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Oral Surgery > Midterm #1 > Flashcards

Midterm #1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a specific periosteal elevator?

A

9 Molt

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2
Q

what are the three instruments for removing bone?

A
  • bur/handpiece (#8 round, 703)
  • rongeur (blumenthal)
  • bone file
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3
Q

what are the two straight elevators?

A

large - 301

small - 34S

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4
Q

what are two examples of pick type elevators?

A
  • crane

- cogswell (heavy)

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5
Q

if a root is going to fracture, which root is better to fracture?

A

buccal root for max first molars

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6
Q

if bone thicker on the palate or labial side

A

palate

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7
Q

what is a #17 used for

A

mandibular molars

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8
Q

what are the sizes of bite blocks?

A 
38-130-50 = large edentulous
38-130-52 = large adult
38-130-54 = adult
38-130-56 = child
38-130-58 = small child
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9
Q

minnesota, autsin, mirror, weider “sweetheart” are all examples of what?

A

retractors

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10
Q

stillies, allis, russian, cotton pliers, and adison with and with out teeth are all examples of what?

A

instruments for grasping tissues

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11
Q

when standing during extractions, where should the maxillary arch be?

A

level with surgeons elbow

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12
Q

you only go behind the patient for ______ molars

A

mandibular

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13
Q

what are the INITIAL instruments used for extractions?

A

straight elevators

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14
Q

what is the greatest magnitude of force?

A

apically

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15
Q

____ is the first and last force

A

buccal

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16
Q

what do you use the figure 8 approach?

A

multirooted teeth

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17
Q

you should only drill ____ of the way through the crown and you should go through the ____ floor

A
  • 2/3

- pulpal

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18
Q

what are the qualifications for leaving root tips behind?

A

-

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19
Q

failure to fully erupt within the expected developmental time period

A

impacted tooth

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20
Q

not having perforated the mucosa

A

unerupted tooth

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21
Q

what is the time period for 3rd molars

A
  • crown formation by 14 yrs
  • 50% of root formation by 16 yrs
  • avg formation is 20-24 yrs
  • position does not change after 25 years
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22
Q

what are the different theories for impacted 3rd molars

A
  • differential root growth for mesial and distal roots
  • inadequate arch space
  • dental development lags skeletal
  • obstruction secondary to cyst, tumor, supernumerary teeth
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23
Q

what is the winter’s classification for mandibular teeth

A
  • 43% mesioangular (easiest)
  • 38% vertically (easy)
  • 6% distoangular (hardest)
  • 3% horizontal (difficult)
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24
Q

what is the winter’s classification for maxillary teeth?

A

-63% vertical
-25% distoangular
-12% mesioangular
-

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25
Q

what is the coding classification for just in soft tissue?

A

D7220

26
Q

what is the coding classification for partially bony?

A

D7320

27
Q

what is the coding classification for fully bony?

A

D7240

28
Q

what is the coding classification for complex fully bony?

A

D7241

29
Q

what are the contraindications for extracting 3rd molars?

A
  • acute pericornitis
  • actute infections
  • ANUG
  • herpes
  • sinusitis
30
Q

treat current active process or disease

A

therapeutic

31
Q

prevent future disease and other problems

A

prophylactic

32
Q

what is the “ideal” patient for 3rd molar extraction?

A
  • 2/3 root formation
  • 18-25 years old
  • healthy
  • no physiologic contraindications
  • no job restrictions for a numb lip
33
Q

local anesthesia used for 3rd molars

A
  • 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epi
  • 0.5% marcaine with 1:200,000 epi
  • V2 and V3 blocks
  • long buccal
34
Q

on a panorex, if the canine is horizontal then it is in the ____ position. if it is vertical it is in the _____ position

A
  • palatal

- labial

35
Q

an apically positioned flap is best for a ______ impacted teeth

A

labially

36
Q

a full thickness flap is best for a _____ implicated teeth

A

palatally

37
Q

what is in the take home kit?

A
  • ice
  • gauze pack
  • emission-basin sedation
  • instruction sheet
  • no work/exercise instructions
  • phone numbers
38
Q

tinnitus and vertigo are symptoms of the _____

A

ears

39
Q

epistaxis is a symptom of the _____

A

nose

40
Q

dyspnea, syncope, orthopea, and parasomal noctural dyspea are symptoms of ______

A

cardiovascular system

41
Q

hemolysis and frequent URI are symptoms of _____

A

pulmonary

42
Q

dysphagia, dyspepsia, hematochezia, stactorrhea, puritis, and montena are symptoms of ______

A

GI tract

43
Q

cushing’s dieases and pheochromatoma are symptoms of _____

A

endocrine system

44
Q

bleeding should stop between _____

A

24-48 hrs

45
Q

are antibiotics warranted for healthy patients?

A

no

46
Q

what should you not do for 24 hrs ager surgery?

A

rinse and exercise

*everything is good after the first day

47
Q

what is the first stage of inflammation?

A

vascular phase

vasoconstriction, vasodilation

48
Q

what is the second phase of inflammation?

A

celluar phase

tissue trauma triggers serum compliment activation
(PMNs migrate through vessel wall)

49
Q

when does inflammation happen?

A

3-5 days

stabilizes the clot, cleans it, prepares it for fibroplasia
LAG PHASE

50
Q

what are the three phases of wound healing?

A
  • inflammation
  • granulation tissue
  • matrix formation and remodling
51
Q

how long does fibroplasia occur for?

A

2-3 weeks

70-80% as strong as uninjured
stiff and red in color

52
Q

extraction sockets heal by ______

A

secondary intention

53
Q

what happens in week one of extraction socket healing?

A

inflammation, WBC activity, fibroplasia, epi migration

54
Q

what happens in week two of extraction socket healing?

A

granulation tissue, osteoid deposition

55
Q

what happens in weeks 3-4 of extraction socket healing?

A

same as week 2, but epithelialization complete, lamina dura RESORBING, trabecular bone

*takes 4-6 months for lamina dura to resorb radiographically

56
Q

what are the anti resorptive drugs bisphosphonates?

A
  • zometa

- pamidronate

57
Q

what are the anti resorptive drugs RANKL inhibitors?

A
  • prolia

- xgeva

58
Q

loss, lysis, or breakdown of the blood clot prior to its maturation into granulation tissue

A

alveolar osteitis

*dry sockets

59
Q

what are the two examples of treatment for alveolar osteitis?

A
  • iodoform gauze (antiseptic wound dressing)

- eugenol (IAN)

60
Q

how long does alveolar osteitis take to resolve?

A

3-5 days, up to 14 in some ppl

61
Q

what should you do about wound dehiscence?

A

DO NOT resuture

*local wound care and will heal by secondary intention

Oral Surgery (1 decks)

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