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FND 100 - Midterm 1 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Botulism falls under this name of bacteria:

A

Clostridia

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2
Q

What classification of foodborne illness does botulism fall under?

A

Intoxication

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3
Q

What type of classification does Staphylococcus aureus fall under?

A

Intoxication

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4
Q

The incident at the CNE is an example of this type of foodborne illness:

A

Intoxication of Staphylococcus aureus

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5
Q

Escherichia coli O157:H7 is an example of this type of Foodborne illness classification:

A

toxin-mediated infection

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6
Q

Clostridia perfringens is an example of this type of Foodborne illness classification:

A

Toxin-mediated infection

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7
Q

Give some details on clostridium perfringens

A
  • makes up 11% of foodborne illnesses in Canada
  • 0.18 million canadians
  • associated with soil organisms like fruits and veggies
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8
Q

which pathogen is associated with soil organisms like fruits and veggies

A

clostridium perfringens

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9
Q

Salmonellosis is caused by this type of foodborne illness

A

Bacterial infection

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10
Q

Listeriosis is caused by this type of foodborne illness

A

Bacterial infection

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11
Q

Classify the following foodborne illnessis:

  • Escherichia coli O157:H7
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Clostridia perfringens
  • Listeriosis
  • Botulism (Clostridia)
  • Salmonellosis
A
  • Escherichia coli O157:H7 - toxin-mediated infection
  • Staphylococcus aureus - intoxication
  • Clostridia perfringens - toxin-mediated infection
  • Listeriosis - Bacterial infection
  • Botulism (Clostridia) - intoxication
  • Salmonellosis - bacterial infection
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12
Q

What are the main sources of contamination in foodborne illness?

A

1) environment (soil, water, air)
2) raw ingredients (poultry, beef, seafood, eggs)
3) contact surfaces

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13
Q

In cleaning agents, what is the thing that interacts with the bacterial cell membrane to inactive a virus?

A

hypochlorite ion

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14
Q

Hamburger disease is due to this toxin:

A

Escherichia coli O157:H7

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15
Q

The Walkerton Water crisis was associated with this toxin

A

Escherichia coli O157:H7

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16
Q

Hepatitis A is associated with which foods?

A

Seafood (Oysters)

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17
Q

when consuming seafood, one must be careful of which type of virus?

A

Hepatitis A

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18
Q

Raw eggs, milk, and dairy foods are associated with this type of bacteria

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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19
Q

Listeria monocytogenes is associated with which foods?

A

Raw eggs, milk, dairy

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20
Q

What is the danger zone for temperatures?

A

4-60 degrees celsius

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21
Q

What are thermophiles? at which temperatures do they live?

A
  • microorganisms found at bottom of the ocean

- can last at high temperatures (60-74 degrees)

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22
Q

What does HACCP stand for?

A

Hazard analysis

identify critical control points

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23
Q

what are the main 4 pathogens in Canada?

A

1) Norovirus (65%)
2) clostridium perfringens (11%)
3) campylobacter (8%)
40 salmonella (5%)

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24
Q

In Escherichia coli O157:H7, the numbered portion is called the:

A

serotype (groups single species of microorganisms)

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25
Q

What are the 3 classifications of foodborne illness:

A

1) bacterial infection
2) intoxication
3) toxin-mediated infection

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26
Q

What are the 2 main examples of bacterial infection:

A

1) salmonellosis

2) listeriosis

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27
Q

What are the 4 food types/environments of concern for foodborne illness?

A

1) low acid foods (high pH)
2) high moisture
3) protein-rich foods
4) improperly processed fruits and veggies

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28
Q

What are the 4 options for respiratory requirements?

A

1) aerobic bacteria
2) anaerobic bacteria
3) facultative anaerobic bacteria
4) microaerophilic bacteria

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29
Q

What is microaerophilic bacteria?

A
  • Bacteria that have very specific Oxygen requirements

- 3-6% O2

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30
Q

what type of resp requirements does campylobacter jejuni have?

A
  • Microaerophilic bacteria
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31
Q

Which microbe is associated with summer and the lake?

