Midsemester test Flashcards

1
Q

Difference between positive and clinical psychology

A

Traitional mental health wants to get rid of the illness
Positive focusses on living well and living with illness

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2
Q

SELIGMAN’S PERMA MODEL of wellbeing: 5 components

A

Positive emotions: how often do you feel happy, what makes you feel good.

Engagement: to what extend do you feel excited about things, what flow activities make you lose track of time

Relationships: Who brings you joy and support, to what extent do you feel loved

Meaning: what do you find worthwhile, do you feel what you do is worthwhile

Accomplishment: how often do you feel like you are achieving your goals

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3
Q

Subjective wellbeing

A

The experience of joy, contentment, or positive well-being, combined with a sense that one’s life is good, meaningful and worthwhile.

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4
Q

What are the features of someone with subjective wellbeing?

A

More:
- successful
- socially engaged
- more stable relationships
- creative
- better physical health
- better immune systems
- live longer

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5
Q

Subjective wellbeing: hedonic component

A

Experience of positive emotions and absence of negative emotions, life saatisfaction

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6
Q

subjective wellbeing: Eudaimonic component

A

psychological wellbeing, search and attainment of meaning, self-actualisation, and personal growth

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7
Q

In business settings, materialism ______ correlated with caring about corporate social responsibility and ______ correlated with interpersonally deviant workplace behaviours

A

negatively, positively

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8
Q

The big 5 personality dimensions

A
  1. extraversion (most associated with positive feelings)
  2. conscientiousness
  3. avoidance orientation
  4. agreeableness
  5. neuroticsm
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9
Q

Adaption

A

The fact that after people first react to good or bad events, sometimes in a strong way, their feelings and reactions tend to dampen down over time and they return toward their original level of subjective well-being.

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10
Q

Bottom-up

A

or external causes of happiness
Situational factors outside the person that influence his or her subjective well-being, such as good and bad events and circumstances such as health and wealth.

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11
Q

Happiness

A

The popular word for subjective well-being. Scientists sometimes avoid using this term because it can refer to different things, such as feeling good, being satisfied, or even the causes of high subjective well-being.

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12
Q

Life satisfaction

A

A person reflects on their life and judges to what degree it is going well, by whatever standards that person thinks are most important for a good life.

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13
Q

Negative feelings

A

Undesirable and unpleasant feelings that people tend to avoid if they can. Moods and emotions such as depression, anger, and worry are examples.

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14
Q

Positive feelings

A

Desirable and pleasant feelings. Moods and emotions such as enjoyment and love are examples.

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15
Q

Subjective well-being

A

The name that scientists give to happiness—thinking and feeling that our lives are going very well.

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16
Q

Subjective well-being scales

A

Self-report surveys or questionnaires in which participants indicate their levels of subjective well-being, by responding to items with a number that indicates how well off they feel.

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17
Q

Top-down

A

or internal causes of happiness
The person’s outlook and habitual response tendencies that influence their happiness—for example, their temperament or optimistic outlook on life.

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18
Q

Outlooks

A

how one sees the world
important internal cause of subjective wellbeing

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19
Q

What are mindtraps

A

impact bias - overestimate emotional impact of events
hedonic adaption - we get used to stuff
eaily misled
* Our minds judge based on (faulty) reference points
o A lot of our experiences and how we see the rest of the world is based on our experiences, or reference points
 E.g. if co-workers have a higher salary, you are less happy with your job (even after controlling for salary

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20
Q

Downward social comparison

A

when comparing oneslf with inferior others who have negative characteristics

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21
Q

Upward social comparison

A

occurs when comparing oneself with superior others who have positive characteristics

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22
Q

Hedonic adaption

A

become accustomed to both positive and negative stuff

even major events lose impact in less than 3 months, there is a standard pattern of affective dynamics

when bad stuff happens we think it is the end of the word - but we have these set points of happiness that we usually go back to

you learn a new reference point, things seem less extreme

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23
Q

the two big culprits of hedonic adaption

A

rising aspiration and social comparison

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24
Q

Impact bias

A

we tend to overestimate the emotional impact of things both in intensity and duration

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25
Q

Affective forecasting

A

we tend to exaggerate effects of positive or nagative events on our happiness.

people epect certain events to hurt them more then they end up doing

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26
Q

twarting hedonic adaption

A

Savouring: stepping outside experience to appreciate it
replaying: happy memories increases positive emotions over time
negative visualisation: what life would have been like without somethings, can rekindle a relationship
Gratitude
live each day as if it were your last

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27
Q

Growth mindset

A

fixed m would be someone who things intelligence is a stable and unchangeable trait - avoid challenged
a growth mindset is someone who sees failure as inevitable for progress, more likely to persist and take on challenges

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28
Q

What is flow

A

Mental state in which you’re performing an activity where you are fully immersed, where you feel energised, have a sense of control, strong sense of self, focused, you’re fully involved, and you’re enjoying it as you go

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29
Q

Characteristics of flow

A
  • complete concentration on task
  • sense of ecstacy
  • greater inner clarity
  • knowing activity is doable
    a sense of serenity
    timelessness
    intrinsic motivation
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30
Q

