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NEUR 1203 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How has the perspective on mental illness evolved over time?

A

Historically, behaviours that indicated mental illness were given supernatural explanations (witches, demons, evil spirits)

Christians treated this with exorcism which was sometimes (during middle ages) accompanied with violence as it was thought that possession was due to sins.

Trepanation - surgical procedure in which holes were drilled into the skull to let out spirits

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2
Q

What did Aristotle believed the _____ was responsible for thought

A

heart - he thought the brain was there to cool off the blood

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3
Q

What did pre-renaissance philosophers believe about thoughts, memory and emotion?

A

They believed that cognitive processes were contained in a special fluid in the ventricular system

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4
Q

Dissection and vivisection occurred in ancient times but then stopped. When did it return?

A

During the renaissance period

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5
Q

______ is considered the father of neurology

A

Thomas Willis

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6
Q

_______ believed that a non-physical out interfaced with the physical body at the pineal gland

A

Ren Descartes (cartesian dualism)

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7
Q

_____ was the first to measure the speed of a nervous impulse

A

Herman von Helmholtz

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8
Q

_____ invented neuronal staining in order to see what neurons looked like for the first time

A

Camillo Golgi

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9
Q

Who is Paul Broca?

A

The first to correctly localize a certain part of the cerebral cortex

He noticed that an area in the left frontal lobe was damaged in patients that had lost their ability to speak, now known as the Broca’s area

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10
Q

What are the 3 directional terminology classes ?

A

Dorsal (top) vs. ventral (bottom)
Anterior (front) vs. posterior (back)
Medial (midline) vs. lateral (towards the side)

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11
Q

What are the 3 planes when viewing the brain?

A

Coronal (though the top of your head)
Horizontal (through the forehead)
Sagittal (down the middle)

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12
Q

The nervous system is organized into the _____ and ______ divisions

A

central & peripheral

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13
Q

The central nervous system is comprised of the _____ and _______

A

brain & spinal cord

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14
Q

The peripheral nervous system is comprised of the _______ and _______ nervous system

A

somatic & autonomic

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15
Q

Contrast the efferent and afferent nerves

A

These are located in the somatic nervous system

Efferent nerves (outgoing) are motor nerves that connect the CNS to the skeletal muscles

Afferent nerves are sensory nerves that carry info from the sensory organs to the CNS

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16
Q

The function of the autonomic nervous system is to ________

A

regulate homeostasis

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17
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system comprised of ?

A

Sympathetic nervous system (SNS): arousing, fight or flight

Parasympathetic nervous system (PNS): calming, rest and digest

Each hemisphere controls the other half of the body (ex. hemi-sympathecotimized cat)

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18
Q

What is the ventricular system?

A

A set of 4 ventricles which are inter-connected hallow spaces that cushion and support the brain

they are filled with CSF which contain glucose, salts, and minerals

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19
Q

When the ventricles are moved to one side or enlarged it is a sign of _______

A

mild brain damage

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20
Q

The brain and spinal cord are protected by special membranes called ______

A

meninges

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21
Q

The ______ protects the brain from many drugs, infections, and other compounds that circulate in the blood

A

BBB

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22
Q

What are the two types of brain cells?

A

Neurons - basic information processing units (~80bill)

Glial cells - support and moderate neuron activity, create myelin sheath (~100bill)

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23
Q

What are the structures of the neuron?

A

Dendrites - gather info from other neurons
Cell body/soma - contains nucleus and DNA
Axon hillock - connects cell body and axon
Axon - carries info to other cells
Terminal bottom - tip of axon that conveys info by connecting with dendrites of other neurons

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24
Q

______ myelinated axons in the CNS and _______ myelinated axons in the PNS

A

oligodendrocytes and schwann cells (both glial cells)

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25
Q

What are the differences between white and grey matter?

A

While matter is fat-sheathed neuronal axons

Grey matter is areas of the NS composed of cell bodies and blood vessels

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26
Q

Contrast tracts and nerves

A

Tracts are collections of axons in the CNS that connect nuclei to each other and are mostly white matter

Nerves are collections of axons in the PNS

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27
Q

______ is a distinct cluster of neuronal cell bodies forming a functional group

A

Nucleus

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28
Q

The brains outer later of grey matter is celled the _______

A

cerebral cortex

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29
Q

What is the difference in neuronal organization between the cortex and the subcortical regions?

A

Cortex: neurons have a uniform, grid-like organization (suburbs)

Subcortical regions: neurons have an irregular organizations (old cites)

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30
Q

Why is the brain wrinkled?

A

In order to increase SA without having a larger skull

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31
Q

A _____ is a bump or convulsion between grooves and a ______ is a groove (trench) between gyri

A

gyrus; sulcus

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32
Q

What are the 3 major components of the brain? What are their functions?

A

Cerebrum - major structure of the forebrain, higher order thinking
Cerebellum - involved in motor coordination
Brainstem - connects the brain to the spinal cord and essential for life (respiration, BP, etc.)

