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Pharmacology > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In figure 1, three different doses of drug A are tested for activity. In figure 2, three doses of drug B are tested for activity in the same test system. In figure 3, three doses of drug A are tested in the presence of the high dose of drug B. based upon the responses seen, which of the following statements best describe drugs A and B?
    A. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is neither an agonist nor antagonist
    B. Drug A is a partial agonist; drug B is an antagonist
    C. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is an agonist
    D. Drug A is an agonist; drug B is a partial agonist
A

A. Drug A is an antagonist; drug B is neither an agonist nor antagonist

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2
Q 
80. A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I, administrated to dairy cattle’s should
have a WP of at least
A. At most 28 days WP
B. At least 28 days WP
C. At most 7 days WP
D. At least 7 days WP
A

D. At least 7 days WP

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3
Q 
79. Which active substance is appropriate for analgesia (painkiller) as a transdermal patch?
A. Fentanyl
B. Naloxone
C. Metamizole
D. Butorphanol
A

A. Fentanyl

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4
Q 
78. The most frequent active ingredient of intraruminal boluses
A. NSAID
B. Anthelminthic
C. Growth promotor
D. Antibiotic
A

B. Antheliminthic

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is the licensed name of the drug
    A. Amoxicillin
    B. 7-amino-3,3-dimethyl-oxo-4-carboxylic acid
    C. Betamox inj AUV
    D. None of them above
A

C. Betamox inj AUV

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6
Q 
76. How long after the first use can drugs from multi dose injection bottles be used?
A. At most 14 days
B. At most 28 days
C. At most 7 days
D. No such requirement is official
A

B. At most 28 days

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7
Q
  1. In this type of prescription the name and amount of ingredients (individual components) has
    to be given in the inscription part
    A. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
    B. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
    C. Prescription of a formulate official medicine
    D. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
A

D. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine

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8
Q 
74. What information about any drug is included in the European Pharmacopeia’s?
A. Indication in veterinary medicine
B. Identification methods
C. Dosage of the drug in humans
D. Indications in human medicine
A

B. Identification methods

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9
Q 
73. Which drugs are normally not used in the veterinary practice?
A. Schedule 1 drugs
B. Schedule 2 drugs
C. Schedule 3 drugs
D. Schedule 4 drugs
A

A. Shedule 1 drugs

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10
Q
  1. A drug included in 2377/790EEC Annex II has a withdrawal period of:
    A. 7 days
    B. Must not be administrated to food producing animals
    C. 0 days
    D. 28 days
A

C. 0 days

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11
Q
  1. A drug licensed for humans containing metronidazole
    A. Has to have at least 28 WP for meat
    B. Must not be used in food producing animals
    C. Cannot penetrate into the milk thus no WP for milk has to be stated
    D. Requires 0 days WP in food producing animals
A

B. Must not be used in food producing animals

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12
Q
  1. At steady state the plasma concentration of a drug (Cpss) is 1 mg/L. The total body
    clearance is (Cl2) 100 ml/min. What is the maintenance dose if the drug is applied in every 12
    hour?
    A. 7.2 mg
    B. 72 mg
    C. 50 mg
    D. 100 mg
A

B. 72 mg

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13
Q 
69. When are written special prescriptions and written requisitions mandatory?
A. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs
B. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
C. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs
D. None of them above
A

C. Schedule 2 and 3 drugs

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14
Q 
68. These drugs are natural compounds of practically harmless substances, which do not
require a withdrawal period
A. Drugs in Annex II
B. Drugs in Annex I
C. Drugs in Annex III
D. Drugs in Annex IV
A

A. Drugs in Annex II

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15
Q 
67. Which ingredient is missing from the hard capsule?
A. Gelatine
B. Glycerine
C. Water
D. Sugar
A

B. Glycerine

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16
Q
  1. Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
    A. Rapid dissolution from the formulation
    B. Increased motility of GI
    C. Acid sensitivity of drug
    D. Large pKa value of drug
A

A. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

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17
Q 
65. Which technology is appropriate for achieving a pulsatile release of
an active substance in a bolus?
A. OROS
B. Insoluble matrix
C. Chip controlled diaphragm
D. Expanding matrix
A

C. Chip controlled diaphragm

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18
Q 
64. Examine the graph: what is the efficacy relationship between drug A
and C?
A. A is more efficious
B. Conclusion cannot be drawn
C. C is more efficacious
D. They are of equal efficacy
A

A. A is more efficious

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19
Q 
63. These drugs are always POM medicines
A. Premixes
B. Controlled drugs
C. Official preparations
D. Non steroidal anti inflammatory drugs
A

B. Controlled drugs

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20
Q
  1. Drugs can be used as non-divided powders:
    A. Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin
    B. Only drugs for the treatment of poultry
    C. Only water insoluble drugs
    D. Only water soluble drugs
A

A. Only drugs with broad therapeutic margin

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21
Q
  1. Which statement is not true for a first order, open compartment open pharma … model?
    A. A bio exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time
    B. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously
    C. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated
    D. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly
A

C. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated

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22
Q 
60. Defined as treatment of clinically diseased animals and prevention of spreading diseases in herd:
A. Panphylaxis
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Prophylaxis
D. Metaphylaxis
A

D. Metaphylaxis

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23
Q
  1. Antagonists are drugs that
    A. Bound passively to the tissue receptor site
    B. Reserve the effect of other drugs on tissue receptor sites
    C. Activate tissue receptor sites
    D. Block tissue receptor sites
A

D. Block tissue receptor sites

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24
Q
  1. Specific receptor antagonists can best be described as having
    A. Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor
    B. Both efficacy and affinity for the receptor
    C. Efficacy but little or no affinity for the receptor
    D. None of the above
A

A. Affinity but little or no efficacy for the receptor

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25
Q 
57. A dosage from appropriate for the preparation of medicated feedstuff:
A. Premix
B. OROS
C. WSP
D. Oral solution
A

A. Premix

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26
Q 
56. Which drug has to be kept in a locked receptacle with the key in the possession of the
veterinarian?
A. Schedule 3 and 4 drugs
B. Schedule 1 and 4 drugs
C. None of these
D. Schedule 2 and 3
A

D. Schedule 2 and 3

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27
Q 
55. Which substance is a schedule 3 substance?
A. Phenolbarbital/phenobarbitone
B. LSD
C. Morphine
D. Fentanyl
A

A. Phenolbarbital / phenobarbitone

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28
Q 
54. For which category is not true, usually it develops after repeated administration?
A. Drug tolerance
B. Idiosyncrasy
C. Drug allergy
D. Drug dependence
A

B. Idiosyncrasy

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29
Q 
53. How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of
an official or prepared medicine?
A. 7 days
B. 0 days
C. 500 degree days
D. 28 days
A

C. 500 degree days

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30
Q 
52. Vehicle in licking stones:
A. Light kaolin
B. Activated charcoal
C. Sodium chloride
D. Bismuth subgallate
A

C. Sodium chloride

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31
Q
  1. A drug licensed for humans and included in Annex I and III administered to dairy cattle
    should have a withdrawal period for milk:
    A. At most 7 days withdrawal period
    B. At most 28 days withdrawal period
    C. At least 28 days withdrawal period
    D. At least 7 days withdrawal period
A

D. At least 7 days withdrawal period

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32
Q 
50. Mark the reaction, which is not characteristic for Type I, immediate or anaphylactic drug
allergy reaction:
A. Immune complex formation
B. Urticaria
C. Asthma like condition
D. Oedema
A

A. Immune complex formation

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33
Q 
49. Which part of the prescription gives the owner information about the dosages of an animal?
A. Signature
B. Inscription
C. Superscription
D. Subscription
A

A. Signature

34
Q
  1. The oral AUC is the 25% of that of the IV AUC value and for IV administration two fold
    higher dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
    A. 0.75
    B. 0.5
    C. 0.25
    D. 0.125
A