Signature strengths

A

using your top character strngths in new ways

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31
Q

savouring

A

taking time to savour the things you enjoy

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32
Q

graititude

A

expressing gratitude for the people and things in your life

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33
Q

kindess

A

increasing your acts kindness

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34
Q

social connection

A

making connections with strangers and acquaintances along with scheduling time for people in your life

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35
Q

exercise

A

increasing physical activity to at least 30 minutes a day

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36
Q

sleep

A

making sure you gget at least 7 hours of sleep

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37
Q

meditation

A

m for 5-10 minutes and increasing over time

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38
Q

change your diet

A

reduce UPF and increase F and V intake

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39
Q

Character strength

A

a positive trait or quality deemed to be morally good and is valued for iteslf as well as for promoting individual and collective well-being

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40
Q

flourishing

A

to live optimally, psychologically, relationally, and spiritually

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41
Q

forgiveness

A

letting go of negative thoughts, feelings and behaviours toward an offender

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42
Q

humility

A

having an accurate view of self-not too high or low- and a realistic appraisal of one’s strengths and weaknesses, especially in relation to other people

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43
Q

positive psychology

A

the science of human flourishing - an applied science with an emphasis on real world intervention

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44
Q

pro-social

A

thoughts, actions, and feelings that are directed towards others and which are positive in nature

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45
Q

three key strengths to make yourself happier

A

forgiveness, gratitude, and humility

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46
Q

Predator eyesight

A

tend to have frontal eyes to eye up prey
binocular vision
large areas that both eyes cover
- better depth perception, helps with locating prey

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47
Q

Perception is constructive

A

our brain makes assumptions we’re unaware of, think of duck rabbit example

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48
Q

Peception is selective

A

we don’t take in all the information in the environment, we take in the information we want

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49
Q

why is perception constructive and selective

A

predict future
classify objects when at an odd angle or partially obstructed
reduce processing load

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50
Q

____ lens required to focus a distant object on retina

A

Thin

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51
Q

___ lens required to focus nearby object on retina

A

thick

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52
Q

Normal vision

A

lens just right, object focused on the retina

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53
Q

Myopic

A

nearsighted
lens too thick or eyeball too long
distant object focused in front of retina

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54
Q

Hyperopic

A

farsighted
lens too thin or eyeball too short
close object would have been focussed behing the retina

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55
Q

Presbyopia

A

Presbyopia is a refractive error that makes it hard for middle-aged and older adults to see things up close. It happens because the lens (an inner part of the eye that helps the eye focus) stops focusing light correctly on the retina (a light-sensitive layer of tissue at the back of the eye)

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56
Q

Eyes as we age

A

lens loses elasticity, presbyopia, why many old people require glasses

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57
Q

Photoreceptors: rod

A

100 to 120 million
extremely sensitive
everywhere in retina except for the fovea, for vision in low light levels

helps in dim light, do not see wavelengths, cannot see colour

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58
Q

Photoreceptors: cones

A

three types
6 to 7 million
less sensitive to light
concentrated at the fovea
for vision under normal lighting conditions and for colour

can see wavelengths, allow us to see colour
not as sensitive as rods

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59
Q

Distribution of cones in the retina

A

high concentration at fovea - helps see fine details

blind spot, hole in our retina where the nere fibres exit the eye to the brain, no photoreceptors there

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60
Q

Distribution of rods in the retina

A

none at fovea or blind spot

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61
Q

Why don’t we notice blind spot

A

usually have both eyes open

brain is good at filling in information

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62
Q

Dark adaption curves

A

when walk into dark cinema, can’t see at first, over time vision becomes cleared

  1. Initially we rely on our cones
  2. but they are not sensitive, so we can see, but not in detail
  3. after 6 mins, they stop adapting, vision doesn’t get better
  4. rods kick in, see more details
  5. best in the para-fovea because the fovea does not have any rods
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63
Q

__ are mostly responsible for processing light when photons are scarce

A

rods, but takes time to replenish the visual prigment that rods require for photoactivation

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64
Q

under bright conditions, ___ are quickly bleached

A

rods, when cones become useful because they canno tdeal with the constant barrage of photons

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65
Q

in bright light ___ are bleached, takes 30 minutes in dimmer environment for them to recover

A

rods

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66
Q

___ require more photons to fire and their photopigments replenish much faster than ___ photopigments, allowing them to keep up when photons are abundant

A

cones, rods

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67
Q

Contrast gain

A

the visual system dertimines the mean contrast in a scene and represents values around that mean contrast best, while ifnoring smaller contrast differences

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68
Q

Lateral inhibition - interaction between neurons

A

Lateral inhibition refers to the capacity of excited neurons to reduce the activity of their neighbors. Neurons that are firing inhibit the stimulation of surrounding. Accordingly, only the neurons that are most stimulated and least inhibited respond.