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33
Q

Name the functions of the 4 lobes of the cerebral cortex

A

Frontal - motor control, executive functioning
Occipital - vision
Parietal - touch sensation, proprioception
Temporal - auditory sensation, language perception, gustatory (speech is on left hemisphere)

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34
Q

The ____ connects the two cerebral hemisphere

A

Corpus callosum

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35
Q

What is the function of the limbic system? What does it consist of?

A

The limbic system is important for emotions, memories and can be affected by psychological disorders and drugs. It is composed of:

Cingulate cortex - emotional processing and memory
Amygdala - fear, aggression, and emotional memories
Hippocampus - formation of LTM

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36
Q

The ____ is a region of the cortex hidden within the lateral sulcus

A

Insula

sometimes considered part of the limbic system, involved in interception, self-awareness and emotions

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37
Q

What is the structure and function of the basal ganglia?

A

Basal ganglia are involved in controlling movement, learning, memory, and in particular ‘habits’. It consists of 3 parts:

Striatum (consists of the caudate nucleus and putamen)
Globus pallidus
Substantia Nigra - part of the midbrain that projects DAergic neurons into the basal ganglia

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38
Q

_______ involves death of DAergic neurons in the substantia nigra

A

Parkinson’s disease

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39
Q

What are the regions and functions of the brain brain stem?

A

Diencephalon:

  • Thalamus (sensory info except for smell pass through encore to cortex)
  • Hypothalamus (controls homeostasis, regulates hormone secretion from pituitary gland)

Midbrain: contains neurons that produce DA that project to other brain regions

Hindbrain:

  • Pons (connects cerebellum to brainstem)
  • Medulla (controls breathing, HR, connects brain to spinal cord)
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40
Q

The tendency for particles to move from one place to other is called the ______ and is measured in ____

A

electrical protenial; volts

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41
Q

What does it mean to say a neuron is polarized?

A

There are more negatively charged ions inside the membrane than outside

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42
Q

The resting potential is _____

A

-70mv

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43
Q

What electrical charge do you see during an action potential?

A

During an action potential the membrane potential briefly goes up to around +30mv then returns below -70mv and then returns to equilibrium

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44
Q

How long to action potentials take?

A

They are localized and take about 1mc

You can measure them one at a time or over larger-time scales, known as spikes

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45
Q

Any changes that moves a neuron towards a positive charge is known as _____

A

depolarization

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46
Q

Depolarization is local but propagates down an axon. This cycle can continue indefinitely. This is an example of a ______

A

positive feedback look

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47
Q

What is the direction of an action potential?

A

Dendrites > cell body > axon > axon terminals

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48
Q

How to the axon terminals send a signal to another neuron?

A

Axon thermals release NTs which are either cations (+) or anions (-) into the synaptic cleft. These NTs bind with receptors on the post-synaptic cleft.

If there is enough cations to depolarize the cell an action potential will continue though the post-synaptic neuron and so on..

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49
Q

What are the different types of post-synaptic potentials?

A

Excitatory post-synaptic potentials (EPSP) have an influx of cations, depolarizing the cells increasing chance of AP

Inhibitory post-synaptic potentials (IPSP) have an influx of anions, hyperpolarzing the cell decreasing chance of AP

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50
Q

What occurs if a neuron receives an IPSP and an EPSP input at the same time?

A

It is cancelled out

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51
Q

The voltage required to trigger an action potential is ____

A

-50mv

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52
Q

Post-synaptic potentials are graded.

True or false

A

True

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53
Q

What are the major classes of NTs?

A

Amino acids: Glu, Glycine (Gly), GABA
Monoamines: DA, NE, EP, 5-HT
Peptides: Vasopressin, oxytocin, Neuropeptide Y
Other: Ach, Adenosine, Anandamide, Nitric oxide

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54
Q

_____ are molecules that bind to an activate receptors

A

Ligands

Ex. neurotransmitters and hormones

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55
Q

Explain which voltage gated ion channels are involved in action potentials

A

The cell membrane of a neuron contains channels. During the resting state these channels are closed and the inside is more negative than the outside (polarized). The AP causes voltage gated Na+ channels to open and since the charge is more positive on the outside of the cell it drives Na+ into the cell.

The inside now becomes temporarily more positive (depolarized) and voltage gated K+ cells open allowing K+ to exit the cell, repolarizing the cell.

Na+ ions diffuse down the membrane to the nodes of ranvier and causes a change of voltage, opening the Na+ channels and repeating the process.

The Na+/K+ pump (removes 3 Na+ and brings in 2 K+) rests the polarity once the AP has propagated down the axon

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56
Q

How are NTs deactivated once they have sent their message?

A

Diffusion: diffuse away from the synaptic cleft
Degradation: enzymes break down NTs into inactive molecules
Reuptake: Proteins called reuptake transporters recycle NTs back into pre-synpatic cell
Glial cells: absorb NTs

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57
Q

What is the history of developmental biology?

