Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what type of articulator do we have?

A

mark 320 articulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how many working positions does the mark 320 have?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the DENAR FLEXTRACK of the mark 320 articulator provides _____

A

flexibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the occlusal stand relates the working cast to what?

A

bonwill’s equilateral triangle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the two inclinations of the occlusal stand

A
  • 0 degrees

- 10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do you use to secure the maxillary cast to the occlusal table?

A

utility wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the two schools of articulator design?

A
  • geometric (non-anatomic) school

- condylar (anatomic) school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

school of articulator deign that denied the existence of condylar axes and disregarded the condylar paths as influences on occlusion, instead claiming that the articulation of teeth guides the mandible during mastication

A

geometric (non-anatomic) school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

school of articulator design that deals with adjustable condylar guides and the average value instruments

A

the condylar (anatomic) school

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

who came up wight he equilateral triangle theory?

A

william GA bonwill (1838-1899)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

according to the equilateral triangle theory, the size of the mandible is equal to ___ cm from condyle to condyle and from each condyle to the ____ point

A
  • 10 cm

- incisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the balkwill angle is formed between what two things?

A
  • balkwill triangle

- occlusal plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the balkwill triangle is formed between what ?

A
  • 2nd molars
  • incisor point

(26 degree equilateral triangle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

who invented the balkwill triangle?

A

francis H balkwill (1866)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the relationship between the curved arrangements of the occlusal planes of natural teeth and the corresponding curves of the condylar paths

A

curve of spee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the ___ ____ surfaces lie on the same arc of a circle as the curve of spee

A

molar mastacatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in reference to the curve of spee, the location of the axis of the cylinder’s curvature is at the level of the _________

A

horizontal mid-orbital plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

in reference to the curve of spee, the steeper the path of the condyles, the more pronounced the ___ ___ would be, because both have the same ___

A
  • tooth curve

- radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

the space that occurs between the maxilla and mandible during PROTRUSION

A

protrusion space (christensen phenomenon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

carl christensen was the first to describe an ____ method for obtaining a protrusive record to determine the condylar _____

A
  • intraoral

- inclination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

who presented for the first time a method for setting denture teeth, using bonwill’s equilateral triangle conforming to the surface of a sphere

A

george S monson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

in reference to Monsons spherical theory, what was at the center of the sphere?

A

sella turcica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

theory that occlusion should be spherical, the curvature of the cusps as projected on the FRONTAL PLANE expressed in both arches

A

curve of wilson (mediolateral curve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

in the curve of wilson, the curve in the lower arch is ____ and the curve in the upper arch is ____

A
  • concave

- convex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

in rupert E hall’s conical theory of mandibular movement, the ____ ____ ____ was considered as the anatomical rotation center of the mandible

A

external occipital protuberance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

the essence of both anatomic and functional harmony is the “balance” between what two things?

A

elevator and depressor mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how wide is the occlusal rest space?

A

2-4 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

the condylar disc is connected to the SUPERIOR HEAD of the ____ pterygoid m

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the protrude the mandible, it must first go ___ and then ___

A
  • down

- forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

the mandible rotates around the _____

A

THA
(terminal hindge axis)
(transverse horazontal axis)

*can be either one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the side towards which the mandible moves is termed the ____ side

A

working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the side away from which the mandible moves is the ____ side

A

non-working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

the idea that the condyle moves outwards a little during mandibular lateral translation

A

bennett’s side shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

if you open less than 6mm you just use ___ movement

A

rotational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

name of the first curve in the elf posselt’s envelope of motion

A

centric relation curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

name of the second curve in the elf posselt’s envelope of motion

A

curve of translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

centric occlusion (CO)

A

initial (central) point of contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

maximal intercuspation (MI)

A

furthest you can bite down so as many teeth as possible are touching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ideal occlusion

A

MI=CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

five functions of anterior teeth

A
  • anterior guidance
  • perform initial acts of mastication
  • speech
  • lip support
  • esthetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the two occlusal schemes?

A
  • anterior guidance (incisor, canine)

- group function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

_____ articulation is NOT acceptable in prosthetics but is IS acceptable in orthodonics

A

hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what was the first articulator?

A

plane line articulator (1805)

*static (one joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what was the second articulator?

A

new century articulator (1906)

*two joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what was the first articulator that is the size that is similar to our mouths

A

wadsworth articulator (1924)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

articulator that “relates” the two casts together

A

homer relator (1923)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

an articulator is considered ____ if the condyle is part of the mandibular arch

A

arcon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

type of articulators that are the first to allow the condyle to move sideways (bennett’s side shift)

A

semi-adjustable articulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

pantographs are only used on what types of articulators

A

fully adjustable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

the stylist of a pantograph can sense what two things?