E.g., A is darker than B, so A said not as much inhibition to B compared to the inhibition sent by B at the other side, so the border between B and C there is more inhibition, which is why the part looks a little bit darker

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69
Q

Importance of contrast

A

important because your neurons go out of their way not only to encode differences in light but to exaggerate those differences for you so you don’t miss them - this is lateral inhibition

when a neuron fires in response to light: produces two signals
- output signal: pass on to the next level in vision
- lateral signal: to inhibit all neurons that are next to it

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70
Q

3 types of cones:

A

s, m and l

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71
Q

s-cone:

A

those most sensitive to short wavelengths, these cones are more sensitive to wavelengths we typically perceive as blue

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72
Q

m-cone:

A

most sensitive to the medium wavelengths like green

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73
Q

l-cone:

A

long wavelengths, orange/red

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74
Q

Shades of grey, white and black:

A

means the surgace reflects about equally all visible wavelength, reflectance is very high

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75
Q

why do we see a tomato as red

A

they refract the light at the longer portion of the spectrum, a spectral reflectance,

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76
Q

Trichromatic theory of colour vision: Young-Helmholtz theory

A

ability to distinguish wavelengths depends on the operation of three different kinds of cone receptors (the s, m and l cones)

At its most basic, the Young-Helmholtz trichromatic theory states that within your eye are tiny cells that can receive waves of light and translate them into one of three colors: blue, green, and red. These three colors can then be combined to create the entire visible spectrum of light as we see it.

perceived colour is based on the relative amount of activity in the three cones

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77
Q

the opponent process theory: Hering theory

A

colour vision is caused by opposing responses generated by 3 pairs: blue v yellow, green v red, and black v white

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78
Q

monocular visual cues

A

occlusion/interposition: when an object covers another, helps with depth

relative height: mountains taller than flowers, but smaller in horizon

texture gradient

linear perspective

aspects of a scene that yield info about depth when viewed with only one eye

often called pictorial depth cues because it works even in 2d images

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79
Q

why sun and moon look the same size

A

we don’t have any depth cues, brain cannot infer the actual distance

just has to rely on the size of the image on the retina, large and far away sun = close smaller moon

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80
Q

binocular disparity

A

the magnitude of the disparity reveals how far the object is from fization

Binocular disparity is the difference in image between the two eyes, think when you focus on something in front of you like a finger and close one eye then the other, it appears that the object moves.

Binocular depth cues exist because we have stereoscopic vision: having space between our eyes means that each eye registers a slightly different view of the world

  • The closer the object you’re looking at, the great the BD – the difference in retinal images of the two eyes that provides information about depth
  • You brain computes the disparity between the two retinal images to perceive how far away objects are, as shown above.
  • This idea was first discussed by Charles Wheatstone in 1839
  • This is why we see the world in three dimensions, because our eyes are a distance apart and the image of an object falls on the retina of each eye at a slightly different place. The disparity in the positions of the object’s retinal images provides a compelling cue to depth
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81
Q

motion based on depth cues

A

motion parallex = a depth cue based on the movement over time - in car, objects in distance appear to move slower

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82
Q

Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping:

A

“perception of the whole is more than simply the sum on individual parts” - our vision system constantly organising things
muliple principles for how we do this: proximity, similarity, pragnanz, good continuation, common fate

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83
Q

proximity vision

A

things near eachother get groups

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84
Q

similarity vision

A

similar elements get groups together, like orientation or colour

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85
Q

pragnanz: good figure, simplicity

A

everything seen as simple as possible, e.g. olympics logo, see as occluding circles, not a bunch of different shapes stuck together

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86
Q

Good continuation

A

regions appear to follow in the same contours grouped together: a rectangle with its middle occluded by a square, assumed the recatangle continues behind the square and out the other side

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87
Q

common fate

A

things that move together seen as belonging together

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88
Q

separating figure from ground

A

face and vase example, we segregate figure and background

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89
Q

ventral pathway

A

involved in what, perception of colour and form
o Many of these computations occur in specialized brain areas. For instance, an area called MT processes global-motion information; the parahippocampal place area identifies locations and scenes; the fusiform face area specializes in identifying objects for which fine discriminations are required, like faces. There is even a brain region specialized in letter and word processing. These visual-recognition areas are located along the VENTRAL PATHWAY of the brain (also known as the What pathway).

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90
Q

dorsal pathway:

A

invonved in the perception of movement, location, and how to make a movement to respond to or interact with an object

DORSAL PATHWAY (or Where-and-How pathway) will compute information about self- and object-motion, allowing you to interact with objects, navigate the environment, and avoid obstacles (Goodale and Milner, 1992).

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91
Q

Vestibulo-ocular reflex

A

when your head moves in one direction, your eyes reflecively move in the opposite direction to compensate, allowing you to maintain your gaze on the object you are looking at
it is achieved by integrating information from both the visual and the vestibular system

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92
Q

Synaesthesia:

A

occurs when one signal gives rise to two or more sensations - the most common type is grapheme-colour synaethesia

about 1 in 200 individuals experience a sensation of colour associated with specigic letter, numbers or words

some can include taste and colour or music and colour, like this chicken tastes green

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93
Q

perceptual constancy

A

even as aspects of sensory signals change, perception remains consitent

94
Q

Cones

A

photoreeptors that operate in lightened environments and can encode find visual details.

there are three different kinds (S or blue, M or green, and L or red) that are each sensitive to slightly different types of light.

