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242 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Define low flow system

A

oxygen rates lower than the individual’s inspiratory demands

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2
Q

Define high flow system

A

ventilatory demand is met completely by the flow system

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3
Q

Adv of nasal cannula

A

easily transportable

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4
Q

are oxygen masks for long term or short term therapy

A

short term

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5
Q

how full does the reservoir bag have to be for nonrebreather masks

A

full

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6
Q

What 3 things should be assessed with a nasal cannula

A

Pt’s skin integrity, SpO2 value and pt level of understanding

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7
Q

What device to infants and small children receive their oxygen through

A

oxygen hoods

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8
Q

What are the two types of incentive spirometry

A

Flow oriented and volume oriented

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9
Q

Define flow oriented spirometry

A

chambers with coloured balls that rise and the pt inhales

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10
Q

Define volume oriented spirometry

A

measures volume that the pt inhales

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11
Q

What two assessments should be done prior to giving pt incentive spirometry

A

pain and LOC

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12
Q

Special considerations for geriatric and children using incentive spirometry

A

school aged children plus, gerontological- difficulty coordinating the use of IS and weakened respiratory muscles so takes longer to reach desired volume

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13
Q

How to measure oropharyngeal airway

A

lips to jawline

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14
Q

What mnfts cause the need for oropharyngeal airway

A

upper airway gurgling with breathing, absent cough or gag reflex, oral secretion, drooling, and clenched teeth

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15
Q

What things should be considered when choosing an oxygen devices for a pt?

A

age, developmental level, hospital or home, level of health orientation

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16
Q

Ex of high flow devices

A

venturi mask, large volume nebulizer, and blender masks,

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17
Q

Ex of low flow devices

A

nasal cannula, simple face mask, nonrebreather and partial rebreather

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18
Q

Flow rate range for nasal cannula

A

1-6L/min

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19
Q

Flow rate for oxygen conserving cannula

A

8L/min

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20
Q

Flow rate for simple face mask:

A

6-12L/min

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21
Q

Partial nonrebreather flow rate range

A

10-15L/min

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22
Q

what oxygen device is used for a pt that can’t tolerate a tight fitting mask

A

face tent

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23
Q

Which incentive spirometry is preferred for geriatrics?

A

volume IS

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24
Q

When are oropharyngeal devices inserted into a Pt?

A

when pt is unconscious

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25
Q

What is hypoxemia

A

decrease in arterial blood oxygen levels

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26
Q

Where is aseptic technique utilized in nursing

A

operating room, labor and delivery, major Dx areas

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27
Q

Principle 1 of sterile asepsis

A
  1. all items in a sterile field must be sterile
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28
Q

Principle 2 of sterile asepsis

A
  1. a sterile barrier that has been permeated by tears, punctures or moisture must be considered contaminated
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29
Q

Principle 3 of sterile asepsis

A

1 inch border around the edges is considered unsterile

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30
Q

Principle 4 of sterile asepsis

A

Only sterile at table level

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31
Q

Principle 5 of sterile asepsis

A

in any questions about sterility it is unsterile

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32
Q

Principle 6 of sterile asepsis

A

sterile items only contact sterile things

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33
Q

Principle 7 of sterile asepsis

A

movement in a sterile field must not compromise sterility

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34
Q

Principle 8 of sterile asepsis

A

a sterile object below waist is considered unsterile

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35
Q

Principle 9 of sterile asepsis

A

a sterile object is contaminated by prolonged exposure

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36
Q

List the sterile equipment in order for putting it on

A

gown, cap, mask, eyewear, gloves

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37
Q

List the sterile equipment in order for taking it off

A

gloves, eyewear, gown, mask, cap

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38
Q

What do you need to watch for with sterile gloves?

A

latex allergy

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39
Q

Do you glove dominant or non dominant hand first

A

dominant

40
Q

When collecting a catheter specimen how long do you clamp before collecting

A

15min

41
Q

How many mL need to be withdrawn for a culture collection from catheter

A

3mL

42
Q

How many mL need to be withdrawn from catheter for routine analysis?

A

20mL

43
Q

For a urinalysis, transfer urine from __ container to __ container for culture

A

clean to sterile

44
Q

What is a nose and throat specimen collection used for?

A

Dx when signs and symptoms of an upper respiratory infection

45
Q

Where do you swab for a throat specimen collection?

