months of pregnancy, the developing baby is at greatest risk from exposure to harmful substances or environmental toxins

A

False: it is the first 3 months of pregnancy. Between the first and second missed periods

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130
Q

High levels of ______ and _______ stimulate uterine growth in the first trimester.

A

Progesterone & estrogen

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131
Q

Kelsey is pregnant for the third time. She gave birth to a single baby at 42 weeks and twins at 35 weeks gestation, all of whom are currently alive.

What is here GTPAL?

What will the GTPAL be after
her baby is born at 39 weeks?

A

Gravidity – 3 number of all pregnancies
Term birth – 1 single baby at 42 weeks
Preterm births –2 twins at 35 weeks (preterm is after 20 weeks to 37 weeks)
Abortions and miscarriages – 0
Living children – 3
____________________
G3 – 3 pregnancies
T2 - 2 single babies at 37 weeks or more gestation
P2 - 2 babies at 35 weeks gestation (Textbook says to count twins as 2 here)
A0 – no abortions or miscarriages
L4 – twins plus 2 single birth babies

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132
Q

Kelly reports her menstrual cycle is 28 days long and periods have been regular prior to pregnancy.
the first day of kelly’s last menstrual period (LMP) was September 19, 2018 and lasted 5 days, ending on September 24, 2018.

When is Kelly’s baby due?

A

Using Nagele’s rule:

September 19 2018

Subtract 3 months – June
Add 7 days - 26
Adjust year - 2019

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133
Q

What are the components of an antenatal assessment?

A
Interview>> health hx
Physical examination
Lab tests
Fetal well being (beginning end of 1st trimester)
Fundal height
gest age
health status
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134
Q

When is the woman screened for Group B streptococci? GBS

A

35 -37 weeks

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135
Q

How can fetal blood impact the mother, at which points can fetal blood interact with mom?

A

amniocentesis
chorionic villi sampling
bleeding during pregnancy
trauma to the abdomen during pregnancy

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136
Q

___________ is the earliest biological marker for pregnancy.

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

Production of HCG begins as early as the day of implantation and can be detected as early as 7-10 days after conception.

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137
Q

Main action of progesterone during pregnancy

A

Effects smooth muscles = relaxes

Ex. relaxed veins in legs → varicose veins

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138
Q

Main action of estrogen during pregnancy

A

Increases vascularity of the breasts and uterus (hypertrophy of cells)

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139
Q

In which trimester does frequent urination tend to stop? When is frequent urination most commonly going to occur?

A

Frequent urination stops during 2nd trimester, as the uterus rises higher into the abdomen, relieving the pressure. Then at the end of the term, there is more pressure in the 3rd trimester due to the immense growth

1st trim: increased pressure and voiding
2nd trim: back to normal
3rd trim: increased pressure and voiding

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140
Q

What hormone relaxes the esophageal sphincter, causing acid reflux

A

progesterone

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141
Q

In the first 12 weeks of pregnancy where do the pregnancy hormones secrete from?

A

corpus luteum creates hormones for the first 12 weeks, after which the placenta takes over

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142
Q

Define primigravida

A

first pregnancy

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143
Q

Define antepartum

A

Time between conception and the onset of labour; often used to describe the period during which a woman is pregnant; used interchangeably with prenatal

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144
Q

Define intrapartum

A

Time from the onset of regular contractions until the birth of the baby and placenta

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145
Q

Define multiparous

A

has gone through labour more than once

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146
Q

What are 3 methods to determine an estimated date of birth

A

EDB wheel
Ultrasound
Nagele’s rule

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147
Q

Define Rh incompatibility

A

When mom is Rh - and Dad is Rh +

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148
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

AKA erythroblastosis fetalis

If the fetus is Rh positive, antibodies from the mother cross the placenta, attach to fetal RBCs and begin to hemolyze them. This breaks down the RBC way too fast.

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149
Q

Indirect vs Direct Coombs test

A

indirect coombs test: checking for sensitization, more of a screening out of precaution (indirectly checking sensitization through mom)

direct coombs test: it is done on the infant’s blood to detect antibody-coated Rh-positive red blood cells. (directly checking sensitization on baby)

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150
Q

What is the role of iron supplementation in pregnancy

A

allows transfer of iron to the fetus. Permits expansion of maternal hemoglobin (important for brain development too)

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151
Q

pica is often related to

A

iron deficiency anemia

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152
Q

Why may systolic murmurs occur during pregnancy

A

due to increased blood volumes

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153
Q

Do resps increase or decrease during pregnancy

A

Increased demands on the body causes INCREASED respirations

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154
Q

A slight dip in BP is most noticeable in which trimester

A

2nd

Peripheral vasodilation can cause a drop in BP

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155
Q

What 4 physical changes happen to the uterus over the course of pregnancy

A

Hyperplasia
Increased vascularity
Hypertrophy
Change in shape and position (pear shaped) due to pressure exerted by growing fetus

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156
Q

Fundal height correlates with gestational weeks around ______ weeks

A

Starting around 22-24 weeks

Ex. At 22 weeks, fundal height will be 22 cm

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157
Q

At what week, does fundal height NOT correlate with gestational weeks?

why?

A

34 weeks

at this point the baby has usually dropped down into the pelvis

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158
Q

Why would fundal height be measuring larger than expected?

A

Polyhydramnios → Too much amniotic fluid
Macrosomia → excessive tissue growth (big baby)
Twins?! Maybe it is not a singleton pregnancy: more than one child

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159
Q

Define polyhydramnios

A

too much amniotic fluid

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160
Q

Fundal height may be measuring smaller than expected due to ??

A

Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) → fetus isn’t growing at the rate it should be.

  • Mother is a smoker: interferes with oxygen to fetus
  • Lack of nutrition

Oligohydramnios → Too little amniotic fluid

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161
Q

pulsations under the fontanelles could indicate_______

A

dehydration

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162
Q

longitudinal fetal lie looks like…..

A

Baby is in line with mom’s spine; HEAD FIRST pointing towards the vagina

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163
Q

Transverse fetal lie looks like

A

Baby is horizontally sideways; head pointing left or right

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164
Q

Oblique fetal lie looks like…

A

Baby is transverse but at an angle

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165
Q

Define fetal presentation. what are the 3 fetal presentations

A

The part of the fetus that enters the pelvic inlet first

Three presentations are:

  1. cephalic (head first)
  2. breech (butt/feet first)
  3. shoulder presentation
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166
Q

Explain: cephalic vertex presentation. is this an ideal positon?

A

Head first
Chin tucked into chest

BEST for labour. The most common presentation and associated with the fewest complications

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167
Q

What are the 4 cephalic presentations?

A
  • Vertex - complete flexion
  • Military- moderate flexion
  • Brow - poor flexion
  • Face - full extension (literally face first out the birth canal)
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168
Q

What are SOGC Recommendations for fetal movement?

A

Count 6 distinctive fetal movements; if less than 6 movements in 2 hours, further assessment is indicated.

Tell her to contact primary caregiver OR go to the hospital

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169
Q

What factors affect fetal activity?

A

Decreased fetal movement:

  • Due to decreased placental perfusion (lack of O2)
  • Mother’s BG levels
  • Smoking and drug use
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170
Q

the ________ stage of labour begins with onset of regular contractions and ends with complete cervical effacement and dilation

A

first stage of labour

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171
Q

what are the 2 phases of the 1st stage of labour

A

Latent (early) phase: 0-3 cm dilated in primiparous and
cervical length < 1 cm or
75% effaced
Active (about 3-6 hours): Beginning at 4 cm dilated in a nulliparous woman; 4-5 cm in multiparous woman

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172
Q

What are the 5 P’s that affect the process of labour

A
  1. Passenger (fetus and placenta)
    - fetal head
    - fetal attitude
    - fetal lie
    - fetal presentation
    - fetal position
    engagement
    station
  2. Passageway (birth canal)
    3.Powers (contractions)
  3. Position of the mother
    5.Psychological Response
How well did you know this?
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173
Q

What is amniocentesis

A

A procedure used to obtain amniotic fluid (which contains fetal cells) for genetic testing for fetal abnormalities OR to determine fetal lung maturity in the 3rd trimester

174
Q

What is Chorionic Villi testing (CVS)

A

A procedure that involves obtaining a sample of chorionic villi from the developing placenta for genetic studies

175
Q

T or F: Having GDM increases your risk for getting DM2 later in life?