A

~2000yrs ago people believed in preformation: human embryo was a miniature version of an adult that just got bigger

This was replaced be epigenesis in mid-1800s: the idea that living things come into from gradually

In the 19th century they discovered evolution in that all vertebrates arose from a common ancestor

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58
Q

Describe the development on the nervous system

A

Day 1: human zygote is a single cell
Day 2: Cell divides and continues dividing
Day 15: emerging embryo if formed by several sheets with a raised area called an embryonic disc
Day 49: embryo reseumbles a miniature person
Day 100: brain begins to resemble that of a human
7 months: formation of gyri and sulci
9 months: very distinct human brain

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59
Q

Following gastrulation, what 3 germ layers does the embryo have?

A

Endoderm: future viscera

Mesoderm: future muscle and bone

Ectoderm: future skin and nervous system

  • a portion is set aside for the neural plate which roles itself up into a neural tube
  • Cells migrate inward become the neural crest
  • The neural tube breaks free from the ectoderm, moving ventrally to rest dorsal to the notochord
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60
Q

A cell that is induced by Bmp and Want will be _____ and cells that are induced by Shh will be _____

A

dorsal (ectoderm, roof plate) - mainly sensory

Ventral (notochord and floor plate) - mainly motor

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61
Q

What do neural stem cells do?

A

They line the neural tube and ventricles forming the sub ventricular zone

They have capacity for self-renewal and can give rise to progenitor cells

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62
Q

What do progenitor (precursor) cells divide into?

A

They divide either into:

Neuroblasts which develop into interneurons or pyramidal neurons (mature neuronal cells)

Glioblasts which develop into oligodendrocytes or astrocytes (mature glial cells)

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63
Q

Progenitor cells continue to divide throughout your entire life.

True or false.

A

False - they eventually produce non-dividing cells

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64
Q

Stem cells remain capable of producing neuronal and glia throughout adulthood.

True or False

A

True

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65
Q

What are neurotrophic factors? Provide two examples

A

Chemical compounds that act to support growth and differentiation of neurons

Ex. Epidermal growth factor (EGP) stimulates stem cells to produce progenitor cells; Basic Fibroblast Growth Factor (bFGF) stimulates stem cells to produce neuroblasts

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66
Q

What are the 7 stages of neurodevelopment?

A
  1. Cell birth
  2. Cell migration (travel to final destination)
  3. Cell Differentiation
  4. Cell maturation (dendritic and axonal growth)
  5. Synaptogeneisis (formation of synapses)
  6. Cell death
  7. Myelongenesis
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67
Q

The _______ is a major site of cell proliferation where active cell division takes place

A

sub ventricular zone

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68
Q

The outside cordial layers are developed first

True or false

A

False - inside layers are developed first

Radial glia form ladders that developing neurons club to reach their appropriate layer of the cortex

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69
Q

The tip of a developing axon is called the ______. What do they respond to?

A

growth cone

They extend flipodia which feel around the environment, directing the growth cone toward the strongest source of growth factor signals.

They respond to cell-adhesion molecules (CAMs) and trophic molecules/growth factors that are secreted by target cells to attract or repel axons

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70
Q

What age to synapse levels peak? When does pruning end?

A

2-3 yrs and pruning ends in early adulthood (~20)

71
Q

Which cortical areas myelinate first?

A

Simple motor function areas whereas higher-order cognition areas myelinate later

72
Q

What does a critical period refer to?

A

Experiences must occur during critical periods. If not, it may become impossible or very difficult to ever develop normally.

Ex. language development

73
Q

Why is stimulation important during development?

A

It has been shown to increase growth rate, increases bond with caregiver, changes structure of neurons, and increases number of synapses

74
Q

What study did Austin Riesen conduct?

A

Studied animals in the dark and found that without visual stimulation animals experiences atrophy of dendrites in visual cortex making them functionally blind

75
Q

What did Harry Harlow discover?

A

Monkeys raised with no paternal contact showed abnormal intellectual and social behaviours

76
Q

What did the Romanian Orphans experience after a lack of environmental stimulation?

A

Motor and cognitive impairments

77
Q

____ are chemical messengers that are secreted by glands

A

Hormones

78
Q

_____ work over long distances, while ____ work over small distances

A

hormones; neurotransmitters

79
Q

______ glands secrete hormones into the blood and _____ glands secrete substances outside the body

A

endocrine; exocrine

80
Q

Which structure constitute the endocrine system?

A

Pineal gland, hypothalamus, pituitary gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, adrenal gland, pancreas, ovaries/testes

81
Q

Hormones have constant levels over time.

True or False.

A

False.

82
Q

Hormones cause behaviour.

True or False.

A

False - they affect the probability of behaviour

83
Q

Contrast hormonal and neural signalling

A

Endocrine signalling involves hormones being released into the bloodstream to act on target tissues

Neurocrine (synaptic) signalling involves chemical release and diffusion across synaptic cleft

84
Q

What are 3 ways hormonal communication is similar to neuronal communication and what are 4 ways it is different?

A

Similar:

  • they both produce and store chemicals and release them upon stimulation
  • they both bind to receptors to stimulate target cells
  • Some chemicals can act as either a NT or hormone (ex. NE in the CNS and noradrenaline in the body)

Different:

  • Hormones spread everywhere not to a precise destination
  • Hormonal signals are slower
  • Hormonal signals are graded
  • Hormonal signals are always involuntary
85
Q

What are the 3 major classes of hormones?