Combined, these three types of cones allow you to have colour vision

95
Q

contrast gain

A

process where the sensitivity of your visual system can be tuned to be most sensitive to the levels of contrast that are most prevalent in the environment

96
Q

contrast

A

relative difference in the amount and type of light coming from two nearby locations

97
Q

dark adaption

A

process that allows you to become sensitive to very small levels of light, so that you can actually see in the near absence of light

98
Q

lateral inhibition

A

a signal produced by a neuron aimed at suppressing the response of nearby neurons

99
Q

opponent process theory

A

theory of colour vision that assumes there are gour different basic colours, organised into two pairs (red/green and blue/yellow) and proposes that colours in the world are encoded in terms of opponency (or difference) between the colours in each pair

there is an additional black/white pair responsible for coding light contrast

100
Q

photoactivation

A

a photochemical reaction that occurs when when light hits photoreceptors, producing a neural signal

101
Q

primary visual cortex (V1)

A

brain region located in the occupital cortex (toward the back of the head) responsible for processing basic visual information like the detection, thickness, and orientation of simple lines, colour and small-scale motion

102
Q

rods

A

photoreceptors that are very sensitive to light and mostly responsible for night vision

103
Q

synesthesia

A

the blending of two or more sensory experiences, or the automatic activiation of a sexondary (indirect) sensory experience due to certain aspects of the primary (direct) sensory stimulation

104
Q

Trichromacy theory

A

theory proposes that all of you colour perception is fundamentally based on the combination of three different colour signals

105
Q

vestibulo-occular reflex

A

coordination of motion information with visual information that allows you to maintain your gaze with an object while you move

106
Q

what pathway

A

pathway of neural processing in the brain that is responsible for your ability to recognise what is around you

107
Q

where-and-how

A

pathway of neral processing in the brain that is responsible for you knowing where things are in the world and how to interact with them

108
Q

a visual scene can be separated into two parts:

A

the figure, which is the object that commands our attention, and the ground which seems ot exist as a backdrop behind the object

109
Q

The speedometer in a car has a black background with white numbers, and an orange pointer that indicates the speed at which you are driving. What process explains how your brain sees that orange hand?

A

Your brain assess the contrast in the light coming from the orange hand and the light coming from the back background.

110
Q

The first stop in the cortex to begin the ____ process of turning neural signals into usable information occurs in the primar visual cortex, also known as V1

A

reconstruction

111
Q

when to use bar graph

A

where there are discrete bars apart from each other

because of categorical variable green is not involved with purple, they are completely seperate variables

112
Q

histogram

A

opposite of bar, where there is a continuous variabel. live the number of bags and the number of purple planes in each bag

113
Q

central tendency

A

a single value that describes the centre of a data distribution
mean (average): sum of all the numbers in a dataset, divided by the number of repsonses
median: middle number if you line up the numbers in a dataset from smallest to largest
mode: most popular value that appeared in the data set

114
Q

mode

A

Not affected by extreme values

Good for categorical variables

Will always be a real value of category

Possible to have two modes (bimodal) or no mode

BUT: there are some circumstances where the mode doesn’t make sense, the jet plane example is good because it is a categorical variable, especially when you compared to median or mode where there are decimal numbers
Better for nominal data (i.e., categorical variables

115
Q

mean

A

basis of most statistical tests
can change greatly due to addition of expreme variables

better when data is ‘normally’ distributed

116
Q

median

A

not affected by extreme values

better when data is skewed

117
Q

normal distribution

A

mean, median, and mode are the same mode, d is symmetrical around the value of central tendencies

118
Q

Research: descriptive approaches

A

describes tendencies in people’s thoughts, feelings and behaviours

like a public opinion survey, achival studies, observational studies

119
Q

Research: correlational designs

A

examines the relationship between two variables

negative, zero and positive

correlation does not equal causation

120
Q

experimental designs

A

examines cause and effect between variables

o Involves random assignment of participants between experimental conditions
o Researcher maintains control over the experimental procedure
o Only design that allows us to establish causality

121
Q

observational stidu

A

e.g. smoking and long term effects

122
Q

correlation studies:

A

no groups or experiments, just viewing

123
Q

experimental study

A

introduce intervention and study events - e.g., drug testing with placebo

124
Q

quasi-experimental

A

don’t allocate people to groups

no random assignment of conditions

instead rely on existing group memberships and treat them as independent variable

more observational

125
Q

difference between experiment and quasi-experimental

A

 Judging two professors on their students’ final grades. Here, the independent variable is the professor and the dependent variable is the students’ grades
 In an experimental design, you would randomly assign students to one of the two professors
 But this isn’t realistic in real life, so researchers would need to use pre-existing classes
 This can affect results. Some students may have chosen one professor because they heard they gave out better grades, whereas the other class sets higher standards, more smart people might go to the latter

126
Q

cofounds

A

factors that undermine the ability to draw causal inferences from an experiment

127
Q

correlation

A

measures the association between two variables, or how they go together

128
Q

dependent variable

A

the varaible the researcher measures but does not manipulate in an experiment

129
Q

experimenter expectations

A

when the experimenter’s expectations influence the outcome of a study

130
Q

independent variable

A

the variable the researcher manipulates and controls in an experiment

131
Q

longitudinal study

A

a study that follows the same groups of individuals over time

132
Q

operational definition

A

how researchers specifically measure a concept

133
Q

participant demand

A

when participants behave in a way they think their experimenter wants them to behave