A

True. Increased risk for developing DM2, after having gestational diabetes

176
Q

When does Gestational Diabetes mellitus develop

A

develops during the last half of pregnancy

177
Q

Explain: Pathology behind GDM

A

Maternal nutrient ingestion causes higher blood glucose levels and…

Placental hormones cause an increased maternal resistance to insulin

While… Most women are capable of increasing insulin production to compensate for insulin resistance = NO PROB, EVERYTHING IS FINE

When the pancreas is unable to produce sufficient insulin (or the insulin is not used effectively) → GDM DEVELOPS

178
Q

What does station refer to in labour

A

Station: relationship of the presenting fetal part to an imaginary line drawn between the maternal ischial spines
a measure of the descent of the presenting part of the fetus through the birth canal.

Station is measured in cm
minus or plus, depending on its location above or below the ischial spines

179
Q

What does engagement refer to in labour

A

“The term used to indicate that the largest transverse diameter of the presenting part (usually the biparietal diameter) has passed through the maternal pelvic brim or inlet into the true pelvis and usually corresponds to station 0.

The true pelvis, the part involved in birth, is divided into 3 planes: 
 the inlet (or brim)
 the midpelvis (or cavity) 
 the outlet
180
Q

What are the ‘POWERS’ or physiological forces that drive contractions during labour

A

Frequency
Duration
Intensity
Resting Tone

181
Q

the purpose of uterine contractions is to drive effacement; what is effacement

A

Effacement is the softening, thinning and shortening of the cervical canal from a structure of 1-2 cm long to one in which no canal exists at all

182
Q

How is the effacement of the cervix in labour measured

A

The degree of effacement is expressed in percentages, from 0 to 100% (e.g., a cervix is 50% effaced) or in length in centimetres

183
Q

The purpose of uterine contractions is cervical dilation. describe this process

A

Dilation of the cervix:… cervical canal or “os” enlarges from an orifice a few millimetres in diameter to an opening large enough (approximately 10 cm) to permit the passage of the fetus”

184
Q

As labour progress cervical __________ & ______ occurs

A

effacement (thinning) and dilation (enlargement)

185
Q

What are the maternal cardiovascular adaptions that occur in labour

A

Cardiac output increases 10-5-%
BP increases: systolic increases more than diastolic d/t peripheral resistance.
Increase in WBC

Contractions constricting blood flow to the uterus&raquo_space; increase is BP to peripheral tissue&raquo_space; increase in peripheral resistance&raquo_space; slight increase in BP

186
Q

What are the maternal respiratory adaptions that occur in labour

If you had a woman who was hyperventilating what would you do?

A

Increased respiratory rate
Hyperventilation can cause respiratory alkalosis (increased pH leading to hypoxia and hypocapnia

Have them breath into a paper bag

187
Q

What are the maternal GI adaptions that occur in labour

A

Decreased GI motility
Decreased absorption of food
N&V is common

women can eat/drink during labour, but remember decreased GI motility&raquo_space; light easily digestible foods

188
Q

What are the maternal renal adaptions that occur in labour

A

Pressure on bladder from presenting part
Difficulty voiding spontaneously
Proteinuria up 1+ due to breakdown in tissues from labour
Difficulty voiding spontaneously d/t pressure on bladder.
Analgesics can limit voiding

189
Q

What are the maternal neurological adaptations that occurs in labour

A

Emotional
Euphoria🡪 serious🡪 amnesia—> elation &/fatigue
Endorphins
Physiological anesthesia
endogenous endorphins can increase their pain

190
Q

What are the maternal integumentary adaptations that occurs in labour

A

Stretching of birth canal and introitus
Tears can happen
hematomas and abrasions
hemorrhoids

191
Q

What are the MSK adaptations that occur in labour

A

Marked increase in muscle activity
Leads to diaphoresis, exhaustion, proteinuria
Mother has backache and joint aches
May get leg cramps if pointing toes

192
Q

What are the Endocrine adaptations that occur in labour

A
Hormones trigger onset of labour
Decreased progesterone 
increased estrogen
Increased prostaglandins
Increased oxytocin
Increased metabolism
Decreased blood glucose levels
193
Q

How do you assess the force/intensity of contraction of the uterus?

A

Place one hand on the fundus of the uterus.
During the peak of the contraction, evaluate intensity by estimating indentability of the fundus.

Soft contraction, feels like the tip of your nose
Moderate contraction feels like your chin
High contraction feels like your forehead

194
Q

What Fetal Heart rate adaptations occur during labour?

What are these changes in response to?

A

Temporary accelerations and slight early decelerations of the FHR can be expected in response to:

  1. spontaneous fetal movement,
  2. vaginal examination,
  3. fundal pressure,
  4. uterine contractions,
  5. abdominal palpation and
  6. fetal head compression ( when the uterus contracts it cuts off oxygen to the fetus).
195
Q

Fetal heartbeat is heard best through the _______ _______

A

fetal back

196
Q

Hand held Doppler US can detect fetal heartbeat as early as: ______ ______

A

12 weeks

197
Q

two common US methods:

A

Transabdominal

Transvaginal

198
Q

Why does the women’s bladder need to be full during US

A

Because a full bladder will push the fetus up, enabling the transducer to see the images of the fetus

199
Q

We ask that women have an awareness of fetal movements beginning at _____ to _____ weeks.
They should count _____ distinct fetal movements within _____ _______.

A

26 - 32 weeks

6 fetal movements within 2 hours

200
Q

2 primary risk factors for decreased fetal movements:

A

decreased placental perfusion: insufficient oxygenation

fetal acidemia

201
Q

Describe an NST

A

non-stress test: electronic fetal monitor that provides tracing of the FHR
tracing should last a minimum of 20 minutes
baseline FHR 110-160bpm
2 accelerations (15bmp) want it it last 15sec. in a period of 40 minutes of testing

results are

  • normal
  • atypical
  • abnormal
202
Q

What are common causes of fetal tachycardia?

A

maternal fever and dehydration

203
Q
When examining FHR variability we are counting the beat to beat fluctuations from baseline
absent: 0 bmp
minimal: 1-5bpm
Moderate: \_\_\_\_\_\_ bpm 
Marked : 26+ bpm

Which variability is “normal”

A

Moderate is 6-25bpm and is Normal

204
Q

FHR accelerations must be >___ bpm and last for ____seconds

A

> 15bpm

last 15 seconds

205
Q

When evaluating the Fetal well-being we would look at the BPP ________ ________ ________

A

Biophysical profile

206
Q

What 4 components make up the BPP?

A
  1. fetal breathing movement
  2. Fetal movements body & limbs
  3. Fetal tone extremities
  4. Amniotic fluid volume
207
Q

what is oligohydramnious

A

low amniotic fluid

208
Q

What is an NTT (Nuchal translucency test)?