A

Campylobacter Jejuni

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32
Q

Identify these as gram positive or negative:

  • Campylobacter jejuni
  • Escherichia coli :157:H7
  • Listeria Monocytogenes
  • Salmonella spp
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Clostridia spp
A
  • Campylobacter jejuni - gram -
  • Escherichia coli :157:H7 - gram -
  • Listeria Monocytogenes gram +
  • Salmonella spp - gram -
  • Staphylococcus aureus - gram +
  • Clostridia spp - gram +
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33
Q

Which microbe can be found in salad mixes?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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34
Q

Which microbe is spiral s-shaped

A

campylobacter jejuni

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35
Q

Which microbe is associated with the cronut burger at the CNE?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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36
Q

Which microbe was associated with the scandal with Schneider’s lunchables?

A

Salmonella spp

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37
Q

What is another name for “Winter-vomiting disease”

A

Norwalk-like virus

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38
Q

Which microbe is associated with fresh berries?

A

Cyclosporidia

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39
Q

Which microbe is associated with round worm infection?

A

Trichinellosis

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40
Q

Which microbe is associated with kidney failure?

A

Escherichia coli

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41
Q

Which microbe is immune to salt and acid?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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42
Q

Clostridium botulinum can be founds in foods with this pH

A

> 4.6 (low pH)

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43
Q

When canning low acid foods, one must be concerned about this microbe

A

Clostridium Botulinum

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44
Q

Beaver Fever is another name for the disease of this microbe

A

Giardia

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45
Q

In the Aspergillus Flavus microbe, one needs to be concerned about

A

Aflatoxin

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46
Q

What are the 3 benefits of fermentation?

A

1) reduces pathogens in food
2) extends shelf life of products
3) makes new foods from raw materials

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47
Q

What are the 4 species of lactic acid bacteria?

A

1) Lactobacillus spp
2) Leuconostoc spp
3) Pediococcus spp
4) Steptococcus spp

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48
Q

What is the difference between homofermentative fermentation and heterofermentative fermentation?

A

Homo - 1 glucose –> 2 lactic acid (lactic acid is only product)
C6H12Oh –> 2CH3CHOHCOOH
Hetero - 1 glocuse –> 1 lactic acid + ethanol + CO2 (50% l.a.)

CH3CHOCOOH + C2H5OH + CO2

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49
Q

What is the morphology of lactic acid bacteria?

A

Gram +

Cocci or Rods

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50
Q

What is the resp requirements for l.a. bacteria?

A

Microaerophillic - only need a little O2. doesnt form spores

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51
Q

Rejecting Null hypothesis when it is true is called:

A

Type 1 statistical error

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52
Q

Accepting the null hypothesis when it is false is called

A

Type 2 statistical error

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53
Q

What are the 4 types of papillae?

A

1) fungiform papillae
2) filiform papillae
3) folate papillae
4) circumvallate papillae

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54
Q

the coolness of menthol or the heat from capsaicin are examples of

A

pungency

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55
Q

Where is sourness best detected?

A
  • tip of tongue
  • concentrated amounts on hard palate
  • dilute acid - back of tongue
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56
Q

where is bitterness detected?

A
  • hard palate, and then back of tongue
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57
Q

where is sweetness detected?

A

tip of tongue

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58
Q

where is saltiness detected?

A

side of tongue

intensity is on hard palate

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59
Q

Where are taste buds found (3 places)

A

1) surface of tongue on papillae
2) inside mouth
3) back of epiglottis

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60
Q

Whether a colour is dull or shiny depends on the

A

brightness

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61
Q

whether a colour is warm or cool depends on the

A

hue

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62
Q

Which colour falls in the 480-560 range?

A

green

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63
Q

Which mold do you use to innoculate soybeans for tempeh?

A

Rhizopus oligosporus

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64
Q

which 2 moldsm are usedin camambert cheese production?

A

1) oidium lactis

2) penicillium camemberti

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65
Q

Which 2 molds are involved in blue cheese production?

A

1) Penicillium Roqueforti

2) Penicillium glaucum

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66
Q

What type of yeast is used in wine and alcohol production?

A

saccharomyces cerevisiae

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67
Q

What % salt should the brine for pickled cucumbers be?

A

15-20% - may need to add salt throughout - concentration cant fall below 12%

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68
Q

What are the 2 bacteria that are produced when pickling cucumbers?

A

1) leuconostoc mesenteroides

2) lactobacillus cumeris

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69
Q

Food composition includes 4 items. What are they?

A

1) Starches
2) proteins
3) fats
4) pigments

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70
Q

What are 4 types of food processing?