B. 0.5

35
Q 
47. This name of medicinal substances is given by the manufacturers:
A. Each drug name
B. Approved name
C. Chemical name
D. Proprietary name
A

D. Proprietary name

36
Q
  1. The major part of the text must be in the veterinarian’s own handwriting:
    A. Special preparation
    B. Label
    C. Prescription
    D. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
A

A. Special preparation

37
Q
  1. Which one is incorrect? Factors maintaining drug allergy are:
    A. Contamination of skin
    B. Inhalation – contamination of airways
    C. Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration
    D. Chronic disease, atrophy
A

C. Preparation with rapid absorption after IM or SC administration

38
Q
  1. In this type of prescription the proprietary name of a vet- licensed medicine is given
    A. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine
    B. Prescription of a formulated official medicine
    C. Prescription of a prepared (magistral) medicine
    D. Prescription of a human licensed medicine
A

A. Prescription of a veterinary licensed medicine

39
Q 
43. A drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors
without activating them
A. Chemical antagonist
B. Pharmacological antagonist
C. Partial agonist
D. Physiologic antagonist
A

B. Pharmacological antagonist

40
Q
  1. If drug A has a greater efficacy than drug B, then drug A
    A. Is more toxic than drug B
    B. Has a greater affinity for the receptor than drug B
    C. Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B
    D. Has a greater margin of safety than drug B
A

C. Is capable of producing a greater maximum effect than drug B

41
Q 
41. Drugs may harmfully interact with useful intestinal microbes. In which species is the effect
the least significant?
A. Hamsters
B. Horses
C. Rabbits
D. Dogs
A

D. Dogs

42
Q
  1. Which of the following is an action of a non-competitive antagonist?
    A. Alters the mechanism of action of an agonist
    B. Alters the potency of an agonist
    C. Decreases the maximum response to an agonist
    D. Binds to the same site on the receptor as the agonist
A

C. Decreases the maximum response to an agonist

43
Q
  1. The results shown in the graph were obtained in a comparison of positive inotropic agents
    A. Drug A is most effective
    B. Drug B is least potent
    C. Drug A is more potent than drug B and more effective than drug C
    D. Drug B is more potent than drug C and more effective than drug A
A

D. Drug B is more potent than drug C and more effective than drug A

44
Q
  1. The oral AUC is the half that of the IV AUC value and for oral administration two fold higher
    dose was used. What is the bioavailability (F) value of the drug?
    A. 0.5
    B. 0.1
    C. 0.125
    D. 0.25
A

D. 0.25

45
Q 
37. Which part of the prescription tells the pharmacist the name and formulation of the drug:
A. Signature
B. Superscription
C. Inscription
D. Subscription
A

C. Inscription

46
Q 
36. The category drug like substances (non real drugs) includes:
A. Official drugs
B. Prepared drugs
C. Immunologicals
D. Biocides
A

D. Biocides

47
Q 
35. The effect and side effects of drugs, as well as the contraindications of their uses are
NOT introduced well detailed in:
A. British Veterinary Formulary
B. European Pharmacopeia
C. Vademecum
D. Drug lexicon
A

B. European Pharmacopeia

48
Q
  1. The pharmacist can supply these drugs only if presented with a valid prescription from the
    practitioner:
    A. Pharmacy and merchant list medicines (PML)
    B. General sales list meds (GSL)
    C. Pharmacy medicines (P)
    D. Prescription only medicines (POM)
A

D. Prescription only medicines (POM)

49
Q
  1. When comparing drugs with respect to intensity of response, the drug that produces the
    greatest maximum effect is the one with the highest
    A. Affinity
    B. Therapeutic index
    C. Efficacy
    D. Potency
A

C. Efficacy

50
Q
  1. Drug allergies
    A. Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously
    B. Are more likely develop in a very young infant
    C. Can develop only when the patient has previously received the drug
    D. Are more likely to develop in a very old animal
A