A

measures the amount of fluid at the back of the fetal neck.
11-14 weeks of pregnancy
assess for trisomy 12, 18, 21
2.5 mm > less = normal

This test is affected by amount of amniotic fluid
if the fetus is very active
if the woman is unable to stay still

209
Q

What is an Amniocentesis

A

Needle inserted transabdominally for collection of amniotic fluid.
30ml of fluid collected
15-20weeks of pregnancy
- used to test for genetic abnormalities
-tests for fetal lung maturity in the 3rd trimester

Risk factors: bleeding, miscarriage, cramping, no tampons, and no sex directly following procedure
can return to normal activity within 24 hours
** unpleasant experience

210
Q

CVS chorionic villus testing

A

10-13 weeks gestation
genetic testing
remove some of the chorionic villi tissue
transcervically» contraindicated if infection is present b/c we can introduce infection to fetus.
transabdominally&raquo_space; 18 gauge spinal needle.

This is generally very safe.

211
Q

First stage of labour begins with onset of _________ __________ and ends with complete __________ __________ and __________

A

onset of regular contractions

ends with complete cervical effacement (thinning) and dilation

212
Q

Typically length of the first stage of labour:
latent phase:
Active phase:

A

latent: 6-8 hours0-3cm dilation

active: 3-6 hours beginning at:
- 4cm dilation in nulliparous woman.
- 5-6cm dilation in a multiparous woman

213
Q

What does lightening a premonitory sign of labour refer to?

At what point in pregnancy does this occur

A

Uterus sinks down and the baby moves into the true pelvis.
occurs about 2-4 weeks before term.
- less pressure on the lungs, but more pressure on the bladder&raquo_space; return of urinary frequency.

214
Q

What are some of the prominent premonitory signs of labour?

A
  • low back ache, from baby dropping into true pelvis
  • “bloody show” mucus plug dissipates and bloody mucus is present
  • ROM rupture of membranes; ‘water breaking’ > amniotic fluid
  • sudden burst of energy&raquo_space; within week or two before birth
  • “nesting instinct”
  • “nature’s diarrhea”, caused by hormones and pressure on bowels
  • Braxtons Hicks contractions, can start a month or two prior to labour. Can dissipate when she changes positions
  • Slight weight loss: water loss d/t fluid shifts from changing levels of estrogen and progesterone.
215
Q

Birth is imminent once the fetus has of a station of + ___ or +____

A

+4 / +5
station is measured in cm and refers to the presenting part of the fetus and its location in relation to the ischial spines (which is a station of 0)

216
Q

The station will tell us a lot about the _____ of _____

A

rate of descent of the baby/fetus

217
Q

The true pelvis is divided into 3 parts:

A
  • inlet (brim)
  • midpelvis (cavity)
  • outlet
218
Q

primary powers in labour have to do with: ________ ________

A

uterine contractions

219
Q

When discussing the POWERs of contractions describe the following:

  • Duration
  • Frequency
  • Intensity
  • Resting Tone
A

Duration: beginning to end of one contraction
Frequency: beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction, including the resting phase

220
Q

Purpose of contractions:

  1. ________ of cervix noted in %.
  2. ______ of the cervix
A

effacement: shortening, thinning of cervical canal. beginning as 1-2cm canal and it becomes no canal at all.
Dilation of the cervix a few mm to 10 cms.

221
Q

On the labour chart you read: 50% effaced, 6cm, -1
What is the correct interpretation of the data?
A. The fetal presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines

B. Effacement is 4 cm from completion

C. Dilation is 50% completed

D. The fetus has achieved passage through the ischial spines

A

50% effaced&raquo_space; thinning and shortening of cervical canal
6cm&raquo_space; dilation (total dilation of 10cm)
-1&raquo_space; indicates station. Passing the ischial spines = station of 0. Station of +4/+5 means birth is imminent.
A

222
Q

Contractions start at the ____ of the uterus.
pain during the first phase of labour is _____
Intensity of contraction is determined by ______

A

top
mild
placing hand on the uterine fundus

223
Q

A primigravida asks the nurse about signs she can look for that would indicate the onset of labour is getting closer. The nurse should describe:

A. Weight gain of 500 to 1500 g

B. Quickening

C. Fatigue and lethargy

D. Bloody show

A

D

mucus plug has disappeared

224
Q

Spontaneous rupture of membranes (ROM) is associated with the “water breaking” we use the acronym COAT to describe the amniotic fluid.
Roughly 90% of women with go into labour within ____ hours with spontaneous ROM

Why is the time of membrane rupture so important to note?

A

C: color
O: odour
A: amount
T: time

24 hours

Time, starts the clock on when possible infection can set in» there is an opening to the baby

225
Q

When the amniotic fluid flushes out the _______ _____ can also flush out.
this is an emergency b/c contractions could compress the ______ decreasing oxygen to the baby.

Why are you checking maternal temp every 1-2 hours after ROM

A

ambilical cord
cord

introduction of infection

226
Q

Green colored amniotic fluid indicates what?

A

fetus has had a bowel movement in utero&raquo_space; this is a sign of stress to the fetus

227
Q

A woman is in the active phase of the first stage of labour. The physician artificially ruptures the membranes (AROM). A nurse assisting explains to the woman that after the procedure, she will most likely have:
A. Less pressure on her cervix

B. Decreased number of contractions

C. Increased efficiency of contractions

D. The need for increased monitoring of BP

A

C

228
Q

Fetal adaptations to labour:

  1. _____ to monitor oxygen supply
  2. Fetal ________
  3. Fetal _________
A

FHR
Fetal circulation
Fetal Respirations

229
Q

Fetal circulation can be impacted by

A

fetal position
strength of contractions
BP of the mother
umbilical blood flow

230
Q

What changes occur to stimulate fetal breathing mechanisms after birth

A
  • chemoreceptors in aorta & carotid bodies in the fetus&raquo_space; helps prepare fetus for initiating respirations right after birth
  • As fetus moves through the birth canal, fluid is squeezed out of the lungs.
  • oxygen pressure decreases and arterial pH decreases,
    bicarb level decreases, and resp movements decreases
    ** The only thing that increases is arterial CO2 pressure
231
Q

What techniques instruments do we use to monitor fetal responses to labour

A

Fetal HR monitor
intermittent auscultation
Check maternal distal pulse to differentiate it from the fetus.

232
Q

External Fetal monitor has 2 transducers, what do they monitor

A
  1. monitors fetal HR

2. monitors uterine activity

233
Q

To use an internal fetal monitor, certain conditions need to be met:

  1. cervix dilated at least ________cm
A

ROM or AROM

Cervix dilated at least 2-3 cm

234
Q

EMR has been shown to increases rates of __________

A

C-sections b/c it medicalizes birth

235
Q

What are some causes of fetal bradycardia

A
FHR < 110bpm
fetal cardiac problem
viral infection
Maternal hypoglycemia 
maternal hypothermia
236
Q

What are some causes of fetal tachycardia

A
FHR < 160 bpm 
maternal fever
maternal infection
maternal hyperthyroidism 
is the fetus has anemia
** meds and illicit drugs
237
Q

a moderate amplitude range of ____ to _____ bpm in fetal heart rate variability is considered normal

A

6-25 bpm

238
Q

fetal HR acceleration is defined as ___ bpm above the baseline and lasts for ____ seconds
Has to return to baseline in less than ____ minutes

A

15 x 15

2 minutes

239
Q

early decelerations in FHR are a sign that the baby’s _____ is being compressed by contractions

A

head

240
Q

Late deceleration is an indication of __________ _________

A

uteroplacental insufficiency&raquo_space; there is an issue with oxygenation of the uterus/placenta

241
Q

variable decelerations require _______

prolonged decelerations require _______

A

monitoring

medical emergency

242
Q

What is the nursing care role in the first stage of labour?

A
  • FHR (frequent monitoring)
  • Pain management, what is the birth plan
  • Labour status; is she progressing, is she coping
  • lab eval, WBC, anemia
  • comfort, positioning, food and drink
  • psychosocial assessment
  • cultural assessment
  • documentation
243
Q

Which stage of labour is walking most effective for the labour process and pain management?