A

1) heat treatment
2) denaturation
3) storage
4) handling

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71
Q

Name 3 examples of food science careers

A

1) Product development
2) Research
3) Quality Assurance

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72
Q

What was Buttergate?

A
  • Happened in February 2019
  • Canadians complaining that their butter wasnt softening at room temp
  • Issues with Fat crystal structure
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73
Q

What are examples of non-enzymatic browning:

A
  • roasting
  • toasting
  • broiling
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74
Q

Who are 4 segments of the population who are most susceptible to foodborne illness?

A

1) infants + kids
2) elderly
3) immune compromised
4) pregnant

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75
Q

What is the cost of foodborne illness in Canada vs. the US?

A

US: $10-83 billion
CAN: $100 million

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76
Q

What is the temp range for cooking?

A

74-100 degrees celsius

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77
Q

What is the temp range where growth is inhibited?

A

60-74 degrees

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78
Q

What is fridge temp?

A

4 degrees

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79
Q

What is cross contamination?

A

Linked to transfer of bacteria from A PERSON to raw or cooked foods

OR

from raw to cooked foods

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80
Q

What are 3 examples of common foodborne illness symptoms?

A

1) diarrhea
2) vomiting
3) fever
4) fatigue
5) nausea

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81
Q

What is the main contaminant in beef?

A

Escherichia coli O157:H7

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82
Q

What is bacterial infection?

A
  • it is a classification of Foodborne illness
  • it is associated with the effect of microorganisms on the GUT WALL
  • salmonellosis and listeriosis are 2 examples
  • extreme cases = bactermeia
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83
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

It is an extreme case of bacterial infection where the microbe punctures the gut wall and enters the blood supply

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84
Q

Consumption of a pre-formed toxin is called

A

Intoxication

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85
Q

Why are protein-rich foods foods of concern for foodborne illness?

A

Because proteins are made up of amino acids, so they have the energy building blocks to support growth and replication of the microbe

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86
Q

Why is steak less risky than ground beef?

A
  • less surface area

the muscle tissues havent been so exposed, so they are sterile and dont break down

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87
Q

What does morphology consist of?

A

1) shape of bacteria

2) reaction to staining

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88
Q

Which microbe prefers the absence of oxygen?

A

Clostridia spp (botulism)

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89
Q

Something that can grow at high salt concentrations is called a

A

Halophile

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90
Q

What is vibrio cholera?

A
  • example of a halophile

- responsible for the cholera epidemic due to water supplies

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91
Q

What were the costs of the Walkerton water crisis?

A
  • $72 M in compensation
  • 9725 claims
  • 7 deaths
  • 2,500 sick people
  • main thing people got sick with - acute gastroenteritis
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92
Q

Which microbe is spiral/s-shaped??

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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93
Q

Which microbe has flagella?

A

Listeria monocytogenes (hair-like projections - allows them to move)

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94
Q

which microbe is seen as self-limiting?

A

Salmonella spp

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95
Q

Which microbe can be found in custards?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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96
Q

What was the issue in the Maple Leafs case?

A
  • Listeria monocytogenes

- the slicing equipment was not being sanitized

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97
Q

what is the morphology of norwalk-like virus?

A
  • round
  • non-developed
    27-32 mm
98
Q

which microbe does not have person to person transmission

A

cyclosprodia

99
Q

What are the products of fermentation?

A
  • amino acids
  • acids
  • alcohols
  • gasses
  • organic compounds
100
Q

Sauerkraut, pickles, and olives are examples of _____

A

wild fermentation

101
Q

Beer, wine, vinegar, cheese, are examples of _____

A

innoculated fermentation

102
Q

What is the formula for the formation of homofernentative L.a. bacteria?

A

1 glucose (C6H12O6) –> 2 l.a. (CHOHCOOH)

103
Q

What is the formula for the formation of heterofermentative l.a. bacteria?

A

1 glucose (C6H12O6) –> 1 l.a. (CHOHCOOH) + Ethanol (C2H5OH) + CO2

104
Q

What is the ideal temp for sauerkraut production?

A

21 degrees

105
Q

What should the salt concentration be for sauerkraut production?

A

2-2.5%

106
Q

What are the l.a. involved in sauerkraut production?

A

1) leuconostoc mesenteroides
2) Lactobacillus cucumeris + lactobacillus plantarum
2) Lactobacillus pentoacetus

107
Q

Which 2 bacteria are involved in Pickling cucumbers?