A. Can develop when the patient may or may not have been exposed to the drug previously

51
Q
  1. What is characteristic for a drug molecule, which has been metabolised in the Phase II of
    biotransformation procedure?
    A. Losing of activity
    B. Active metabolite from an inactive pro-drug
    C. Metabolite with qualitatively different pharmacologic action
    D. Increased activity
A

A. Losing of activity

52
Q
  1. A drug that mediates the reversal of histamine bronchoconstriction (mediated at histamine
    receptors) by acting at adrenoceptors (e.g. epinephrine)
    A. Pharmacological antagonist
    B. Physiologic antagonist
    C. Non-competitive antagonist
    D. Partial agonist
A

B. Physiologic antagonist

53
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true for a first order, one compartment open pharmacokinetic
    model?
    A. A bio exponential curve is used to describe the decrease of the drug level in time
    B. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated
    C. After a single drug administration the drug is eliminated from the body continuously
    D. The drug is distributed among the tissues of the body evenly
A

B. In the course of this process the capacity of organs of metabolism and or excretion is saturated

54
Q
  1. Which is an example for substitution therapy?
    A. Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hyperthyroidism
    B. Administration of a generic drug instead of original licensed product
    C. Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism
    D. During antimicrobial treatment switching the antibiotic in case of resistant strain
    appearance
A

C. Administration of thyroxin for the treatment of hypothyroidism

55
Q
  1. Which effect facilitates the oral bioavailability of medicinal products?
    A. Acid sensitivity of drug
    B. Increased motility of GI
    C. Large pKa value of drug
    D. Rapid dissolution from the formulation
A

D. Rapid dissolution from the formulation

56
Q 
26. Which part of the prescription gives the farmer information on the withdrawal time?
A. Subscription
B. Signature
C. Superscription
D. Inscription
A

B. Signature

57
Q 
25. This name of medicinal substances is given by the pharmacopeia commission to each
compound:
A. Chemical name
B. Each drug name
C. Proprietary name
D. Approved name
A

D. Approved name

58
Q
  1. Quantal dose response curves are
    A. Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug studied
    B. Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug
    C. Obtainable from the study of intact subjects but not from isolated tissues
    D. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug
A

D. Used in determining the therapeutic index of a drug

59
Q 
23. What "Medicines order 2001 UK" category can be supplied by pharmacists without any
prescription?
A. P and PML
B. GSL, P, PML
C. GSL and P
D. Every "medicines order 2001" category
A

B. GSL, P, PML

60
Q
  1. What is written in the inscription in case of prepared preparations?
    A. The name and amount of the ingredients
    B. The name, dosage form and the strength of preparation
    C. The dosage form and the container
    D. The number of original packages
A

A. The name and amount of the ingredients

61
Q 
21. Which temperature interval is valid if the drug has to be stored at a cool place?
A. 15 – 25°C
B. 2 – 8°C
C. 8 – 15°C
D. 10 – 14°C
A

C. 8 – 15°C

62
Q 
19. This category may play an important role in prevention of animal disease, but they are not
real drugs:
A. Prepared drugs
B. Immunologicals
C. Official drugs
D. Biocides
A

D. Biocides

63
Q 
20. How long do the withdrawal period usually last for eggs, following application of an official
or prepared medicine?
A. 500 degree days
B. 0 days
C. 28 days
D. 7 days
A

D. 7 days

64
Q 
18. Among the environmental factors that may harm the medicines, this stimulates the oxidation
or reduction processes:
A. Fungi
B. Humidity
C. Light (UV)
D. Heat
A

C. Light (UV)

65
Q
  1. The LD50 of a drug is
    A. 50% of the lethal dose in man
    B. 50% of the lethal dose in an experimental animal
    C. The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals
    D. Half the dose that kills all of the treated animals
A