A

first stage
allows the fetus to sink down into the pelvis, and allows the mother to remain upright.
Also increases the effectiveness of each contraction

244
Q

_______ pressure can be used during a contraction to help lessen the pain

A

Counter pressure. gently pushing on the base of the spine with your palm or fist

245
Q

rocking you pelvis is a helpful tool to help rotate the _______ _______ into positon

A

baby’s head

246
Q

Childbirth is considered _______ pain

A

productive

247
Q

Primary causes of pain in the first stage of labour include:

  1. _________ of cervix
  2. _________ on adjacent structures
  3. __________ of uterine muscles during contractions
  4. _________ of lower uterine segment
A
  1. dilation
  2. pressure
  3. hypoxia
  4. stretching
248
Q

Pain during labour comes from 3 places:

  1. _______pain; from the organs
  2. _______ pain; from skin, muscles
  3. ________ pain; originates in uterus and moves to abdo muscles, iliosacral, back, glutes, thighs, breasts
A
  1. visceral
  2. somatic
  3. referred
249
Q

in the first stage of labour the woman typically experiences pain during a contractions and then subsides.
unless they are in ______ labour

A

back labour. where the babys spine is adjacent to moms. spinous processes are pushing against moms spine

250
Q

pain in labour needs to be presented as _______ and _______

A

normal and productive

251
Q

FActors affecting pain in labour include

A

affective: emotional state
behavioral: muscle tension, breathing
cognitive: how much information and education is provided to the mom and support person
cultural: beliefs around pain and labour
supportive care: doula

252
Q

Sensory pain is greater for _________ women during EARLY (latent) labour

sensory pain is greater for _______ women in the active phase (first stage) and second stage of labour

A

nulliparous

multiparous

253
Q

________ Dutch word, describes how the enviro impacts women’s perceptions of and management of pain

A

Gezellig

254
Q

CLS has been shown to support the woman through labour

A

Continuous labour support

255
Q

What are some of the benefits of CLS

A
increased likelihood of vaginal delivery
decreased risk of C section
reduced risk of epidural analgesia
increased Apgar score
Increased maternal satisfaction
256
Q

What are the Cardiac physiological responses to pain in labour?

A

CO increases with pain from contractions & anxiety

maternal position affects CO, turn to side to increase CO.

257
Q

What changes occur to BP in pain during labour

A

BP increases during contractions and may increase with pain

258
Q

What changes occur to respiratory system in response to pain during labour

A

O2 demand and consumption increases

respirations and pulse increase with pain

259
Q

What MSK changes happen in labour as a response to pain

A

Decreased O2 to muscles with increased pain and during contractions

260
Q

What changes occur to immune system and blood values in response to pain and labour

A

WBC increase
maternal blood glucose levels decrease&raquo_space; b/c glucose is used as energy source during contractions. So insulin requirements decrease

261
Q

Endogenous endorphins are secreted by the _______ _______
acts on the PNS and CNS

Pain thresholds could ______ in response to endogenous endorphins

A

pituitary gland

rise

262
Q
Non pharmacologic comfort measures in early labour include:
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ & \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ enhancing positions 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ motions, to rock hips
- \_\_\_\_\_\_\_therapy
- \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pressure
-\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ball
A
upright and gravity
rhythmic 
aromatherapy
counter pressure
birthing ball
263
Q

Position that help rotation of the body into the Occiput-posterior fetal position include:

A
squatting
hands & knees - helps when mom is in back-labour
counter pressure
birthing ball
hands-and knees or side lying
264
Q

Pharmacological comfort measures include:

  1. _______ analgesia
  2. _______ ______ analgesia & anaesthesia
A

systemic analgesic&raquo_space; opioid agonist

nerve block&raquo_space; epidural block

265
Q

Epidural block can ______ labour

A

slow

266
Q

Opioid (narcotic) agonist analgesics include:
- _________
- _________
These do cross the _______.
They have a rapid onset and short duration.
Can only administer once labour is ______ established.
Side effects include:

A

Fentanyl, sufentanyl, morphine

placenta

well established

Decreases in uterine contractions, N&V, Respiratory depression, maternal & neonatal CNS depression

267
Q

NO is administered via ________.
enters the system within _____ seconds

must be ____administered

A

inhalation
15 seconds
self-administered

very effective for some, no effect for others.
Can cause dizziness in a small % of cases.

268
Q

Goal of epidural block is to provide sufficient _________ with as little blockage to sensory and motor nerves as possible

administered into the 4th-5th _____ vertebrae

vaginal birth must numb from: the thoracic ____ to sacral ___ vertebrae

C-Section: needs to block from thoracic _____ to Sacral _____ vertebrae

A

anesthesia
lumbar vertebrae
T10 - S5

C-section T8 - S1

269
Q

Which province has the highest rates of epidural admin

A

Quebec

270
Q

DYSTOCIA stands for

A

delayed or arrested progresses in labour, irrespective of causes who require augmentation

271
Q

maternal complications with epidural include:

epidural effects on fetus during labour

A
HYPOTENSION>> BP monitoring is a major Nursing intervention
N&V
fever
pruritis
intravascular injection
respiratory depression

Fetal distress secondary to maternal hypotension

272
Q

bleeding disorder
infection to back
and back disorder (scoliosis)
are contraindications for

A

epidural

273
Q

Nurses role prior to epidural admin

A
VS
pain assessment
education
contraction timing
coping skills
positioning 
labs , hematocrit
fetal HR 
empty bladder before hand (catheter admin) 
IV access
assist her into the position
274
Q

post epidural insertion the woman is positioned into_______ _________ or ________ _________ position.

She is repositioned every _____ to _____ minutes

A

semi reclined, side lying

20-30 minutes

275
Q

Second stage of labour begins with _____cm cervical dilation and complete __________ of the cervix.

Second stage labour ends with the _______ of ______

A

10cm dilation and complete effacement (100%)

birth of the baby

276
Q

Second stage of labour
average duration of
___ to ____ min in nulliparous
___ to ___ minutes in multiparous

A

50- 60

20-30

277
Q

What factors influence duration of 2nd stage labour?

What happens to contraction frequency, duration & intensity at this stage?

A
maternal size
size of the fetus (weight)
position of fetus
How quickly the fetus is descending
epidural can increase the length of this phase

Contractions are typically every 2-3 minutes&raquo_space; progress to every 1-2 minutes.
Duration: 90secs
Intensity: passive phase lull, active phase they become extremely strong

278
Q

What are some signs indicating the onset of 2nd stage labour?

A
Ferguson's reflex
Shaking of extremities
Vomiting
increased bloody show
restlessness (verbalization) 
sweat on the upper lip
involuntary bearing down efforts
279
Q

What is Ferguson’s Reflex

A

Feeling the urge to push or feeling the need to have a bowel movement

280
Q

What are the cardinal movements

** do not need to know each individual movement >. just know that these movements exist.

A

Descent: presenting part moving through the pelvis

Flexion: when the presenting part meets resistance from the cervix. Fetus may flex so the chin comes to the chest.

Internal Rotation: in order for the head to exit the fetus has to rotate. begins at level of ischial spines and is completed when presenting part reaches the lower pelvis.

Extension:
Restitution:
External Rotation:
Expulsion:

281
Q

What factors influence the cardinal movement of descent ?

A

Depends on the pressure of amniotic fluid and fundus on the fetus. As well as the strength of contractions. Descent is measured by the station of the fetal body.
Descent speeds up in the active phase
Assessed through abdominal palpation and pelvic exams

282
Q

_______ is when the top of the head no longer regresses between contractions.

A

Crowning

283
Q

What are common maternal sensations when crowning occurs?

A

Ring of fire.

Episiotomy may be necessary at this part.

