Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

the action of a drug on an individual

A

pharmacodynamics

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2
Q

substance used in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of an illness

A

drug

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3
Q

anti-emitic, specific muscarinic acetylcholine receptor antagonist of vestibular pathway, decreases ACh input

A

scopolamine

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4
Q

vestibular, sensory, emotional, chemoreceptors, GI tract are all things that project to what

A

vomition center

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5
Q

the way botox achieves specificity

A

local administration

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6
Q

the study of drug administration, absorbtion, distribution, action, and excretion

A

pharmacokinetics

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7
Q

routes of administration

A

oral, IV, intramuscular, inhalation, topical, subcutaneous, intraperitonial, intracranial

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8
Q

Problems with oral administration

A

acidic environment in stomach, first pass effect (liver metabolism often reduces efficacy, but not loarsitan)

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9
Q

first pass effect

A

drug must enter bloodstream: portal vein - liver - drug metabolism. Both acidic stomach env. and liver metabolism can reduce function of drug

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10
Q

works better after metabolism

A

loarsitan

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11
Q

MEC (desired response)

A

minimum effective concentration (always exists)

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12
Q

point at which drug exceeds threshold

A

onset of effect

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13
Q

point of drug being toxic

A

MEC (adverse response)

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14
Q

Difference between drug threshold and toxic threshold

A

therapeutic window

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15
Q

Time it takes for half of drug to leave system

A

Half-life (T1/2)

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16
Q

Repeated doses to achieve steady state leads to this curve shape

A

sigmoidal

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17
Q

Fast onset, large volumes, sterility problem, must be hydrophilic

A

IV

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18
Q

Steady absorbiton, hydrophobic, sterility problems, sometimes irritating

A

Intramuscular

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19
Q

Gaseous (volatile), fast onset, sometimes requires flame

A

Inhalation

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20
Q

slow, steady absorption, only hydrophobic

A

Topical

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21
Q

implantation of pellet, slow, steady absorption, sterility problems, removal problems

A

subcutaneous

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22
Q

injection into abdomen, fast availability, sterility problem, used for lab rats

A

Intraperitoneal

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23
Q

drug effectiveness/absorbtion graph

A

IV, IP, IM, oral(PO)

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24
Q

directly to CNS, sterility problem, (epidurals)

A

Intracranial

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25
drug enters and exits body tissues
Equilibrium
26
Drug doesnt know where you want it to go
hydrophilic, hydrophobic, specific receptors, etc.
27
tissue drug has no effect in and gets trapped in, no receptors
drug reservoir
28
example of drug reservoir
adipose tissue
29
nonspecific assoiation, other drug reservoir that isnt drug reservoir, is reversible, amino acids attractive to drug
proteins
30
liver chemically alters drugs to make removal easier
metabolism
31
metaolized drug
metabolite
32
why is transformation from ph 2 to 7 necessary
make absorption possible, must be nonpolar to cross lipid bilayer
33
why weak bases are good oral candidates
protonation in stomach, becomes neutral
34
BBB is different in this way
tight junctions and astrocytic feet
35
R-CH2-CH3 -->(cytochrome P450) --> R-CH(OH)-CH3
oxidation
36
R-NO2 --> R-NH2
reduction
37
R-CO2R'-->esterases>R-CO2H+R'OH
hydrolysis
38
R-OH + R --> R-O-R'
conjugation
39
contains furanocoumarins which inhibit a P450 enzyme, increases levels of lipitor in bloodstream | can also block transporters in intestine which are responsible for uptake (allegra)
grapefruit juice
40
urination, sweat, exhalation, liver--bile
excretion
41
bifunctional role of receptor, one "thing" for which atropine and pilocarpine are competing in salivary glands (DATE, PERSON, THEORY NAME)
john langley (1878)- receptor theory
42
coined the term "receptor," lock and key metaphor (person and dates)
Paul Ehrlich (1854 - 1915)
43
molecules that bind receptors
ligands
44
cause a positive response (biological), can initiate second messenger response
agonist
45
binds with high affinity, but doesn't have biological effect (nothing turned on in cell), no second messenger pathway, blocks normal chemical binding, blocked cellular activity
antagonist
46
one example antagonist can be used for response
narcan for heroin overdose
47
Gs
stimulates adenylyl cyclase - takes ATP and forms cAMP, alters PKA, catalytic subunits run free and phosphorylate downstream targets
48
Gi
inhibits adenylyl cyclase
49
Gq
stimulates PLC - DAG-->PL(K?)C
50
Go
couples directly to ion channels
51
how many transmembrane domains do G protein receptors have?
7
52
nicotine is agonist for this type of channel
ligand-gated ion channel
53
transporter: just takes one
uniporter
54
transporter: picks up one from inside, one from outside, and swaps them
antiporter
55
transporter: takes multiple things at once and moves them to other side of membrane
symporter
56
transporter: uses ATP
ATP-driven transporter
57
proteins which interact with DNA following binding of a ligand (e.g. estrogen)
Transcriptional activator
58
receptor where each monomer has half of the receptor sites, presence of ligand bring 2 monomers together, they phosphorylate each other, then phosphorylates downstream intracellular target
Tyrosine Kinase Receptor
59
Drug binding to receptor is:
reversible
60
computer runs water molecule over protein surface, this helps us determine:
protein shape
61
how much drug wants to get into and stay in binding pocket | "ability of drug to bind receptor"
affinity
62
4 factors that determine drug affinity
steric interactions, ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions (all reversible), covalent bonds rare
63
Concentration at which 50% of receptors are bound
Kd (affinity constant), logarithmic curve, smallest concentration that achieves Kd has highest affinity, Kd is inflection point
64
concentration of competitor at which we lose 50% of first drug binding
IC50
65
binding assay demonstration
once receptors are filled, more drugs wont bind
66
how fast drug associates with receptor
k1- forward rate constant
67
how long it takes drug to come off of receptor
k-1 - reverse rate constant
68
k-1/ k1
reflects affinity
69
ability of drug bound to receptor to induce intracellular activity
efficacy
70
intrinsic efficacy of 1
full agonist
71
intrinsic efficacy btw 0 and 1
partial agonist
72
intrinsic efficacy of 0
antagonist
73
regions responsible for making associations with drug - influences affinity
binding domain
74
region that interacts with drug that "turns on" receptor (conformational change)
activation domain
75
____ is a measure of how well a drug binds; ____ is a measure of how well a drug can produce desired effect
affinity, efficacy
76
dose response curves can tell you response to drug, but neither ___ or ____ specifically
affinity, efficacy
77
concentration of drug at which 50% of population exhibits a response after a certain period
EC50, lower EC50 is a better drug
78
receptor expression, ligand affinity, and intrinsic efficacy, all constitute:
drug effectiveness
79
receptor expression is not ___ within population, or even within people
constant
80
with sudden high concentrations of agonist, receptor becomes phosphorylated, inactivated, and internalized/sequestered
desensitization
81
with chronic levels of agonist, receptors become phosphorylated multiple times, inactivated, and internalized, having been tagged for degradation, B- arrestin involved
downregulation
82
administration of 2nd drug to allow re-sensitization of 1st drug's receptors
drug vacation
83
drug binding and biological response are ___ correlated
directly
84
Therapeutic index
TD50/ED50 (2 is not safe drug, doubling dose causes side effects in 1/2 of population
85
Therapeutic window
TD50 - ED50
86
3 categories of neurotransmitters of ANS
ACH, catecholamines (NE and E), and indolamines (serotonin)