A

1) leuconostoc mesenteroides

2) lactobacillus cucumeris

108
Q

What is homogenized milk?

A

It is forcing the milk through little holes to ensure the fat droplets are so tiny that they wont separate

109
Q

What are the 3 reactants in yogurt production?

A

1) pasteurized/homogenized milk
2) MSNF
3) starter culture (streptococcus thermophilus + lactobacillus bulgaricus)

110
Q

what is the starter culture for yogurt production?

A

1) lactobacillus bulgaricus

2) streptococcus thermophilus

111
Q

What temp is needed for yogurt making?

A

42-46 degrees celsius

112
Q

What is the ph of yogurt production?

A

4.1-4.9 (from 6.6)

113
Q

Bifidobacterium spp is an example of:

A

probiotic cultures

114
Q

yeast is a ____ organism

A

eukaryotic

115
Q

bacteria is a ______ organism

A

prokaryotic

116
Q

What is the process called of yeast cells replicating?

A

budding

117
Q

What are 2 types of yeast used to make alcohol?

A

1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

2) saccharomyces oviformis

118
Q

What is the reaction for alcohol production?

A

6 carbon monosaccharide (i.e C6H12O6 –> ethanol (C2H5OH) + CO2

119
Q

How do you control yeast fermentation in wine (2 methods)

A

1) 25-75 mg/L of Sulfur dioxide (SO2)

2) add Brettanomyces to control for flavour

120
Q

How do you make vinegar?

A

MIXED FERMENTATION!

Step 1: Involves yeast
C6H12O6 –> 2C2H5OH + 2CO2

Step 2: Involves bacteria

  • ethanol + oxygen –> acetic acid + water
  • C2H5OH + O2 –> CH3COOH + H20
121
Q

What is the main product of turning wine to vinegar?

A

Acetic acid

122
Q

How much alcohol do you need in order to make vinegar through acetobacter fermentation?

A

10-13% alcohol

if too much alcohol = incomplete oxidation
if too little alcohol = loss of product because it has been oxidized too much

123
Q

Which of the 5 senses is king?

A

taste

124
Q

What is flavour?

A

taste + small

125
Q

What are the 2 types of sensory cues?

A

proximal

distal (sight, smell of food being made in another room)

126
Q

What is sweetness?

A

Hydroxyl groups

127
Q

What is sour taste?

A

Presence of H ions/acids

128
Q

What is bitter taste?

A

protein hydrolysis

129
Q

What is salty taste?

A

positively or negatively charged ions

130
Q

What enables flavour (taste + smell)?

A

retronasal cavity

131
Q

how is the olfactory bulb involved in detecting odour/flavour?

A

the olfactory epithelium has mucus membrane that has little hairs that detect low molecular weight molecules

132
Q

visible wavelengths are between ___ and ___ nm

A

400-700 nm

133
Q

what are the blue wavelengths?

A

400-480 nm

134
Q

what are the red wavelengths

A

630-720 nm

135
Q

What are the yellow wavelengths?

A

560 - 620 nm

136
Q

What are the green wavelengths?

A

480-560 nm

137
Q

What are the primary colours?

A

red
blue
green

138
Q

What is responsible for the wavelengths we perceive?

A

retinal cones

139
Q

What are 3 ways to describe colour?

A

1) spectral colour
2) hue
3) brightness

140
Q

How do you measure colour?

A

1) hunter lab

2) colour charts

141
Q

In the hunter lab for measuring colour,
___ is on the y axis
___ is on the x axis
___ is on the z axis

A
  • brightness (L) is on the y axis (white-black)
  • red/green is on the X axis
  • blue/yellow is on the Z axis
142
Q

How/where is pungency detected?

A
  • by the trigeminal nerve (the 5th cranial nerve)

- in both the oral AND nasal cavity

143
Q

when consuming wasabi, what gets excited?

A

the trigeminal nerve

144
Q

how often do cells in taste buds regenerate?

A

every 9-10 days

145
Q

Are taste buds water soluble or fat soluble?

A

Water soluble

146
Q

how many taste cells does 1 taste bud have?

A

40

147
Q

what are taste cell hairs called?

A

microvilli

148
Q

What is detection threshold?

A

When you can taste something, but cant tell exactly what you are tasting

149
Q

What is recognition threshold?

A

You can detect something and know what it is

150
Q

What is terminal threshold?