A

tonsil area careful not to touch other parts of the mouth

46
Q

When collecting a nasal swab, where are you swabbing

A

inflamed area rotate swab quickly

47
Q

Define asepsis

A

process for keeping away disease-producing microorganisms

48
Q

What is medical asepsis

A

technique to reduce or prevent the spread of microorganisms

49
Q

Define surgical asepsis

A

process to eliminate all microorganisms including spores from an object

50
Q

What to not do when getting a needle stick injury

A

squeeze the wound, apply disinfectant

51
Q

What is SESIP

A

sharps with engineered sharp injury prevention

52
Q

what is the most ideal size for needle selection

A

want smallest gauge and shortest needle possible

53
Q

What position of limb is most comfortable for injection

A

flexed

54
Q

What site is best for IM injection

A

ventrogluteal

55
Q

How long to wait before removing IM injection from limb

A

10 sec

56
Q

___ injection sites to prevent abscess from forming

A

rotate

57
Q

Define a luer-lock syringe

A

needle twists onto syringe and lock to prevent accidental removal of needle

58
Q

Define a non-luer lock syringe

A

needles slip onto the top of the syringe

59
Q

What size range do syringes come in

A

0.5mL-60mL

60
Q

What size syringes are used for SC and IM injections

A

1-3mL

61
Q

size of syringe is determined based on

A

dos of med, viscosity, gender and size of patient

62
Q

3 parts to a needle

A

hub, shaft, bevel

63
Q

What size needle is used for IM

A

1-1.5 inch

64
Q

What size needle is used for SC inj

A

3/8 to 5/8 inch

65
Q

What needle is used to draw up meds from ampules

A

filter tip needle

66
Q

vials can be multi-use but __ pt

A

single

67
Q

for dry vial, add __ to the vial

A

dissolvent

68
Q

Do you expel air bubbles into ampule

A

no

69
Q

where to dispose of extra fluid in syringe?

A

sink

70
Q

What to write on label of multi-use vial

A

date, concentration of med and initials

71
Q

What is intradermal inj used for

A

skin testing, potent meds to slow absorption

72
Q

Risk of injecting a med too fasr

A

anaphylactic reaction

73
Q

How much can you inject intradermally

A

0.01 to 0.1mL

74
Q

What forms if intradermal inj went into the dermis

A

bleb

75
Q

How far do you advance the needle for intradermal inj

A

3mm

76
Q

How much med can be inj SC

A

0.5-1.5mL

77
Q

How much med can be injected SC in pediatrics

A

0.5mL

78
Q

What 4 locations are best for SC

A

abdomen, upper arms, anterior thigh, butt

79
Q

What size needle is used for SC inj.

A

25 gauge, 16 or 12mm

80
Q

If less than __ inches of skin pinch, inj at 45 degree angle

A

2

81
Q

How much med can be injected IM into adult? child? infant?

A

2-5mL, 1mL, 0.5mL

82
Q

What method is used for IM injection

A

Z track method

83
Q

Why is ventrogluteal the best IM location

A

away from nerves and blood vessels

84
Q

What 4 complications are associated with all sites for IM except ventrogluteal

A

fibrosis, nerve damage, abscess and tissue necrosis

85
Q

Vastus lateralis is preferred site of what IM injections?

A

biologics in infants, toddlers and children

86
Q

How much med can be inj IM in deltoid

A

2mL or less

87
Q

When is deltoid used for IM inj

A

small doses, routine vaccinations toddler plus, when other sites are inaccessible

88
Q

What are 5 adv to IV and vascular access therapy

A

parenteral nutrition, transfuse blood, hemodynamic monitoring, Dx testing, admin fluids/meds

89
Q

What two types of meds are injected SC

A

one time infusion or IV push administration

90
Q

What 5 clinical factors are assessed before IV therapy

A

body weight, vascular volume, interstitial volume, thirst, LOC

91
Q

What is included when assessing vascular volume?

A

urine output, vitals, auscultation of lungs and distended neck veins

92
Q

What makes up interstitial volume

A

skin turgor, dependent edema, oral mucous membrane

93
Q

Grade 1 phlebitis symptoms

A

erythema at access site with or without pain

94
Q

Grade 2 phlebitis

A

pain at access site, erythema or edema

95
Q

Grade 3 phlebitis

A

pain at access site, erythema, streak forming

242 (1 decks)

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