C. The dose (mg/kg) that kills 50% of the treated animals

66
Q 
16. Qualitative and quantitative determination of the medicinal substances is not introduced in:
A. British Veterinary Formulary
B. Hungarian Pharmacopeia
C. European Pharmacopeia
D. British Pharmacopeia
A

A. Bristish Veternary Formulary

67
Q 
15. Which substance is a schedule 2 substance?
A. Cannabis
B. Fentanyl
C. Diazepam
D. Phenobarbital
A

B. Fentanyl

68
Q
  1. Two drugs A and B, have the same mechanism of action. Drug A in a dose of 5 mg
    produces the same magnitude of effect as drug B in a dose of 500 mg:
    A. Drug B is less efficacious than drug A
    B. The toxicity of drug A is lower than that of drug B
    C. Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B
    D. Drug A has a shorter duration of action
A

C. Drug A is 100 times more potent than drug B

69
Q 
13. The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite effects on a physiologic system but
do not act at the same receptor site is:
A. Chemical antagonism
B. Physiologic antagonism
C. Competitive antagonism
D. Non-competitive antagonism
A

B. Physiologic antagonism

70
Q 
12. How long do the withdrawal period usually last for fish at minimum, following application of
a human licensed medicine?
A. 28 days
B. 500 degree days
C. 0 days
D. 7 days
A

B. 500 degree days

71
Q 
11. How long do the withdrawal period usually last at minimum for meat, following application of a human licensed medicine?
A. 7 days
B. 500 degree days
C. 28 days
D. 0 days
A

C. 28 days

72
Q
  1. What is the proportion of ionised and non-ionised molecules of a weak acidic drug (pKa=
    4.4) in blood (pH = 7.4)!
    A. 1:1
    B. 100:1
    C. 10:1
    D. 1000:1
A

D. 1000:1

73
Q 
9. According to this type of medicinal substance use both sick and healthy animals are treated
with a mass (population) administration:
A. Metaphylaxis
B. Mass treatment
C. Always
D. Prophylaxis
A

A. Metaphylaxis

74
Q
  1. A drug licensed for humans and included in Table 1, and MRL has to be established
    administered to dairy cattle should have a withdrawal period for milk:
    A. At most 7 days withdrawal period
    B. At most 28 days withdrawal period
    C. At least 28 days withdrawal period
    D. At least 7 days withdrawal period
A

A. At most 7 days withdrawal period

75
Q 
7. Examine the graph: what is the potency relationship between drug A and B?
A. Conclusion cannot be drawn
B. B is more potent
C. They are of equal potency
D. A is more potent
A

D. A is more potent

76
Q 
6. Which of the following can occur at therapeutic dosage levels in healthy patients?
A. Allergic reactions
B. Teratogenic effects (Thalidomide)
C. Idiosyncratic reactions
D. All of the above can occur
A

D. All of the above can occur

77
Q
  1. When supplying this drug, one copy of which of the following has to be kept by the registered
    feed compounder?
    A. Prescription
    B. Special prescription
    C. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)
    D. Legislation on requisition
A

C. Prescription for medicated feedstuff (PMF)

78
Q 
4. What is approximate percentage of a weak base (pKa = 8.4) in the non-ionised form in the
plasma having a pH of 7.4?
A. 90%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 10%
A

D. 10%

79
Q 
3. \_\_\_ the largest effect a drug can produce, regardless of dose:
A. Quantal dose response curve
B. Graded dose response curve
C. Maximum efficacy
D. Therapeutic index
A

C. Maximum efficacy

80
Q 
2. A drug that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all, or only incidentally
with the receptor:
A. Chemical antagonist
B. Pharmacological antagonist
C. Partial agonist
D. Physiologic antagonist
A

A. Chemical antagonist

81
Q
  1. According to the theory that agonists and antagonists occupy the same
    receptor site, an effective antagonist should exhibit:
    A. High intrinsic activity and low affinity
    B. No intrinsic activity and high affinity
    C. Low intrinsic activity and low affinity
    D. High intrinsic activity and high affinity
A

B. No intrinsic activity and high affinity

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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