A

If you add more, you cant tell the difference

151
Q

What are the 3 types of thresholds in sensory analysis?

A

1) detection threshold
2) recognition threshold
3) terminal threshold

152
Q

What are the 2 types of sensory testings?

A

1) analytical
- this is a forced-choice test.
- panelists must make a decision.
- OBJECTIVE.
- either discriminative or descriptive

2) affective
- SUBJECTIVE
- what do you like/dislike

153
Q

What is the difference between discriminative testing and descriptive testing? (both anayltical)

A

discriminative testing = can you tell the difference between samples?
descriptive testing = measure the intensity/strength of the sweetness

154
Q

What are tests used in discriminative testing (can you tell the difference)?

A

1) paired comparison
2) triangle test
3) duo trio test
4) ranking test
5) scoring test

155
Q

What is a paired comparison test?

A
  • can you tell the difference between the OG and the test product?
156
Q

What is a triangle test?

A

there are 3 samples, 2 are the same, 1 is different. identify the odd sample. Which are the same as eachother?

157
Q

What is the duo-trio test?

A

3 samples. 1 is the “reference”.

1 is the same as the reference and 1 is different.

158
Q

What is a ranking test?

A

rank in order of sweetness

159
Q

What is a scoring test

A

Score 1-5 for sweetness

160
Q

What are examples of tests for descriptive-analytical sensory testing?

A

1) focus groups
2) structured scale - ie. very sweet vs. non very sweet
3) unstructured scale - 15 cm line

161
Q

What are examples of affective sensory tests?

A

1) paired comparisons - which do you prefer, a or b?
2) structured hedonic scaling - like a lot, like somewhat
3) unstructured hedonic scaling - 15 cm line - mark where you like it

162
Q

What is logical error?

A

people are influenced by characteristics of a sample because they appear to be logically linked with those in the test

ie. yellow mashed potatoes may look old, will affect taste

163
Q

How much dry matter does tempeh have?

A

35%

164
Q

Cooked, dehulled whole soybeans are fermented by which type of molds?

A

Rhizopus molds

165
Q

Cereals, grains, breads, and starches are a good source of:

A

1) dietary fibres

2) energy

166
Q

What are examples of water-soluble carbs?

What are examples of water-insoluble carbs?

A

Water-soluble carbs/Water dispersible carbs (these absorb water into structure and increase viscosity. they can distribute it into aqueos system.).

  • starches
  • pectins

Water-insoluble carbs - not broken down during digestion so contribute to fecal bulk

  • dietary fibre
  • cell wall components
  • cellulose
  • hemicellulose
167
Q

What are whole grains?

A

Grains that contain all 3 parts of the kernel:

1) bran - entire outer husk, dietary fibre, insoluble fibre
2) endosperm - protein, starch
3) germ - lipids, vitamin E

168
Q

What is the difference between whole wheat flour and whole grain flour?

A
  • whole-grain flour contains 100% of OG kernel

- whole-wheat flour contains 95% of OG kernel (contains less germ, so has longer shelf life)

169
Q

Grains and oilseeds are good sources of:

A

PUFAs

170
Q

What are some examples of PUFAs

A

Linolenic acid
Peanut oil
soybean oil

171
Q

Carbohydrates, such as cereals, grains, breads, are composed of 3 main items:

A

1) sugar
2) starch
3) fibre

172
Q

Carbs supply between ____ and ____ % of total calories in NA diet.

A

between 35-45%

173
Q

What is the difference between simple and complex carbs?

A

simple carbs:

  • monosaccharides and disaccharides
  • ex: sucrose, fructose, glucose, lactose

Complex carbs

  • contain longer chains of molecules
  • found in foods
  • either water soluble or water insoluble
  • water soluble - take up water into their stuctures - increases in viscosity. ex: starches
  • water insoluble - contribute to fecal bulk, can be fermented. dietary fibre, cell wall components, cellulose, hemicellulose
174
Q

What is starch?

A
  • it is a storage depot for energy in plants
  • found in seeds, tubers, roots
  • it is synthesized by plants as small, discrete packets known as granules
  • formed by glucose subunits
175
Q

Where are starches found? give examples.

A

1) seeds: wheat, rice, corn
2) tubers (underground stems): white potato
3) roots: cassava, tapioca

176
Q

How is starch synthesized?

A

in small units/packets called granules.