A
  • pressure

- movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

regarding pantographs, bennet’s angle deals with the ____ condyle and the bennet movement deals with the ____ condyle

A
  • nonworking

- working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

the third point of reference on an ear bow reaches a point on the ____

A

nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

corner of the eye

A

canthus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

the ARBITRARY hinge axis is ___mm anterior to the ____

A
  • 13

- tragus (on tragus-canthus line)

55
Q

the hanau formula for the “lateral” angle (bennett’s angle) is what?

A

L= H/8+12

L=lateral angle | H= horazontal angle

56
Q

the ear bow should be parallel to the ___

A

eyes (interpupillary line)

57
Q

the ear bow transfer relates the _____ cast to the _____ ___ ____

A
  • maxillary

- terminal hinge axis (mandibular condyles)

58
Q

the ear bow transfer orients the ____ cast correctly in space using a ___ ___ of reference

A
  • maxillary

- third point

59
Q

the ear bow allows mounting of maxillary cast on what type of articulator

A

semi-adjustable

60
Q

the mandibular cast is mounted using what?

A

centric relation record

61
Q

CENTRIC RELATION is the relationship between on the cast consisting of the ____ and ___ and NOT the ____ between the casts

A
  • condyles
  • disks
  • contact
62
Q

in what case do you not have to use centric relation?

A

when patients CO=MI

63
Q

what are the three methods of recording centric relation?

A
  • bilateral manipulation
  • chin point guidance
  • anterior deprogrammer
64
Q

(T/F) when taking a centric relation record, you want the teeth to be touching

A

FALSE

65
Q

optimal joint relationship is achieved only when the articular disks are properly interposed between the ____ and the ___ ___

A
  • condyles

- articular fossa

66
Q

what is the only determinant of occlusion that we have control over?

A

anterior point of contact

67
Q

the more opposing ___ in each arch, the more protected the TMJ’s are

A

teeth (protects the teeth as well)(spreads forces over more points of contact)

68
Q

for optimal functional tooth contacts, Dr. Azer wants us to know that contacts should be ____ and ____

A
  • EVEN

- SIMULTANEOUS

69
Q

____ ___ do NOT tolerate pressure forces

A

osseous tissues

70
Q

the periodontal ligament is present between the roots and the alveolar bone to control ____ ____

A

pressure forces

71
Q

which has better stability, tooth-to-tooth or tooth-to-marginal ridge

A

tooth-to-tooth

72
Q

why does tooth-to-marginal ridge have less stability?

A

it wedges food btw teeth interproximals

73
Q

what type of lever is apparent when chewing food with posterior teeth?

A

class 2 (better)(closer to fulcrum)

74
Q

what type of lever is apparent with chewing food with anterior teeth?

A

class 3 (worse)(further from fulcrum)

75
Q

in maximal intercuspal postion (MI), POSTERIOR teeth come into contact and act as stops to minimize _____ ____ on ANTERIOR teeth

A

horizontal load

76
Q

the ANTERIOR teeth guide excursive movements of the mandible so that no POSTERIOR teeth contacts occur during ____ or ____ movements

A
  • lateral

- protrusive

77
Q

in short, _____ teeth protect during VERTICAL forces and ____ teeth protect during HORIZONTAL forces

A
  • posterior

- anterior

78
Q

occlusal scheme that protect against protrusion

A

incisal guidance

79
Q

occlusal scheme that protects during lateral movements

A

canine guidance

80
Q

the goal of occlusal treatment is to direct occlusal forces along the ____ ___

A

long axis

81
Q

working contacts (canine guidance or group function) should not be prevented from contacting by _____ interferences

A

non-working

82
Q

what are the two goals of occlusal equilibration?

A
  • to improve function and esthetics between arches

- eliminate TMJ disorders

83
Q

when is the only time you should alter occlusion?

A

when there is specific EVIDENCE to do so

84
Q

what are the 4 types of treatment plans for occlusal therapy?

A
  • selective grinding
  • fixed prosthodontics
  • orthodontic therapy
  • orthagnathic therapy (combo of surgery and therapy)
85
Q

the buccal side of the lingual cusp and the lingual side of the buccal cusp are both _____

A

interslopes

86
Q

concerning the rule of thirds, if the contact is in the most medial third, what type of occlusal therapy should be used?

A

selective grinding

87
Q

concerning the rule of thirds, if the contact is in the most middle third, what type of occlusal therapy should be used?

A

fixed prosthodontics

88
Q

concerning the rule of thirds, if the contact is in the most lateral third, what type of occlusal therapy should be used?