284
Q

2nd stage of labour results in perineal trauma which is divided into classifications:
______ degree: extends through _____

______ degree: extends through the _______ of the perineal body

______ degree: continues through the ______ ______ _______

_____ degree: also involves the ______ _______ _______

A

first: skin
Second: muscles
Third: anal sphincter muscle
Fourth: anterior rectal wall

285
Q

What are the 2 types of episiotomy?

A

midline: most common, heal the easiest. However there is a higher incidence of 3rd and 4th degree lacerations

medio-lateral: operative birth, 4th degree tears can be prevented (b/c it is off center from the anal sphincter) however blood loss is greater and recovery is longer and more painful.

286
Q

What is an operative birth?

A

When they use forceps or vacuum

287
Q

How do we prevent episiotomy’s during birth?

A
manually supporting the perineum
Use of warm compresses
encourage Kegel exercises >> tightening of the pelvic floor muscles (prenatally and post partum).
Water births
upright position, squatting
288
Q

1st & 2nd degree tears to the perineum can be sutured using ______ stitches

3rd degree tears require _______ ________

4th degree tears require an _______ layer of sutures and would be done in the recovery room with epidural

A

dissolvable

local anesthetic

additional

289
Q

Women with 4th degree perineal tears would require ______ _______ and pain meds to ensure the sutures hold and recover

A

stool softeners

290
Q

What are the risk factors associated with perineal trauma?

A
parity - number of births
heredity
maternal position in L&B 
size of baby
speed of birth
291
Q

What are the primary sources of pain during the 2nd stage of labour?

A

hypoxia of contracting uterine muscles

distension of vagina and perineum

pressure on adjacent structure

** somatic pain

At this stage stretch receptors of the pelvic floor stimulate the release of OXYTOCIN from posterior pituitary&raquo_space; more intense contractions

292
Q

What are some pain options during the 2nd stage of labour?

A

local infiltration of anesthesia to the skin&raquo_space;
5-15mL of lidocaine is injected, epinephrine is added to reduce bleeding as it acts as a vasoconstrictor

pudendal nerve block&raquo_space; can be administered late in 2nd stage and would be used for episiotomy or operative birth

293
Q

What are the Nursing interventions for the 2nd stage of labour?

A
  • Assess for the maternal signs of 2nd stage
  • monitor maternal BP, pulse, and resps
  • ongoing assessment of contractions, fetal response (FHR q5mins when pushing)
  • ongoing assessment of maternal coping
  • Assessing progress of labour q10-15 mins
  • Assisting w/ positioning
  • Assisting w/ breathing while pushing
294
Q

We want open-glottis pushing, where air is released while pushing….. why?

A

prevents hemorrhoids

closed-glottis push increases pressure on the cardiovascular system&raquo_space; which decreases CO to the placenta.

295
Q

Third stgae of labour starts w/ ______of baby and ends with ________ of placenta

A

birth of baby

expulsion of placenta

296
Q

How long post baby birth does it take for the placenta to come out?

A

15-20 minutes

297
Q

Skin to skin contact post birth helps release _______ in the mom

A

oxytocin

298
Q

When the shoulders of the baby are coming out we need to give the mom a dose of ________
why?

A

oxytocin

It helps prevent post-partum hemorrhage

299
Q

2 steps that are taken to prevent post-partum hemorrhage?

A

oxytocin injection to mom

cutting the cord within 3 minutes after birth

300
Q

When the placenta detaches there is a gush of _______ from the vagina.

While the mom is holding baby, awaiting ‘birth’ of the placenta what helps reduce risks of PP hemorrhage?

A

blood

breast feeding&raquo_space; will release oxytocin

301
Q

Cord blood is collected on the umbilical cord to perform what tests?

A

Blood gases
blood type * especially if the mother is Rh negative
bilirubin levels if the baby is thought to have an infection
assess a complete blood count (especially in preme baby)
assess if there are any drugs in the baby’s system

302
Q

Need to assess the placenta post delivery to ensure what?

A

that it is intact, if any parts are missing it means they are still in the moms uterus.
If any placental tissue remains the uterus cannot contract and there is bleeding&raquo_space; PPH

303
Q

Fourth stage of labour involves what?

A

it is 1-2 hours after birth,

involves immediate care of the mother and newborn.

304
Q

Maternal VS are assessed every ____ minutes for the first _____ after delivery in the fourth stage of labour to assess for?

A

15 minutes
1 hour
PPH, bladder distention, and venous thrombosis

305
Q

What changes occur to maternal VS in the 4th stage of labour ?

A

BP : monitoring to ensure it returns to prelabour level

Pulse: lower than in labour

Temperature: may increase minimally in the 1st 24 hours as a result of dehydration
**temp is usually taken every 4 hours

306
Q

What are some changes to VS if maternal hemorrhage is present?

A

BP will increase and then plummet
Pulse: increase
Temp: increase if infection is present

307
Q

We assess the uterus in the 4th stage of labour, what are normal findings?

A

uterus is hard and firm (felt through abdominal palpation of fundus)
We want to determine ‘normal’ positioning of uterus&raquo_space; midline.

308
Q

If the uterus doesn’t feel like a hard globe but rather is soft /boggy in the 4th stage of labour what are the nursing interventions?

if the uterus does not firm up, what needs to be assessed?

A

we massage it in attempts to express retained clots and to firm it up
** this is painful for the woman

is the bladder full? if so that would prevent the uterus from firming up&raquo_space; may need to be catheterized

309
Q

measuring the position of the fundus relative to the woman’s umbilicus in 4th stage of labour, how is it measured and documented?

A

fundus above umbilicus&raquo_space; plus cm, if below measured as minus cm

one fingerbreadth equals 1cm.

310
Q

If the uterus does not firm up despite massage and draining of bladder what is this called?

A

Uterine atony&raquo_space; lack of tone

311
Q

bleeding from the vagina post delivery is called _______.
Some bleeding is to be expected. How much?

what are the various colors

If you find a clot you need to be able to pull it apart, if you can’t the clot is likley?

A

lochia
like a heavy menstrual period
dark red&raquo_space; lochia rubra directly post birth
will progress to serosa&raquo_space; light pink/ brownish day 3-7
into alba&raquo_space; more white colored 8 weeks after birth

Tissue from the placenta

312
Q

What are the steps to perineum care post delivery?

A
  • Wash with warm water, dry well and apply sanitary pad
  • if pain present&raquo_space; place ice pack against perineum to promote comfort and decrease swelling
    ** suggest once home, soak perineal pad in water and freeze.
  • Assess perineum while woman is lying on side
    REEDA
    Redness
    Edema
    Ecchymosis
    Discharge
    Approximation (how many stitches).

Hemorrhoids post labour is common

Hematoma&raquo_space; common if the woman is complaining of a lot of pain inside the vagina.
May need to be taken to the OR to have surgically removed (drained)

313
Q

inter vaginal hematomas are a serious concern b/c the woman can go into ________ if not dealt with

A

shock
she is essentially bleeding internally.

S&S of shock: weak thready pulse
skin cool and clammy

314
Q

Nursing assessment for mother immediately after birth?

A
post perineum assessment 
 - assess bladder for distention
-Assess pain level
_ assess lower extremities
assess emotional state
_encourage attachment behaviors
315
Q

The new born period lasts from birth to ____ days old

A

28

316
Q

complications that could arise to the newborn would include:
baby’s who are born to C-section struggle to ______ their ________.
why?
Baby may also be ______thermic

A

clear their secretions. During vaginal childbirth chemoreceptors are activated to stimulate the lungs and the contractions help squeeze fluid out of the lungs, this is lost in a C-section.
h
hypo-thermic. struggle with temp regulation.