177
Q

Where do you get the dietary fibre of the kernel?

A

the brain

178
Q

Where are the B vitamins found in grains?

A

the bran

179
Q

Which portion of grains contains starch

A

endosperm

180
Q

which portion of grains contains protein

A

endosperm

181
Q

Which is the biggest part of the grain?

A

the endosperm (83%)

182
Q

Which part of the grain contains the PUFAs, and fat soluble vitamins?

A

the germ

183
Q

how big is the germ?

A

2-3%

184
Q

what does the germ contain?

A

PUFAs

fat- soluble vitamins

185
Q

Between rice starch, wheat starch, potato starch, and corn starch, which is the biggest? which is the smallest? which has abnormal shape?

A

smallest = rice starch
biggest = wheat starch
abnormal shape = potato

the electron micrograph images are measured in microns (nm)

186
Q

What is viscosity?

A

resistance to flow

187
Q

How do starches thicken/increase in viscosity?

A

water + heat + agitation

188
Q

When starch starts to swell due to increased water, this is called:

A

gelatinization

189
Q

what is the process of gelatinization?

A

cell takes up water.
cells swell in size, and water inserts itself between dry starch. water hydrogen bonds with the starch molecules.
this swelling and hydrogen bonding leads to the loss of crystallinity.

190
Q

when cooking rice, this happens:

A

gelatinization

191
Q

What are some differences between long grain, short grain, and medium grain rice?

A

Long grain:

  • example: basmati
  • compact
  • can fluff up and easily separate
  • main polymer: AMYLOSE (than amylopectin) = amylose is leaner - this makes it more compact

Short grain rice:

  • example: sushi rice
  • stickier, chewier
  • main polymer: amylopectin (branched, not as lean)
192
Q

What are the 2 major starch polymers?

A

1) amylose

2) amylopectin

193
Q

Which starch polymer is usually present in higher capacity?

A

amylopectin

194
Q

which starch polymer is always present in lower %?

A

Amylose

195
Q

Which starch polymer is branched?

A

amylopectin

196
Q

which starch polymer is not branched

A

amylose (long grain)

197
Q

What do raw starch granules look like under light microscopy? Polarized light microscopy

A

Light microscopy:

  • stained dark
  • compact

Polarized light microscopy:

  • can see crystalline behaviour
  • has maltese cross
198
Q

maltese cross can only be seen with

A

polarized light microscopy

199
Q

how do you monitor a change in starch crystallinity?

A

polarized light microscopy

200
Q

how do you know you’ve reached the end of gelatinization?

A

when birefringence/crystallinity is lost

201
Q

What are the factors that influence the viscosity of a product?

A

1) chemical composition of starch
2) fat
3) sugar
4) acids
5) stirring and agitation

202
Q

how does the chemical composition of starch impact viscosity?

A
  • whether a starch has more amylose or amylopectin affects viscosity.
  • semisolid gels like cornstarch = more amylose
203
Q

how does fat influence viscosity?

A
  • more fat = less gelatinization = less viscosity
  • fat is hydrophobic. if you mix it with starch, it will coat the starch, stopping water from coming through –> less swelling/gelatinization.
  • BUT you will still get thickness
204
Q

how does sugar influence viscosity?

A
  • more sugar = less gelatinization
  • this is because sugar = hydrophillic - binds to water, so water is not available to hydrogen bond to starch.
  • BUT there is still increased viscosity because of moisture, heat, and agitation. just not as much.
  • ALSO, SUGAR HELPS MAINTAIN THE THICKNESS THAT YOU DO GET
205
Q

how does acid influence viscosity?

A
  • more acid (like lemon juice = less gelatinization
  • acid hydrolysis of the glycosidic bonds leads to shorter polymers, that have more water solubility –> acid thinning.
  • if you add vinegar early in the experiment, wont have much effect. only matters if you add it after the starch is fully gelatinized
  • if add acid after starch is gelatinized, starch would be swollen, no more bifringence, so the glycosidic bonds are available to be hydrolcized by acid.
  • WHEN THINKING ABOUT ACIDS, THINKING ABOUT THE HYDROLYSIS OF THE GLYCOCIDIC LINKAGES
206
Q

how does stirring/agitation affect viscosity?

A
  • stirring = leads to increased viscosity

- agitation = leads to decreased viscosity = SHEARING. (the swollen starch granules are delicate).