A

orthodontic treatment

89
Q

what are the five factors that influence treatment planning

A
  • symptoms
  • condition of dentition
  • systemic health
  • esthetics
  • finances
90
Q

procedure by which the occlusal surfaces of the teeth are altered to improve the overall contact pattern

A

selective grinding

91
Q

selective grinding is appropriate only when the alterations of the tooth surfaces are ____ so that all correlations can be made within the ____ structure

A
  • minimal

- enamel

92
Q

the ____ the slide, the more likely it is that selective grinding can be accomplished with the confines of the enamel

A

shorter

93
Q

tall cusps = ____ slide

A

vertical

94
Q

flat cusps = ____ slide

A

horizontal

95
Q

when the slide has a great ____ component, it becomes difficult to eliminate within the confines of the enamel

A

horizontal

96
Q

tooth alignment and the centric relation slide (CO/MI) are more easily evaluated on ___ ___ ___

A

mounted diagnostic casts

97
Q

selective grinding is carefully performed on the ____ ____ so that the final results can be visualized

A

diagnostic cast

98
Q

concerning selective grinding, you should never grind the ____ ____ but instead should always grind the ____

A
  • functional cusp
  • fossa

*hammer and anvil principle

99
Q

if there is a deviation forward you should grind ______

A

MUDL

mesial upper distal lower

100
Q

if there is a deviation toward the cheek you should grind _____

A

BULL

buccal incline upper cusp
lingual incline lower cusp

101
Q

if there is a deviation toward the tongue you should grind ______

A

LUBL

lingual incline upper cusp
buccal incline lower cusp

102
Q

if there is a nonworking interference you should grind ____

A

BULL

103
Q

if there is a working interference you should grind ____

A

LUBL

104
Q

if there are protrusive interferences you should grind ____

A

DUML

distal upper mesial lower

105
Q

according to DeVan (1952) the goal of prosthodontic treatment is to ____ what remains

A

preserve

106
Q

what are the three elements of prosthetic rehabilitation

A
  • occlusion
  • esthetics
  • phonetics
107
Q

in reference to esthetic composition, dental composition just involves ____

A

teeth

108
Q

in reference to esthetic composition, dentofacial composition involves what?

A

lips and teeth

109
Q

in reference to esthetic composition, facial composition involves what?

A

whole face

110
Q

esthetic ____ depends on equilibrium between distractive elements

A

harmony

111
Q

what is considered the midline of the face

A

philtrum

112
Q

what is the golden proportion and who came up with the idea

A
  • 1.618

- pythagoras

113
Q

_____ must be introduced in the dentofacial composition to create a positive psychological response

A

symmetry (with SLIGHT asymmetry)

114
Q

what are the 9 components of a smile?

A
  • lip line
  • smile line
  • upper lip curvature
  • buccal corridor
  • axial alignment and gradation
  • dominace
  • embrasures
  • dental morphology
  • gingival morphology
115
Q

hypothetical curved line drawn along the edges of MAXILLARY anterior teeth that las a coincidence to run parallel to the curvature of the LOWER lip

A

smile line

116
Q

the ___ ___ is more pronounced in women

A

smile line

117
Q

two reasons for the central incisor dominance

A
  • biggest tooth

- lightest in color

118
Q

process of developing intra- and inter arch relationships to establish crown contours and occlusal schemes for diagnostic purposes

A

diagnostic waxing

119
Q

natural teeth have ____ emergence profiles in the gingival third

A

straight

120
Q

the emergence profile extends from what two places?

A
  • depth of gingival sulcus

- crest of contour

121
Q

type of facial esthetics that deals with the entire face and its structures

A

macro-esthetics

122
Q

type of facial esthetics that deals with excessive or inadequate gingival display or heights as well as excessive buccal corridors

A

mini-esthetics

*stuff in the mouth other than teeth

123
Q

type of facial esthetics that deals with tooth proportions, gingival shape and contour, and tooth shade

A

micro-esthetics

*teeth

124
Q

the golden proportion is best for very ___ teeth

A

tall

125
Q

80% proportion is best for ____ teeth

A

short (and normal)

126
Q

is there a clear cut best for normal height or tall teeth?

A

no

127
Q

central incisors that had a width/height ratio of ____ were ranked the most optimal

A

0.75-0.78

128
Q

it is good for esthetics if the roots of maxillary central incisors to have a slight ___ inclination

A

distal

129
Q

it is good for esthetics if the lateral incisors are slightly _____ than the centrals

A

shorter

130
Q

as far as embrasures for esthetics goes, ____ is preferred to ____

A
  • reduced

- increased

131
Q

concerning esthetics, the strongest preferences are concerned with what two things?

A
  • diastemas

- midline shift

132
Q

concerning esthetics, the weakest preferences were for what two things?

A

-whiteness and proportion

133
Q

concerning esthetics, the greatest “minority view” was for what?

A

straight embrasures

134
Q

concerning esthetics, what gender had stronger preferences in all conditions?

A

females