134
Q

placebo effect

A

when receiving special treatment or something new affects human behaviour

135
Q

quai-experimental design

A

an experiment that does not require random assignment to conditions

136
Q

central limit theorem

A

as the size of the sample increases, the sample distribution of the mean will get closer to a normal distribution
the sample mean will start to approach the population mean

137
Q

correlational analysis

A

used to compare the relationship between two continuous variables

The correlation coefficient R, between -1 and 1, are calculated from standard deviations

between 0 and 1, indivation of strength and relationship

138
Q

positive and negative correlation

A

positive: as one variable goes up, so does the other, linear correlations

opposite for negative

0=0 no correlation

139
Q

behaviour repertoire

A

set of behaviours containing everything you do:
- responses to different situations
- habits and activity patterns
- skills and abilities
- problem solving and language etc.

It is not physical or biological attributes

140
Q

Diversity of behaviour repertoire

A

between species and between individuals of the same species, like age and cultural differences

141
Q

sources of variability in the behaviour repertoire

A

biological/phsyiological factors
- hormones
- effects of brain or other injury
- drugs

Developmental processes
- emergent behaviours in infants, like smiles
- leads to “stage theories of cognitive development, e.g., Piaget

Experience
- individual’s history of interaction with physical and social world - learning
- experience changes the behaviour repertoire

142
Q

Kinds of behaviour in the behaviour repertoire

A

Respondent behaviour
Operant behaviour

143
Q

Respondent behaviour

A

involuntary or reflex behaviour, we don’t have much control over it

pulled out of you -> elicited by events (stimuli) in the environment

when respondent behaviour systems go awry, often see emotional or psychophysiological stress disorders

144
Q

operant behaviour

A

voluntary rather than automatic
operants are behaviours you emit, - you use them to operate on the world

when operant behaviour system go awry, we often see inappropriate, deviant, or damaging maladaptive behaviour

145
Q

adding new operant behaviours

A

we learn new operant behaviours in three ways
- observation
- trial and error
- “shaping” - giving old behaviour new form

these are called acquisition processes

146
Q

Differences between respondent and operant behaviour

A

Respondent:
- Elicited by a stimulus
- Is the result of a stimulus in the environment
- Controlled by prior eliciting stimuli
- Involuntary/reflexive
- Research founder: Ivan Pavlov -> Pavlovian

Operant:
- Emitted by the individual
- Produces a result (consequence) in the - environment
- Controlled by the results (consequences) produced
- Voluntary (although reasons why might be subconscious)
- Research founder: E.L Thorndike & B.F Skinner

147
Q

Observational learning

A

also called social learning
Involves at least two individuals:

  • the model: already has a particular behaviour
  • the observer/learner: does not have behaviour, but gets it through OL

observation and experience of consequences as well as observation is important to what is learned

148
Q

Who do we imitate?

A

Imitated:
- clear performance
- similarity
- emotionally responsive
- high social status

Less imitated:
- unclear performance
- dissimilar to learner
- unresponsive
- low social status

149
Q

What things do we learn through observation

A

addiction
phobias
moral judgments and behaviours
steroptypes/prejudice
problem solving
violent and aggressive behaviour
Also used in behaviour therapies

150
Q

Trial and error learning

A

learning through direct experience of bejaviour an consequence

E.L Thorndike and other early 20th century researchers used devices such as mazes and puzzle boxes

Disadvantages:
- slow, tedious
- haphazard and unreliable
- risk of frustration, and that the task becomes aversive
- reduce chance of success

But we still do a lot through trial and error

151
Q

acquisition process

A

remember that we learn new operant bejaviours in three ways:
- observation
- trial and error
- “shaping” - giving behaviour new form

152
Q

Shaping by successive approximations

A

stepwise progression from current behaviour to required behaviour
- step are called successive approximations

shapes the required behaviour by:
1. selecting instances that more resemble the required behaviour
2, rewarding these repeatedly until they become common
3. revising the selection criteria to select an even close “approximation” to the required behaviour

153
Q

maintaining and strengthening behaviour

A

once a behaviour has been added to the repertoire how is it maintained?

Two processes:
Practice
Reinforcement

154
Q

reinforcement

A

means to strengthen
what does strength of behaviour mean?

  • behaviour persists in the repertoire
  • reaction time improves
  • frequency of performance increases
  • accuracy improves, errors reduce
  • duration of correct performance increases
  • behaviour resists disruption/distraction
155
Q

reinforcement and punishment

A

there are four primary processes that have an impact on the strength of our behaviour

these 4 processes are distinguished by two dimensions that we can objectively observe:
1. the consequence of a behaviour (experience)
2. the subsequent effect on behaviour (learning

156
Q

The consequence of bejaviour with reinforcement and punishment and positive and negative stimuli

A

page 5

157
Q

token economy

A
  • an example of a very effective behaviour therapy based on reinforcement
  • problem: people with behaviour repertoires low in appropriate social behaviours (psych patients and offenders)
  • solution: reinforce appropriate behaviour with tokens, which can then be exchanged for reinforcers (perferred activities, consumable etc.)
158
Q

what makes for an effective positive reinforcer?