A

Peptide hormones: made of a string of amino acids (CRH, leptin, insulin)

Monoamine hormones: made of modified amino acids and found mainly in the brain is NTs (NE, EP)

Steroid hormones: synthesized from cholesterol and have a 4 ringed structure (cortisol, estrogen, testosterone)

86
Q

What are the characteristics of a hormonal receptor used by peptide and monoamine hormones?

A

Peptide and monoamine hormones use G-protein coupled receptors (metabotropic) rather than ligand-gated ion channels (ionotropic)

A hormone binds with a receptor which causes the release of many secondary massagers which helps to amplify the signal as hormones are not concentrated to trigger a reaction on their own

87
Q

Most receptors in synapses are _____

A

metabotropic

88
Q

What are the characteristics of a hormonal receptor used by steroid hormones?

A

Unlike other hormones, steroids are lipophilic and can pass through membrane without accommodations

Steroid receptors do not live in the membrane and instead float freely in the ECF. Once bonded with a steroid they diffuse across the membrane in order to control gene expression (transcription factor)

89
Q

What are the 3 major ways hormones effect organs?

A

Promote proliferation, growth, and differentiation
Modulate cell activity and metabolism
Modulate hormone secretion from endocrine glands

90
Q

The _____ is the master gland that affects function of glands and organs throughout the entire body. Describe its structure

A

Pituitary gland

It is located at the base of the brain and connected to the hypothalamus by the pituitary stalk. It is composed of two parts:

  • anterior pituitary: connected to hypothalamus by blood vessels
  • posterior pituitary: connected to hypothalamus by axons extending from hypothalamic neurons
91
Q

What is the purpose of the hypothalamus in the endocrine system?

A

It regulates hormone secretion from the pituitary gland

  • Anterior receive releasing hormones from hypothalamus which stimulates the release of other hormones
  • Posterior receives axons from hypothalamus which secrete hormones directly into circulation
92
Q

What are the 3 steps involved in glandular activity involving the anterior pituitary gland?

A
  1. Releasing hormones travel a short distance through circulation to endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary (portal circulation)
  2. Endocrine cells release a second hormone which affects the body
  3. Secondary hormones reach their target gland and release a third hormone which travels through the body to exert a physiological effect
93
Q

What are examples of anterior hormones and posterior hormones?

A

Anterior hormones: growth hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, prolactin, luteinizing hormone

Posterior: vasopressin, oxytocin

94
Q

The endocrine system uses a _______ to self-regulate, control their function, and maintain homeostasis

A

negative feedback loop

95
Q

What are the 3 stages of the general adaption syndrome (GAS)?

A

Alarm: initial reaction to stressor - fight or flight activated
Resistance: physiological adaptations take place to cope with stressors (cortisol & HPA axis)
Exhaustion: physiological resources are depleted and the body becomes unable to cope

96
Q

What is the bodies physiological response to stress?

A

Stress is labeled by the cortex which sends a signal to the hypothalamus which activates the fast pathway Sympatho-adrenomedullary system (SAM) and the slow pathway Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenocortical (HPA) axis

SAM: Hypothalamus synapses with the SNS -> SNS project to adrenal medulla which initiates a fight-or-flight response -> triggers the adrenal medulla to release catecholamines (increase in HR, BP, respiration glycogenolysis, and lipolysis; decreases digestion)

HPA: Hypothalamus releases corticotropin releasing factor (CRF) into anterior pituitary -> Anterior pituitary releases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) -> triggers adrenal cortex to release cortisol which inhibits further CRF release, reduced inflammation, conserves carbs, brings body back to steady state

Cortisol binds to glucocorticoid receptors in the hippocampus which then reduces CRH release, which causes reduced ACTH release, to thus produce less cortisol to turn off the stress response

97
Q

Cortisol is a ligand for which two main receptors?

A

Mineralocorticoid receptor (MR) and glucocorticoid receptor (GR)

They are located all throughout the body so cortisol can have a widespread effect. They are transcription receptors as they increase the expression of stress-responsive genes

GR has a lower affinity so when GR receptors are activated the body knows levels are getting too high

98
Q

What are the effects of cortisol?

A

Immune effects: anti-inflammatory, tending to inhibit metabolic and immune effects

Metabolic: reduced bone/tissue formation, increase breakdown of body mass, increase BSL by stimulating glucose production and release of stored glucose, altered sensitivity to other hormones

99
Q

Why does choking occur?

A

Stress tends to suppress higher level reasoning (PFC) and increases anxious fearful thinking

At baseline, inhibitory projections from PFC exert top-down control over lower brain areas. Under stress, DA and NE shut down these inhibitory processes by opening a post-synaptic ion channel which suppresses the PFC

By turning off the PFC and activating the basal ganglia and amygdala animals are able to use their more simple and impulsive behaviours to escape danger and are on high alert recognizing everything as a threat

100
Q

How does chronic stress affect the hippocampus?