207
Q

too much agitation of starch granules can lead to:

A

shearing

208
Q

What are 3 examples of separating agents?

A

1) cold water - mix starch with cold water before adding it to hot liquid
2) fat - mix starch with fat to separate flour particles and heat briefly
3) sugar - mix starch with sugar to separate starch granules

209
Q

why does lumping of starch happen?

A

it happens when dry starch is mixed with warm/hot water.
- when starch granules take up hot water, it hydrates the outer surface making it sticky. it holds they dry starch on the interior.

  • if you use cold water, it wont hydrate the surface, so it will let them stay separate from eachother.
210
Q

What is a roux?

A

mixture of oil with flour/starch.

211
Q

If you are making a white sauce, what would you use as your separating agent?

A

fat (a roux)

212
Q

if you want to make gravy but dont want to roast something and use the fat drippings, what would you do?

A

dextrinization! use dry heat to brown the flour.

  • the dry heat will break down the starch polymers (amylose and amylopecti) into shorter dextrin units.
  • dextrin units have more solubility compared to amylose and amylopectin
  • but if just using dextrinization, need to be careful with thickness
213
Q

what are dextrins?

A

short units of starch polymers

- made in dextrinization (when making gravy, using dry heat to brown flour)

214
Q

dextrins have _____ solubility than amylose/amylopectin

A

MORE

215
Q

puddings will most likely take advantage of ____ as a separating agent

A

sugar

216
Q

what is the problem with storing starch thickened products?

A

usually, when you cool something, it will increase viscosity.
- what were once short layers of overal turn to long layers of overap

217
Q

why is there increased opacity when cooling starch products?

A
  • more overlap and more hydrogen bonding
218
Q

what happens when you cool product in fridge for a cojuple days

A

separation of moisture from the starch. the mositure that was once stuch in the short areas of overlap has been released, which is why it now sits on top

219
Q

what is syneresis?

A

the separation of moisture in starch mixtures

220
Q

What are the main classifications of wheat?

A

1) colour - red or white (reflects pigment of bran)
2) protein starch structure - hard vs. soft
3) planting season - winter wheat vs. spring wheat

221
Q

What is the difference between hard vs. soft wheat?

A

hard wheat

  • 12-14% protein
  • high degree of association between protein + starch
  • ex: bread flour, montreal bagels

soft wheat

  • 7-9% protein
  • low degree of association between protein + starch
  • ex: cake flour
222
Q

What is the difference between spring vs. winter wheat?

A

spring wheat

  • plant in spring, harvest in fall
  • needs more moisture to grow
  • grown in prairies

Winter wheat

  • plant in fall, harvest in spring
  • grown in Ontario
  • main wheat in Southern states
223
Q

what is the main type of wheat in north america?

A

Hard red winter wheat

- used in all purpose flour

224
Q

What type of wheat is used for pasta making?

A

durum wheat - is a spring wheat

225
Q

What type of wheat is used to make loaves of bread?

A

Hard red winter wheat

226
Q

What type of wheat is used to make firmer, chewier things, like montreal bagels, and bread flour?

A

hard, red, spring wheat

227
Q

what is soft red winter wheat used for?

A
  • cakes and pastry flour
  • low protein
  • dont need same amount of gluten for cakes
228
Q

What are white wheats used for?

A

noodle making (ie durum wheat)

229
Q

What is triticale?

A

a cross between rye and wheat.

Has drought tolerance

230
Q

Which microbe is heat stable?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

231
Q

which microbe is heat sensitive?

A

clostridia botulinim

232
Q

What are examples of microbes that are self limiting diseases?

A
  • Clostridia perfringens
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Salmonella spp.
233
Q

what family does the norwalk-like virus belong to/

A

Caliciviridae

234
Q

What is the genus for norwalk-like virus?

A

norovirus

235
Q

what bacteria is key in sauerkraut and pickle production?

A

leuconostoc mesenteroides

236
Q

Which papillae are the biggest?

A

Circumvallate papillae

237
Q

which papillae are responsible for bitterness/after taste?

A

circumvallate papillae

238
Q

which papillae are on sides of tongue?

A

filiform papillae

239
Q

in DIFFERENCE testing, we want to limit this error

A

type 1: rejecting when it is true

240
Q

in SIMILARITY testing we want to limit this error

A

type 2 error: accepting when it is false

FND 100 - Midterm 1 (1 decks)

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