A

higher quanity
higher quality
less of a delay between behaviour and reinforcer
higher frequencer (of responses or reinforcers)
intermittent reinforcement (not receiving a reinforcer every time)

159
Q

negative reinforcement

A

strengthens and maintains escape and avoidance behaviour
- unlike positive r which strengthens approach and engagement bejaviour

Innapropriate escape/avoidance underlies many maladaptive behaviours e.g.,
- anxiety and eating disorders
- substance use
- social aggression
- emotinal repression

160
Q

Weakening or removing behaviours from the repertoire: two methods of behaviour reduction/removal

A

extinction and punishment

161
Q

extinction

A

requires us to:
- identify the reinforcing event
- stop it from occuring

Extinction is the effect of having no consequences
- only if there is a history of previous reinforcement

can be gradual or rapid

162
Q

factors that cause high extinction resistance

A

large quantity of past reinforcement

better quality of past reinforcement

intermittent reinforcement

variablility of past reinforcement

163
Q

post-extinction burst

A

one temporary side effect of extinction where it jumps higher than it was before extinction

164
Q

spontaneous recover

A

suddenly occurs every now and then

165
Q

punishment

A

either adding or removing something with the result being suppression of behaviour

social attention in giving punishment may be reinforcing

166
Q

Problems with punishment

A

strong emotional reactions - interfere with learning

adaption and escalation - punishment intensity grows out of control

167
Q

a learning process that occurs when two ____ are repeatedly paired: a response which is at first _____ by the second ____ is eventually elicited by the first stimulus alone

A

stimuli, elicited, stimulus

Dog experiment, first had bell and food, then only bell made it salivate

168
Q

effects that increase behaviours are called ____; effects that decrease behaviours are called _____

A

reinforcers, punishers

169
Q

classical/pavlovian conditions

A

Ivan Pavlov - a theory of learning and identity

Unconditioned stimulus (US, the food) elecits and unconditioned response (UR, the dog drooling)

Condition stimulus (ringing the bell, meant nothing to the dog beforehand) produces a conditioned response (starts to drool when bell rung)

170
Q

conditioned response

A

almost always the same as the unconditioned response

But it is called conditioned because it is conditional on (or depends on) being paired with the conditioned stimulus (e.g., the bell)

171
Q

taste aversion conditioning

A

flavour associated with illness or stomach pain becomes disliked

172
Q

fear conditioning

A

people associate cures with panic or other emotional trauma

173
Q

conditioned compensatory response

A
  • person takes meds for pain
  • body learns that the drug is coming soon
  • makes them more sensitive to pain anticipating the drug will take care ot
  • decreases the impact of the drug on the body
  • become tolerant to the drug
  • overdose is usually not due to an increase in dosage, but to taking the drug in a new place without familiar cues - which would have otherwise allowed the user to toerate the drug

cause discomfort, motivating the drug user to continue usage of the drug to reduce them

174
Q

operant conditioning

A

when a behaviour, as opposed to a stimulus, is associated with the occurrence of a signinficant event

rat: rat finds that pulling lever results in food

the food pellets serve as a reinforcer because they sterngthen the rat’s desire to engage with the environment in a particular manner

looks at how effects of bejaviour will affect likelihood of doing it again

According to Thorndike’s law of effect: when a behaviour has a positive/satisfying effect or consequence, it is more likely to be repeated and vice versa.

175
Q

classical/pavlovian v instrumental/operant conditioning

A

CC: animal beaves as if it has learned to associate a stimulus with a significant event

OC: animal bejaves as if it has learned to associate a behaviour with a significant event

In response to classical situation (salivation) is elicited by a stimulus that comes before it

whereas the response in the operant case is not elicited by any stimulus -> instead, o responses are emitted

the word emmitted conveys the idea that operant bejaviours are essentially voluntary in nature

176
Q

Blocking

A

a phenomenon where a previously learned association blocks the conditioning of a second stimulus
e.g. dog experiment, next bring in a light, but the dog blocks this because they already associate with the bell

B and other related effects indivate that the learning process tends to take in the most valid predictors of significant events and ignore the less useful ones

177
Q

Prediction error

A

to learn something through classical conditionig, there must be some PE, or the chance that a conditioned stimulus won’t lead to a specigic outcome

178
Q

Classical conditioning is strongest if the conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulis are intense or salient

A

best if they are relatively new to the animal

especially strong if the organism’s biology has prepared it to associate particular CS and US
- like rats and humans are naturally inclined to associate an illness with a flavour, rather than with a light or tone

this is so we avoid foods that make us feel ill, an evolutionary process called preparedness

179
Q

Erasing classical learning

A

after conditioning, the response to the CS can be eliminated if the CS is presented repeatedly without the US - this is called extinction, and the response is said to become extinguished

sometimes pops back up called spontaneous recovery, following lapse of exposure, re-exposure can evoke the CR again

Renewal effect: if the CS is tested in a new context after extinction, like a different location, the CR can also return
- especially when it is somewhere yo would not expect -> suggests extinction inhibits rather than erases the learned behaviour