317
Q

We need to assess the umbilical cord after it is cut because it needs to have
____ arteries & ____ vein
It can be cut between ___ to ____ minutes after birth
we need to assess _____ of the cord and ensure there are no ____ in the cord
clamp about ___ inch from the baby’s abdomen
we cleanse the area and if needed can add an _________ ointment

Cutting the umbilical cord helps the baby to kick start their own___________.

A

2 arteries
1 vein
1-3 minutes after birth

length
free of cysts
clamp about an inch away from the baby’s abdomen

antimicrobial

Circulation

318
Q

infants who are born vaginally don’t typically have issues getting their respiratory system going, and require little suction. Why do C-section babies typically have more issues with their resp system?

A

no squeezing and clearing of the resp system.

319
Q

if the infant is struggling with breathing, chocking on secretions what are our nursing interventions?

A

first steps of CPR, infant on stomach and 2-finger taps to back.
nasal suction, careful to avoid center of the mouth b/c of the gag reflex.
nasal passages can be suctioned gently one nostril at a time.

320
Q

What are the newborn advantages of skin-to-skin contact with mom immediately after birth?

A

cold-stress can occur with infants» if they get cold they can use up their glucose stores to try and warm. similarly they have brown fat that used when they are cold and shivering.
best way to get them warm
best way to get them to bond; can smell their mom.
-breastfeed as soon as possible
-reduces their crying

  • for the mother: this increases the oxytocin and prolactin levels when she is holding her infant like this.
321
Q

What are the 5 signs indicative of physiological status that are measured with the APGAR score

APGAR score is measured ___ minute after birth and ____ minutes after birth

A
HR
Respiratory Effort
Muscle tone
Reflex irritability 
color

APGAR measured at 1 & 5 mins after birth

322
Q

If a newborns body is pink but their extremities are pale/blueish this referred to as

A

acrocyanosis

peripheral cyanosis

323
Q

Newborn VS
HR _______bpm, assessed via the _____ pulse.
Respirations _______, assessed ideally when the newborn is ___ _____.
Periods of ______ is common for newborn resps.
Temperature________

A

HR: 120-160bpm, apical pulse
Resps: 30-60/min
assess when newborn is at rest. periods of apnea are common directly after birth. As are crackles (from fluid being expelled from the lungs.
Temp: 36.5 - 37.5

BP is only measured if cardiac issues are present

Goal is to prevent heat loss, we postpone the first bath for this reason.

324
Q

Warming of a hypothermic newborn needs to happen _______.

Over ____ to ____ hours

A

slowly

2-4 hours

325
Q

_______ temp is the best way to measure newborn temp

A

axillary

326
Q

Fluctuations in newborn temps could be a result of

A

heat loss
infection already present
too much clothing

327
Q

pulse is normally around ____ to ____ bmp when the newborn is sleeping.
But when they are crying vigorously it can go up to _____ bpm

A

80-100bpm at rest

180bpm

328
Q

signs of infant respiratory distress

A

nasal flaring
grunting
retractions of the chest, ribs

329
Q

the length of the baby is measured from ____ of the head to the _____

A

top of the head to the heel

330
Q

barriers are placed on the machine measuring height and weight prior to placing the baby down to prevent what?

A

heat loss

331
Q

baby’s lose ___% of their body weight in the first 3-5 days. They then regain it withing ___ weeks

A

10%

2weeks

332
Q
  1. ___________ – born before 37 completed weeks, regardless of birth weight
  2. ____________ – born between 34 0/7 and 36 6/7 weeks
  3. ____________– born between 37 and 38+6 weeks gestation
  4. ____________ – born between the beginning of 39 and the end of week 40+6
  5. _____________ – born in the 41st week
  6. ____________ – born after completion of week 42
  7. ____________- born after completion of week 42 and showing signs of placental aging (insufficiency)
A
  1. Preterm(premature)
  2. Late preterm
  3. Early term
  4. Full term
  5. Late term
  6. Postterm (postdate)
  7. Postmature
333
Q

Preterm
late term(preterm)
& early term
all share these common neonatal deficits

A

breast feeding issues
ADHD
Respiratory issues
prenatal morbidity and mortality rates

334
Q

_______score is used to score gestational age.

It assesses ____ external physical signs & ____ neuromuscular signs

A

Ballard Score
6
6

335
Q

Eye Prophylaxis is given a few hours after birth to prevent ________ in the eyes

A

infections
** controversial
was started in the 1800s b/c 10% of baby’s were going blind d/t chlamydia and gonorrhea infections.
* parents can refuse this

336
Q

Vitamin K prophylaxis

IM injection in thigh to prevent _________ ________

A

hemorrhagic disease of the newborn
* baby’s are not born with vitamin K, this is produced in the intestine later.
* parents can refuse but we encourage them not to.
they can choose the oral vit K dose but it is less effective and they require multiple doses

337
Q

Newborns go through multiple phases of reactivity
1. first phase includes the following physiological changes:
this period lasts for ___ mins, tends to resolve within the first ____ after birth

  1. 60 -100 minutes
    period of _________ responsiveness
  2. Second period of ________
    occurs ___ to ___ hours after birth.
    brief periods of ____cardia & _____pnea.
    ______ muscle tone
A
  1. HR will increase to 160-180bpm then settle. They will have fine crackles in lungs, grunting and nasal flares, try to get breathing under control. Will have their first meconium.
    lasts about 30 minutes, resolves within the first hour.
  2. decreased responsiveness. sleepy and subdued
  3. reactivity occurs 2-8 hours after birth.
    tachycardia & tachypnea, increased muscle tone.
338
Q

what is myconium

A

newborns first BM, might be a weird color, made up of shed skin cells, and fluids

339
Q

*Localized edema on the scalp often after a prolonged labour or use of vacuum extraction. Dissipates in about 3-4 days. Crosses suture lines.

A

capput succedaneum

340
Q

A collection of blood beneath the periosteum of the skull. Swelling does not cross suture lines. Appears on day 2 or 3 and disappears in weeks or months. Jaundice may result. _____________

A

cephalhematoma

341
Q

*Elongated shape of the skull as a result of overlapping of cranial bones during birth
_______________

A

molding

342
Q

*Diamond-shaped “soft spot”. Remains open up to 18 months to allow the brain to grow. _____________________

A

anterior fontanelle

343
Q

*Tightness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, resulting in the newborn’s head tilting to one side. _________________

A

torticollis

would need to do physio for the baby

344
Q

*Distended, small white sebaceous glands on the nose, chin, and forehead.
Disappear on their own. _________

A

milia

345
Q

Reddened, demarcated area over cheeks and jaws due to an

instrument used to assist in delivery. _______________

A

forceps mark

346
Q

*Also called port wine stain. Most often on face or neck. Flat. Pink to purple red. Permanent. May be associated with a syndrome or certain cancers. _________

A

nervus flammeus

347
Q

*Also called strawberry mark. Benign. Raised, rough, dark red and sharply demarcated. ____________

A

nevus vasculosis

348
Q

Lacy patterns of blood vessels under the skin. __________________

A

mottling

349
Q

*Also known as “newborn rash”. Very common in 1st week. Small white or yellow papules or vesicles on the skin. No clinical significance. No treatment. _______________

A

erytheum toxicum

350
Q

*Superficial vascular areas (flat, pink, capillary hemangiomas)on nape of neck, eyelids, nose, upper lip, and lower occiput. More visible when crying. Fade in first and second years of life ________

A

telangiectatic nevi /“storkbites”

351
Q

A thick, white substance that protects the skin of the fetus. Common in body creases. Don’t wash it off – it has positive benefits for neonatal skin __________

A

vernix caseosa

352
Q

*Soft, downy hair on the body, particularly on the face, shoulders and back. Disappears over the first few weeks of life. __________________