A

Prolonged exposure to cortisol can damage the hippocampus which negatively impacts the ability to control cortisol secretion causing further damage

This is a vicious positive feedback look

101
Q

____ describes experience perceived as positive challenged rather than a threat

A

Eustress

102
Q

What is the optimal level fo stress?

A

Moderate - too high or too low impairs performance.

Moderate stress can promote personal growth and self-improvement

103
Q

What are dichotomous traits?

A

Traits that occur in just one or another form.

Ex. eye colour

104
Q

What is an allele?

A

An allele is when your patents contribute a different version of the same gene.

Ex. If you have brown eyes you may say that you have the brown eye allele. As both your parents contributed a different allele for the same eye colour gene

If you have two copies of the same allele you are homozygous; if you have two different alleles you are heterozygous

A collection of alleles is called a genotype

105
Q

If you inherit two different alleles why is only one visible (in the case of dichotomous traits)?

A

Some alleles are dominant (always expressed if present) while others are recessive (only expressed if the alleles are heterozygous)

106
Q

What is the difference between polygenic and monogenic traits?

A

Monogenic traits can be explained simply by the presence or absence of certain alleles (dichotomous)

Polygenic traits involve particular combinations of many different alleles - each gene contributes a certain amount to the phenotype
- The more ‘bad’ alleles one inherits the more risk factors they may have to express an illness

107
Q

What is multifactorial inheritance?

A

When our genotype interacts with our environment to produce our phenotype

108
Q

What is concordance?

A

The measurement of similarity of a phenotype between two individuals.

If a phenotype is 100% concordant between MZ twins the trait is said to be genetic. If not, then there is an environmental influence

109
Q

What makes proteins fragile?

A

They are large and complex which makes them delicate

110
Q

What is a protein? List the types of proteins

A

A protein is a chain of amino acids. there are 20 different amino acids to choose from and the specific combination changes the function and structure of the protein

Structural proteins: help to hold cells and tissue together (collagen)

Enzymes: catalyze chemical reactions and aid in metabolism (MAO - breaks down 5-HT in the cleft)

Cell signalling peptide NTs, receptors for hormones, cytokines

111
Q

How does your body know which proteins to make?

A

Your DNA tells you cells how to build proteins (which amino acids and in which order)

DNA is organized into codons - each codon is 3 nucleotides long

Each codon ‘codes’ for a specific amino acid (ex. AAG codes from lysine)

112
Q

What are the 4 nucleotide bases that make up DNA?

A

Adenine (A) binds with Thymine (T)
Guanine (G) binds with Cytosine (C)

DNA is packaged into chromosome (23 pairs) in the cells nucleus. Each strand can be used a template for copying itself which allows for cell division and reproduction

113
Q

How does you body make proteins?

A
  1. The DNA molecule partially unravels, exposing the structural gene to be transcribed
    - during transcription a gene is copied into a strand of mRNA which matches the DNA sequence of that gene (except thymine is replaced with Uralic )
  2. A strand of mRNA is transcribed from DNA and caries the genetic code from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
  3. The mRNA attaches itself to a ribosome which moves along the strand translating each codon onto the approbate amino acid
  4. When the ribosome reached the end of the mRNA, a codon instructions it to release the completed protein
114
Q

What is a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)?

A

It is a type of genetic variation in which the identity of a single nucleotide is changed.

It is the most common genetic variation and occurs in ~1 in every 1000bp of non-coding DNA and 1 in every 2000bp of coding DNA

SNPs mostly have no apparent effect on phenotype but some are largely linked to disease

115
Q

What are the 3 things that gene expression controls?

A
  1. location - where genes are expressed
  2. Timing - when they are expressed mediated by hormones, physiological conditions, sensory stimuli, developmental programs, other genes
  3. quantity - how much mRNA/prtein is produced
116
Q

______ results in more mRNA and protein whereas _____ results in less

A

up-regulation; down-regulation

117
Q

____ are practically invisible at the structural level and instead involve subtle functional differences in how genes are expressed

A

epigenetic changes

118
Q

_______ is the study of changes in gene expression that are not caused by changes in the DNA sequence

A

Epigenetics

119
Q

How do epigenetic changes influence the expression of genes?

A

DNA is organized around clusters of proteins called histones - the combination of these are called chromatin

Histones act like spools keeping DNA compact but they also contain histone tails in which epigenetic marks may link onto.

When epigenetic parts are added, the chromatin changes shape - either condensing or relaxing the chromatin.

Tight chromatin makes it harder for enzymes to reach the DNA, thus transcription goes down; and when chromatin is loose transcription goes up

120
Q

Contrast histone acetylation and histone methylation

A

Histone methylation (addition of methyl) tightens the chromatin and decreases gene transcription

Histone acetylation (addition of acetyl) loosens the chromatin and decreases gene transcription

121
Q

How does chronic cocaine impact expression of genes?

A

Increases histone acetylation and decreases histone methylation on genes related to addiction

This changes how addiction genes are expressed, making individuals more sensitive to the pleasurable effects of cocaine

122
Q

How does chronic depression impact expression of genes?