180
Q

perceptual learning

A

auditory learning

think of when you are listening to music, your brain’s response to auditory information changes with your experience with that information

181
Q

implicit learning

A

each time we listen to music, we hear it differently because of our experience.

when we exhibit changes in behaviour without having intended to learn somethingt that is called implicit learning

and when we exhibit changes in our bejaviour that reveal the incluence of past experience even though we are not attempting to use that experience is called implicit memory

Jae sings along to a song she has only heard once when it was on in the background. Her knowledge of the lyrics is an example of ______.
* Implicit memory is a type of long-term memory that is not conscious or intentional. It refers to the unconscious influence of past experiences on current behavior, such as skills and habits that we have learned through repeated practice, as well as our general knowledge of the world.

182
Q

nonassociative learning

A

look for a change in our responses to things when we are repeatedly stimulated
- clock sound initially annoying, but you start to not notice it over time
-

In which a single repeated exposure leads to a change in behaviour
- Habituation: our response lessens with exposure
- sensitisation: our response increases ‘

Animals can also learn about relationships between things, such as when an alley cat learns that the sound of janitors working in a restaurant precedes the dumping of delicious new garbage (an example of stimulus-stimulus learning called classical conditioning), or when a dog learns to roll over to get a treat (a form of stimulus-response learning called operant conditioning)

occurs when a single repeated exposure to a stimulus leads to a change in behaviour

183
Q

learners

A

able to allocate more effort to learning prioritised over unimportant materials

184
Q

working memory capacity

A

relevant to learners
the form of memory we use to hold onto information temporarily
- higher scores on working memory measures are predictive of better reasoing skills, reading comprehension, and better control of attention

185
Q

anxiety affects the quality of learning

A

people with anxiety have smaller capacity for working memory

186
Q

expertise

A

there is not a finite capacity for us to store information

the usual bottleneck to remember is that it is our ability to access information, not our space to store it

having more knowledge or expertise enhances our ability to learn more information

expertise allows one to chunk mulitple pieces into a smaller number of pieces of information-but only when that informaiton was structured in such a way as to allow the application of that expertise

187
Q

encoding activities

A

how we go about encoding information determines a lot about how we remembers

Incidental learning - learning without the intention to learn
is better than intentional learning

188
Q

advantages for learning

A

better to space out repitiation

interleaving multiple skills to be learned

retrival is one of the most powerful ways of enhacing learning

189
Q

value of effective metacognition

A

M describes the knowledge and skills people have in monitoring and controlling their own learning and memory

we can acquire better m by paying attention to our successes and failures in estimating what we do and don’t know - helps monitor our progress

estimate what we do and don’t know

190
Q

transfer appropriate processing

A

states that memory is better when the test taps the same type of knowledge as the original encoding activity

need to learn material in same way we would use them

an emergency responder who needs to access learned procedures under stress should learn differently from a hobbyist learning to use a new camera

191
Q

the value of forgetting

A

important to jettison information not needed so brain does not become cluttered

evidence shows that some forgetting is a prerequisite for more learning

192
Q

blocking

A

in classical conditioning

no conditioning occurs to a stimulus if it is combined with a previously conditioned stimulus during conditioning trials.

suggests that information, suprise value, or prediction error is important in conditioning

193
Q

classical conditioning

A

procedure in which an initially neutral stimulus (the condition stimulus) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus

the result is that the conditioned stimulus beings to elicit a conditioned response

CC is nowadays considered an important as both a behavioural phenomenon and as a method to study simple associative learning

same as pavlovian conditioning

194
Q

conditioned compensatory response

A

in CC, a CR that opposes, rather than is the same as, the unconditioned response.

functions to reduce the strength of the UR

often seen in conditioning when drugs are used as unconditioned stimuli

195
Q

conditioned response CR

A

the response that is elicited by the conditioned stimulus after classical conditioning has taken place

196
Q

conditioned stimulus CS

A

an initially neutral stimulus like a bell or light that elicits a conditioned response after it has been associated with an unconditioned stimulus

197
Q

discriminative stimulus

A

in operant conditioning, a stimulus that signals whether the response will be reinforced. It is said to “set the occasion” for the operant response

every time the instructor says “to summarise today’s lesson” her students start packing up their notebooks. the students have learned this phrase as a discriminative stimulus.

198
Q

extinction

A

decrease in the strength of a learned behaviour that occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus (in classical conditioning) or when the behaviour is no longer reinforced (in instrumental conditioing

the term describes both the procedure as well as the result of the procedure

behaviours that have been reduced in strength through extinction are said to be “extinguished”

199
Q

fear conditioning

A

a type of calssical or pavlovian conditioning in which the conditioned stimulus is associated with an aversive unconditioned stimulus

as a consequence of learning, the CS comes to evoke fear - thought to be involved in the development of anxiety disorders in humans

200
Q

goal-directed behaviour

A

instrumental behaviour that is influenced by the animal’s knowledge of the association between the bejaviour and its consequence and the current value of the consequence.

sensitive to the reinforcer devaluation effect

201
Q

habit

A

instrumental behaviour that occurs automatically in the presence of a stimulus and is no longer influenced by the animal’s knowledge of the value of the reinforcer.

insensitive to the reinforcer devaluation effect

202
Q

Devaluation effect

A

Distractor devaluation effect is an attentional inhibition that occurs during discrimination tasks leads to the negative evaluation of distractor stimuli.