A

lanugo

353
Q

Bluish black areas of pigmentation commonly noted on the back and buttocks. Tend to occur more frequently in newborns whose ethnic origins are in Asia or Africa. Fade gradually over months or years. ______________

A

mongolian spots

354
Q

Pink body, or colour appropriate for ethnicity, and blue extremities. Normal. Appears intermittently over the first 7-10 days ___________________

A

acrocynosis

355
Q

*Yellowish discolouration of the skin. ____________

A

jaundice

356
Q

lower set ears are characteristic of many syndromes and internal organ abnormalities involving the ______ system

A

renal

357
Q

*A ridge of frenulum tissue attached to the underside of the tongue, causing a heart-shape at the
tip of the tongue. ____________

A

tongue tie

358
Q

Small, glistening white specks (keratin-containing cysts) on the
hard palate and gum margins. Disappear in weeks. __________________

A

epstein’s pearls

359
Q

*White patches that adhere to mucous membranes of the mouth (cheeks, lips) caused by exposure to Candida albicans during birth. _______________

A

thrush
if a baby has thrush they got it from their mom, need to treat the baby with drops and treat the mothers nipples.
Sometimes the baby can get thrush in their diaper as well

360
Q

*Appears on the upper lip from feeding. _________________

A

sucking blister

361
Q

1.*The urethral opening is on the underside (ventral aspect) of the penis. ____________

2.*A collection of fluid surrounding the testes in the scrotum; usually resolves
without intervention. _________________

  1. *The urinary meatus is on the dorsal surface (top side) of the glans. _____________
A
  1. hypospadius
  2. hyrocele
  3. epispadius
362
Q
  • A turning inward position of the feet. May be due to intrauterine
    positioning. ___________
A

tailpes equinovarus

363
Q

*Two or more digits fused. __________

A

syndactyly

364
Q

Extra digits on either hands or feet. ___________

A

polydactyly

365
Q

what is pseudomenstration in a female newborn

A

vaginal discharge composed of mucus mixed w/ blood may be present during first few weeks of life.
Requires no intervention

366
Q

What are the newborn reflexes

A
tonic neck
rooting
suckling
moro (startle)
palmar grasp
plantar grasp
babinski
steppng
galant
367
Q

ortolani and barlow movements are used to determine

A

detect developmental dysplasia of the hip DDH

368
Q
When do these reflexes dissapear
Sucking & rooting
Palmar grasp
Plantar grasp
Tonic neck
Moro (or startle)
Stepping (or walking)
Babinski
Galant
A
Should disappear after 1 year of age
Disappears by 3-4 months
Lessens by 3-4 months
Disappears after 3-4 months
Disappears `by 4th week
Present for 3-4 wks.
Complete response seen until 8th week
Lessens by 8 months
369
Q

when are the most infant-feeding decision made?

A

Well before the infant is born, including before conception

370
Q

What factors influence parents feeding decisions?

A

how much they know about breast feeding
culture/hx
what their partner thinks about it

371
Q

Women who are overweight and obese tend to breastfeed ______ than the general population

A

less

372
Q

where is milk synthesized?

A

alveoli are the milk producing cells surrounded by contractile cells.
Milk ducts carry milk from the alveoli to the nipples

373
Q

Size and shape of breast are ____ indicators of milk production.
______ are a big indicator of milk production

A

not

hormones

374
Q

Breast feeding influencing hormones include:

4

A

Progesterone
Estrogen
Prolactin
Oxytocin

375
Q

After birth there is a decrease in __________ which stimulates release of _________from the ______ pituitary

A

progesterone
prolactin
anterior

  • *during pregnancy prolactin prepares the breasts to produce milk
    • During lactation prolactin helps the breast synthesize milk
376
Q

When are prolactin levels the highest?

A

First 10 days after birth

377
Q

Breast feeding actually works on a ________ and _________

A

Supply and Demand
prolactin is stimulated by the infants suckling

  • the more suckling or pumping the more milk that will be produced.
378
Q

oxytocin is produced in the_________ __________

and is responsible for the ________ reflex

A

posterior pituitary

ejection

379
Q

if the woman is breast feeding she is less at risk for _______, why?

A

PPH

b/c oxytocin is stimulating during breastfeeding and it is also responsible for uterine contractions.

380
Q

high levels of ________ during pregnancy prevent the mother from breastfeeding. This drops once the baby is born, allowing for lactation

A

estrogen

381
Q

The following steps are part of the _________ _______ ________

  1. Infant latches at the breast
  2. Nerve endings in the areola and nipple are stimulated
  3. A message is sent to the posterior pituitary gland to release oxytocin into the bloodstream
  4. Oxytocin stimulates the cells around the alveoli to contract, squeezing milk into the ducts and towards the nipple
A

milk ejection reflex

382
Q

CPS recommends exclusive breastfeeding for the first ______ months of life

A

6

Can go on for up tp 2 years.

383
Q

True or False

Protein requirements per body weight is greater in newborns than any other time in life

A

True

384
Q

Milk proteins are high which make it readily digestible
whey protein: _____%
casein protein: ____%

A

70%
30%
They is different from cows milk which is 80% casein and 20% whey

385
Q

Whey protein has many amino acids that with _________ properties
Similarly it has ______ binding properties

A

bacteriostatic

iron

386
Q

what are the 2 mjor components of breast milk:
1. ______ proteins
2. Long chain ______________ fatty acids
what are the benefits of #2

A

milk proteins

long chain polyunsaturated fatty acids
**helps with mylenation of the SC
enhances visual acuity

387
Q

All baby’s require a supplement of:

  1. Vitamin D _____IU
  2. _____ supplements. Baby’s draw on natural stores for the first 6 months then require supplement

Baby’s don’t require any additional _______, b/c breast milk is 87% of this.

A
  1. 400
  2. iron

water. they get enough from breast milk and if you give them more it takes up too much room in their stomachs

388
Q

breast fed infants need to be fed every ___ to _____ hours.

Alternatively ________ _______ is where they eat every hour for 5 hours

A

2-3

cluster feeding

389
Q

main way you tell if a baby is hydrated is by the amount and color of ______.

A

urine

they should have 6 sufficiently wet diapers in a 24 hour period by day 5

390
Q

little ‘seeds’ in the breast fed infants poop is actually:

for the first month they will have _____ stools per day

A

fat globules from the milk

3

391
Q

infants lose ___% of their weight in the first 3-4 days.

they should regain birth weight by ___ _____ of age

A

10%

2 weeks

392
Q

formula fed baby’s should be receiving roughly ___ to ____mL of formula per feeding in the first 24-48 hours

By the end of week 1 they are having ___ to ___ mL

A

10-30mL

60-90mL

We then continue to feed them based on their hunger.
generally they will have 6-8 feedings in a 24 hour period.

393
Q

In formula fed infants their poop is a darker ______ color and is _________

A

yellow

smellier

394
Q

initially in the first 2-3 days after birth the women will produce ________________,
it is rich in antibodies, high protein and low in fat

A

colostrum

395
Q

colostrum helps with the binding of _________.

________ that has not been conjugated will cause jaundice

A

bilirubin

bilirubin

396
Q

it takes about _____ days for the woman to produce mature milk

A

10 days

397
Q

when a baby first starts suckling they will get _________ which is thinner and is designed to quench their thirst.

Once they have been suckling for 10 mins or so they will get to the ______ _______ which is richer in nutrients and is rich in fat.

A

foremilk

hind milk

398
Q

Baby’s need to stay breastfeeding long enough to get to the ______ ______.
This could take roughly ____ to ____ mins

A

hind milk

20-30mins

399
Q

LATCH

A

Latch on
Audible Swallowing
Type of nipple (are there issues with the nipples)
Comfort of the mother
Holding skills (there are a # of different positions)

400
Q

Can the mother breastfeed while on methadone

A

yes

401
Q

If the mother has had alcohol she should wait __ hours before breastfeeding

A

2

402
Q

How does smoking effect breastfeeding?