A

Increases histone methylation and decreased histone acetylation

This decreased transcription of genes involved in reward signaling

123
Q

How is DNA methylation different from histone methylation

A

DNA methylation is long-lasting and occurs when methyl groups attach to DNA to reduce gene transcription.

Ex. children of abuse have less glucocorticoid receptor expression in their hippocampus which impacts their ability to cope with stress

124
Q

According to the Brain in a Meltdown article, one genetic variation that causes people’s susceptibility to stress-induced mental illness involves:

A) An enzyme that produces NE
B) Ion channels in PFC
C) An enzyme the degrades NE and DA
D) Receptors in the PFC

A

C) An enzyme the degrades NE and DA

125
Q

According to the Brain in a Meltdown article, under stress, NTs produces in the brain stem increase the activity of ______ and _______

A) PFC, hypothalamus
B) Striatum, amygdala
C) Striatum, hypothalamus
D) Amygdala, PFC

A

B) Striatum, amygdala

126
Q

According to the Brain in a Meltdown article, which brain is believed to be responsible for executive function?

A) PFC
B) Amygdala
C) Hypothalamus
D) Striatum

A

A) PFC

127
Q

According to A New Kind of Inheritance article, what is the difference between multigenerational diet effects and transgenerational inherence?

A) Multigenerational direct effects are due to direct exposure to a pollutant or stressor, while
transgenerational inheritance describes the transmission of traits without any continued
exposure to a pollutant or stressor

B) They describe similar phenomena, but multigenerational direct effects describe exposures that
effect multiple generations, while transgenerational inheritance describes inheritance of these
direct effects between generations

C) Multigenerational direct effects are effects that are present in multiple generations, while
transgenerational inheritance is the inheritance mechanism describing these direct effects

D) They describe similar phenomena, and are used interchangeably

A

A) Multigenerational direct effects are due to direct exposure to a pollutant or stressor, while
transgenerational inheritance describes the transmission of traits without any continued
exposure to a pollutant or stressor

128
Q

According to A Kind of New Inheritance, ____ marks are said to be removed during the __ waves of epigenetic reprogramming. However, if an exposure hits the embryo as the __ wave of epigenetic reprogramming begins, this may alter which epigenetic tags are kept at the end of this reprogramming phase. Any epimutations in ____ cells that survive epigenetic reprogramming are passed on to the next generation of offspring.

A) Methyl, 2, first, germ-line
B)Acetyl, 2, second, germ-line
C) Methyl, 2, second, germ-line
D) Methyl, 1, second, somatic

A

C) Methyl, 2, second, germ-line

129
Q

According to A New Kind of Inheritance, exposure to which of the following chemical substances can lead to transgenerational inheritance
of traits that reduce fertility or the likelihood of reproduction in offspring :

A)Dioxin
B) All options listed
C) Bisphenol A (BPA)
D) Vinclozolin

A

B) All options listed

130
Q

The oldest and longest lasting belief of mental illness that though of the mentally ill as witches or being possessed by a demon is called:

A) Trepanation
B) Exorcism
C) Supernatural tradition
D) Mysticism

A

C) Supernatural tradition

131
Q

According to the article A New Kind of Inheritance, the process in which epigenetic marks are preserved from the first wave of erasure to ensure only one parental copy of a gene is expressed, is known as:

A) multigenerational direct effects
B) Trangenerational inheritance
C) Imprinting
D) Accidental inheritance

A

C) Imprinting

132
Q

The speed of an action potential varies from 30-120m/s. What accounts for this variation?

A) Distance
B) Myelination
C) Strength of depolarization
D) Direction

A

B) Myelination

133
Q

If the concordance rate for height is 100%, then monozygotic twins will have:

A) The same height, regardless of where they live
B) The same height, depending on where they live
C) Differing heights, regardless of where they live
D) Differing heights, depending on where they live

A

A) The same height, regardless of where they live

134
Q

In the article a new kind of inheritance, researchers Skinner and Cupp found that when pregnant rats were exposed to environmental toxins:

A) There was no difference in the genotype phenotype of any offspring
B) The activity of primordial germ c ells was altered during prenatal development and these effects were inherited through to the fifth generation
C) The frequency of genetic mutations was elevates in those rats and their offsrpni
D) Only the first generation male rats showed abnormal gonad development

A

B) The activity of primordial germ c ells was altered during prenatal development and these effects were inherited through to the fifth generation

135
Q

Where we are born, we are born with too many synapses. The process in which these excess synapses are eliminated is called what?

A

Pruning

136
Q

Which of the following is not a protein?

A) NDMA receptor
B) Collagen
C) Ribonucleic acid
D) Monoamine Oxidase

A

C) Ribonucleic acid

137
Q

A synthetic form of oxytocin is given during which of the following events to influence what process?

A) During puberty to encourage female ovulation

B) In laboratory testing to observe a participant’s response to stress

C) During labour and delivery to stimulate strong uterine contractions

D) Post trauma to prevent consolidation of memory and PTSD

A

C) During labour and delivery to stimulate strong uterine contractions

138
Q

Which of the following is NOT an epigenetic mark?

A) Histone methylation

B) DNA acetylation

C) DNA methylation

D) Histone acetylation

A

B) DNA acetylation

139
Q

According to the article, A New Kind of Inheritance, what was originally thought to be the main function of DNA methylation?

A) DNA recombination

B) Loosen chromatin structure

C) Remove histone proteins

D) Silence transposons

A

D) Silence transposons

140
Q

This is the layer of the meninges that clings most closely to the surface of the cortex:

A) Arachnoid mater

B) Dura mater

C) Subarachnoid space

D) Pia mater

A

D) Pia mater

141
Q

Sometimes considered part of the limbic system, this brain region is involved in interception, aspects of self-awareness and emotions.

A) Insula

B) Amygdala

C) Medulla

D) Putamen

A

A) Insula

142
Q

According to Dr. MacKay, the ___ ___ is the most useful way to look at the brain as it shows both lobes as well as the midline structures and can be cut with a ___ ___ of the brain.

A) Dorsal view, horizontal section

B) Medial view, sagittal section

C) Frontal view, horizontal section

D) Frontal view, coronal section

A

D) Frontal view, coronal section

143
Q

According to Article #1 – “This is your brain in meltdown”, the PFC serves as the brains executive command center and normally keeps emotions in check by __________ more primitive brain structures.

A) Inhibiting

B) Stimulating

C) Antagonizing

D) Exciting

A

A) Inhibiting

144
Q

Which germ layer provides the cellular precursors to the nervous system?

A) Endoderm

B) Ectoderm

C) Neuroderm

D) Mesoderm

A

B) Ectoderm

145
Q

A neuron fires when there is an action potential starting at the ___.

A) Cell body

B) Terminal button

C) Axon

D) Axon hillock

A

D) Axon hillock

146
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cortisol ?

A) Cortisol increases bone and connective tissue repair and formation

B) Cortisol is a potent anti-inflammatory

C) Cortisol is synthesized from cholesterol and is a member of the glucocorticoid family

D) Cortisol binds to both MR and GR receptors

A

A) Cortisol increases bone and connective tissue repair and formation

147
Q

What molecule carries an amino acid and can bind to specific codons during the process of translation?

A) miRNA

B) mRNA

C) tRNA

D) rRNA

A

C) tRNA

148
Q

Cortisol, Estrogen and Testosterone fall into which major class of hormones?

A) Monoamine Hormones

B) Amino Acid Hormones

C) Steroid Hormones

D) Peptide Hormones

A

C) Steroid Hormones

149
Q

During ________, neurons begin to synapse with other neurons and create vast signaling networks.

A) Cell differentiation

B) Myelination

C) Synaptogenesis

D) Migration

A

C) Synaptogenesis

150
Q

Stress impairs cognition by inhibiting the actions of ____________ and ____________ in the __________.

A) Dopamine and noradrenaline in the PFC

B) 5-HT and dopamine in the hippocampus

C) 5-HT and dopamine in the PFC

D) Dopamine and noradrenaline in the hippocampus

A

A) Dopamine and noradrenaline in the PFC

151
Q

The ventricular system consists of 4 ventricles, which are:

A) Lateral ventricle, medial ventricle, third ventricle, fourth ventricle

B) Lateral ventricle, second ventricle, third ventricle, fourth ventricle

C) Left lateral ventricle, right lateral ventricle, third ventricle, fourth ventricle

D) Lateral ventricle, third ventricle, fourth ventricle, cerebral aqueduct

A

C) Left lateral ventricle, right lateral ventricle, third ventricle, fourth ventricle

152
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of brainstem structures, going in order from caudal to rostral (i.e., starting at the spinal cord and moving upward)?

A) Pons, medulla, midbrain, hypothalamus, thalamus

B) Thalamus, hypothalamus, midbrain, medulla, pons

C) Medulla, pons, midbrain, hypothalamus, thalamus

D) Medulla, midbrain, hypothalamus, pons, thalamus

A

C) Medulla, pons, midbrain, hypothalamus, thalamus

153
Q

___ ___ refers to an area of the nervous system rich in myelinated neural axons, with a large collection of axons in the CNS being called a ___.

A) Grey matter, tract

B) White matter, nerve

C) Grey matter, gyrus

D) White matter, tract

A

D) White matter, tract

154
Q

In Mendel’s experiments using pea plants, the seed shape was either round or wrinkled. This is an example of a:

A) Hidden trait

B) Dichotomous trait

C) Visible trait

D) Recessive trait

A

B) Dichotomous trait

155
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) is false?

A) Most SNPs have an observable effect on phenotype

B) SNPs are the most common type of genetic variation

C) Some SNPs are highly correlated with disease

D) SNPs involve a single nucleotide alteration

A

A) Most SNPs have an observable effect on phenotype

156
Q

The Neural tube separates from the ________, before resting dorsally to the notochord.