A

it impairs production, should not BF for 2 hours after smoking

403
Q

Does nicotine pass into the breastmilk of a nursing mother?

A

yes.

NTR can be used as an alternative to smoking but it still does pass to the baby through the breastmilk

404
Q

What are the primary things we need to evaluate during a breastfeeding assessment?

A
  • Condition of breast (soft, filling, firm)
  • Condition of nipples (intact, bleeding, blistered)
  • Scars, piercing or implants
  • Positioning
  • Latching on
  • Maternal response (comfort in handling infant, level of confidence, signs of discomfort or pain, recognition of infant hunger cues and signs of satiety)
  • Infant response (suck, swallow, and gag reflexes, regurgitation, signs of correct latch)
  • Partner response
405
Q

Considerations for breast feeding after a C-section:

A
  • Is a surgical patient - needs pain control– (analgesics can make baby sleepy - through breastmilk)
  • Needs someone to be with her if still drowsy and trying to breastfeed
  • Needs assistance with breastfeeding – breastfeed early
  • Side-lying hold or football hold are the best positions for breastfeeding
  • Can use pillows to help with support of the newborn
  • Need to breastfeed early and often as milk may come in late - feeding often helps stimulate milk production
  • Breast milk comes in late with C-section moms, need assistance getting milk production started
406
Q

What are some early infant feeding cues?

What are some strategies to wake the baby and get them to feed?

A
  • sucking on fingers and hands
  • waking and stretching
  • Mouth opening
  • Turning head, seeking/rooting
  • Place infant skin-to-skin
  • Change infants diaper
  • tickling their toes
  • Removing clothing so they are cooler ( if they are very warm they will continue to sleep).

Remember if the baby is very sleepy , and only feeds for 10 mins then falls back asleep ( they haven’t gotten to the hind milk&raquo_space; need to continue feeding)

407
Q

What are proper hygiene techniques for a breast feeding mother?

A

no soap on the nipples&raquo_space; can dry out
No need for special oils as they can block the production of natural oils from Montgomery’s glands.
* may need special nipple cream&raquo_space; lancelin (sp)

408
Q

Underwire bras can contribute to clogged ____ ______

A

milk ducts

409
Q

Name some of the different positions available for breastfeeding?

A

Cross-cradle hold
Football hold (clutch)
Side lying
Laid Back

410
Q

What are signs of effective milk transfer?

A

nipple to nose, we want to nose to be in line with the nipple and the areola.
That their chin and nose are pushed into the breast and cheeks are lightly touching
Mother reports there is tugging but no pain
we want the baby to suck with well-rounded cheeks

Breasts should be less full and softer after feeding.

411
Q

What are signs the infant is getting enough milk.

A

Their weight should be increasing by day 4 they should have gained 20-35g per days.

412
Q

From day 1 to 4 the number of wet diapers should match the day, what does this mean.

After day 5 they should have how many wet diapers per day

A

Day 1 baby should have 1 wet diaper
day 2 baby should have 2 wet diapers
and so on
After day 5 they should have 6 wet diapers per day

413
Q

what is the progression of bowel movements for a baby during the first week?

A

days 1-2 ( should have 1 or 2 dark green meconium stools per day)

Days 3-4 ( should be 2-3 greenish yellow BM per day)

Day 5 onward should have 3 yellowish BM per day.

414
Q

What are some of the infant satiety cues?

A

Falls asleep
Appear to be content
hands and limbs relax&raquo_space; become more extended
May activity push away from the breast

415
Q

As baby’s get older the length of their feedings decreases, why?

A

They get better and more efficient at feeding. getting more milk out in a shorter period of time

416
Q

Day 1 baby’s can take in ___ to ___ mL

Day 3 __ to ___ mL

Day to ___ to ___mL

of breast milk

A

5-7mL

22 - 27mL

60 - 80mL ( size of an egg)

417
Q

What are the primary complications of breastfeedings

A

Cracked-sore nipples: this can happen with poor latch. You want the nipple to be at the back of the baby’s mouth. Thrush can also cause cracked nipples.

    • Need to have proper suction / connection.
    • bring baby to breast.
    • if mom needs to break the connection do not pull baby off breast need to break suction by sticking a finger in the baby’s mouth.

Engorgement: usually happens day 3-5. Need to express the milk and soften the breasts before the baby latches.

Plugged ducts: area of the breast is sore and red (no fever). Need to feed often on this side.

Yeast infection: candida albicans.
Both mother and infant need to be treated at the same time» educate mom about good hand hygiene.

Mastitis: infection of the breast (will have fever and inflammation&raquo_space; need to breast feed frequently and pump).

418
Q

1.Mild ________________ is due to the sudden change in hormones and the increased volume of milk. It occurs ___ to ___ days after birth and usually last about ___ hours. Intense engorgement can result from accumulation of milk and increasing blood supply to the breasts. Breasts become _____________, tender, swollen, and hot and appear shiny and red.

A

mild engorgement
2-5 days after birth usually lasts about 24 hours

firm

419
Q

2.At this time, the newborn may have difficulty latching onto the breast. To help soften the breasts, a small amount of milk may be _____________. Prior to a feeding, women can stand in a warm shower or breasts may be massaged and _______ compresses applied. After feedings, treatment includes _______ compresses and chilled cabbage leaves.

A

manually expressed
warm
cold

Warmed before feedings
cold after feedings

420
Q

When the mother’s breasts are engorged, the newborn should also feed frequently, every ___ to ___ hours.

A

2-3 hours

421
Q

The most common cause of sore nipples is improper _________ and _________. To prevent sore nipples, break _______before removing the newborn from the breast.

A

latching and positioning

latch

422
Q

To maintain integrity of the nipples, only use _______, no soap, when washing the breasts and allow a slight amount of breast milk to dry on the nipples after feedings. In addition, allow nipples to air dry after feedings.

A

water

423
Q

Change breast ______ frequently, and avoid those with plastic backing.

A

pads

424
Q

Allow infants to feed on the ___________ side first, so that more vigorous feeding, common at the onset of the feeding, will occur first on this side.

A

least full

425
Q

A _________ infection may also cause sore nipples. When this occurs, oral thrush may be evident in the infant. Mother and infant require simultaneous treatment.

A

yeast infection

426
Q

__________ is an inflammation of the breast tissue caused by plugged ________ and ____________ invasion. This is most likely to develop in the first several weeks postpartum. Signs include the appearance of a painful, hot, and _______ area on the breast. The infection is usually unilateral. The mother may also experience _________, ___________, and _________________________.

A

mastitis
milk ducts
bacterial invasion

red area

fever, chills, body aches & headaches

427
Q

A blocked or plugged _________ may predispose a woman to mastitis. This can occur from a bra that is too tight.

The most common infecting organism is S. Aureus which comes from _______________________________.

If untreated, this may progress to a breast ____________

Treatment consists of ______________________________ and treating the infection with antibiotics. In addition, ice or warm packs and analgesics may be needed.

A

duct

sore cracked bleeding nipples as entry point and milk stasis.

if mastitis is not treated can progress to breast abscess

breast feeding frequently

428
Q

Family forms:
Family as __________ focuses on the client/patient with the family as background to the individual
Family as __________ focuses on assessing all the family members
Family as __________ states that the whole family is more than the sum of its parts
Family as Component of Society states that the family is an _____________ that interacts with other ____________

A

Context

Client

System

Institutions
Other Institutions

429
Q

Family members depend on each other for ______________, emotional and financial support

A

physical

430
Q

The three concepts essential to understanding family interactions that affect health are ________, ____________ and ______________.

A

Structure
Function
Processes