A) Epiderm

B) Ectoderm

C) Endoderm

D) Mesoderm

A

B) Ectoderm

157
Q

The influx of cations as a result of neural stimulation is called a;

A) EPSP

B) ESP

C) ESPN

D) IPSP

A

A) EPSP

158
Q

___ ___ refers to an area of the nervous system composed of cell bodies and blood vessels, with a distinct grouping of cell bodies being called a ___.

A) White matter, nerve

B) Grey matter, tract

C) White matter, tract

D) Grey matter, nucleus

A

D) Grey matter, nucleus

159
Q

An example of a glia cell is the ___, and its role is to myelinate axons in the CNS. Myelination due to this glial cell will now lead to ___ and more___ electrical signal conduction.

A) Oligodendrocyte, faster, efficient

B) Oligodendrocyte, slower, efficient

C) Microglia, slower, insulated

D) Schwann cell, faster, insulated

A

A) Oligodendrocyte, faster, efficient

160
Q

______________ methylation results in the ______________ of chromatin and a(n) _________________ of gene transcription.

A) DNA; loosening; upregulation

B) Histone; loosening; upregulation

C) Histone; tightening; downregulation

D) DNA; tightening; upregulation

A

C) Histone; tightening; downregulation

161
Q

______________stimulates the stress response and ___________ stimulates milk production in females.

A) ACTH and Oxytocin

B) ACTH and Prolactin

C) LH and Prolactin

D) ACTH and FSH

A

B) ACTH and Prolactin

162
Q

In lecture, an example was brought up of a woman born without a cerebellum having minimal symptoms and was overall fine, but another individual with a damaged cerebellum in adulthood would have had severe impairment. This vast difference in impairment could be attributed to:

A) Neural plasticity during development

B) Impaired gyrification

C) Brain redundancies

D) All options listed

A

A) Neural plasticity during development

163
Q

Adults who were exposed to the Dutch famine in-utero, were found to have higher rates of _________________ compared to the general population. This was especially true if exposure to the famine occurred during the __________ trimester of pregnancy.

A) Heart Disease; first

B) Depression; second

C) Schizophrenia; first

D) Diabetes; second

A

C) Schizophrenia; first

164
Q

If James has a tumour on his posterior pituitary gland which hormone would most likely be dysregulated?

A) Oxytocin

B) Prolactin

C) FSH

D) ACTH

A

A) Oxytocin

165
Q

Hormones mostly bind to…..

A) Ligand-gated ion channels

B) Ionotropic receptors

C) Metabotropic receptor (G-protein coupled receptors)

D) Excitatory receptor

A

C) Metabotropic receptor (G-protein coupled receptors)

166
Q

When faced with a bear, the sympathetic nervous system is activated leading to the “fight or flight” response. Which of the following is not part of this activation?

A) Sweating

B) Increased gut activity

C) Bladder relaxation

D) Bronchi relaxation

A

B) Increased gut activity

167
Q

Post synaptic potentials are ______, while action potentials are _____.

A) Graded, Quaternary

B) Quaternary, Graded

C) Graded, Binary

D) Binary, Graded

A

C) Graded, Binary

168
Q

________ act as scaffolds for ________ during the cortical development in which the layers of the cortex are established

A) Radial Neuron, Migrating Glia

B) Radial Glia, Migrating Glia

C) Radial Glia, Migrating Neurons

D) Radial Neuron, Migrating Neurons

A

C) Radial Glia, Migrating Neurons

169
Q

Acetylcholine acts as a _________ to bind to and activate the nicotinic acetyl receptor (nAChR)

A) Cleft

B) Ion

C) Protein

D) Ligand

A

D) Ligand

170
Q

Which of the following statements, regarding hormones, is NOT true?

A) Hormones promote proliferation, growth, and differentiation of cells

B) Hormones may modulate cell activities and cell metabolism

C) Hormones assist dopamine in crossing the blood brain barrier

D) Hormones may modulate negative feedback

A

C) Hormones assist dopamine in crossing the blood brain barrier

171
Q

The minimum voltage (____mv) needed to trigger an action potential is known as the threshold voltage.

A) -50

B) 75

C) 50

D) -75

A

A) -50

172
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of brain structures, going in order of evolutionary history (i.e., starting at the oldest brain region and on)?

A) Hippocampus, thalamus, occipital lobe

B) Brainstem, cortex, limbic system

C) Pons, amygdala, frontal lobe

D) Pons, hypothalamus, corpus callosum

A

C) Pons, amygdala, frontal lobe

173
Q

Chronic cocaine administration using the Intravenous Self-Administration model results in a(n) ___________________________ and the Resident-Intruder Paradigm results in a(n) __________________________.

A) Increase in histone methylation; increase in histone acetylation

B) Increase in histone acetylation; increase in histone methylation

C) Decrease in histone acetylation; increase in histone acetylation

D0 Decrease in histone methylation; decrease in histone methylation

A

B) Increase in histone acetylation; increase in histone methylation

174
Q

In DNA methylation, the methyl group attaches to:

A) Cytosine

B) Thymine

C) Adenine

D) Guanine

A

A) Cytosine

NEUR 1203 (3 decks)

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