203
Q

instrumental conditioning

A

process in which animals learn about the relationship between their bejajviours and their consequences. also known as operant conditioning

204
Q

law of effect

A

the idea that instrumental or operant responsese are influenced by their effects

responses that are followed by a pleasant state of affairs will be strengthened and those that are followed by discomfort will be weakened

nowadays, the term refers to the idea that operant or instrumental bejaviours are lawfully controlled by their consequences

205
Q

Biological determination of crime studies

A

twin studies, cross fostering, sibling concourdances

strong suggestion of genetic factors - especially difficult termperament like sensation seeking, low self control etc. and under functioning limbic system and PFC

also traumatic brain injury

but expression of genetics often requires environmental triggers

206
Q

learning criminal behaviour

A

all behaviour is learned

reinforcement and punishment
- called density of rewards and costs
- what is a reward and cost will differ between individuals

observationsal learning

leardning also has a part to play in desistence
- as rewards for non crim increase, person has more to lose

207
Q

risk-need-responsivity framework for offender rehabilitiation

A

Risk principle: treatment intensity should match offender’s risk of reoffending

need principle: treatment should target dynamic risk factors associated with sex offending

responsibity principle: treatment should be delivered in a manner most responsive to offender’s learning styal and to minimise individual responsivity varriers

208
Q

offender risk

A

measured using structures risk assessment tools, applied by a trained clinician

sexual offending offence rate
- an estimated 15-20% of sexual offenders against children will re-offend over a 10 year period
- this means most aren’t reconvicted
- most sexual offenders require low-medium intensity treatment

209
Q

Statis-99R coding form

A

positions offenders in terms of their relative degree of risk for sexual recidivism

210
Q

need principle

A

treatment targets based on theories about the casuses of crime, or on factors that predict recidivism - called criminogenic needs

many programmes target the central 9 factors

needs are generally consistent across different kinds of offenders, although there are some excpetions e.g., sexual offending

211
Q

treatment targets for sexual offenders

A

sexual deviancy
emotional identification with children
antisocial origentation
general self-regulation difficulties
some factors have no relationship with offending:
- lack of victim empathy
- denial or minimisation of offending
- lack of motivation for treatment

212
Q

responsivity principle

A

deliver treatment in a way that is most effective for clients
- will depend on things like cognitive functioning, developmental stage, previous trauma, and cultural factors

best response is to CBT programmes
- focus on skill acquisition
- delivered by trained staff often in groups
- use the principles of observational learning and reingorcement/punishment

213
Q

PCL-R

A

checklist used in interview and file record information to diagnose patients

two factors:

1: reflects the affective and interpersonal features of psychopathy -> this factor reflects the psychopath’s verbal and interpersonal style

2: reflects social deviant behaviours that have been labelled chronically unstable and antisocial lifestyle -> the items that define the factor predominately depend on identifying the occurence of specific behaviours, most often using the inmate’s file

214
Q

validity of psychopathy

A

PCLR score linked to offending - largely because of factor 2, factor 1 scores are not as strongly related with offending - if at all

so psychopathy is seen as a risk factor for crime

215
Q

dangers of the psychopathy label

A

suppose you have been diagnosed - you know you experience empathy for some people in some situations and you have expressed it at times. but your diagnosis sayys you lack the capacity to feel this. This diagnosis must be wrong
but based on your diagnosis, what do others think of you

216
Q

Rosenhan on being sane in insane places

A

patients forcefully told they were mentally ill when they were perfectly fine

217
Q

Julius Koch

A

introduced the disease-oriented term of P to convey the idea that conditions of this type had a strong consitutional-heritable basis

218
Q

Hervey cleckley

A

described p as depp rooted emotional pathology concealed by an outward appearance of good menal health

he quationed whether violence should be considered a primary characterisitc of psychopathy

he provided 16 diagnostic criteria distilled from his clinical case summaries, encompassing indicators of apparent psychological stability along with symptoms of behavioural deviance and impaired affect and social connectness

saw that they were not necessary violent or dangerous - more often caused nonphysical harm by being self-centeredness not viciousness

219
Q

McCord v Cleckley

A

M described the condition in more general pathologic terms, highlighting guiltnessness and lovelessness as centreal defining features

C orginally was the standard for DSM on the subject, but in the third edition his conception of psychopathy was replaced by antisocial personality disorder

  • defined by specific indicants of behavioural deviancy in childhoos that followed into adulthood
220
Q

5th edition DSM

A

Now includes a new dimensional treait approach to characterising persoality pathology

focuses more on interpersonal traits rahter than deviant behaviour

221
Q

psychopathy in adult criminals

A

most widely used diagnosis tool is the PCLR
- effectively captures the interpersonal-affective deficites and behavioural deviance features indentified by Cleckyley
- but include only limited, indirect covreage of positive adjustment features
- manual suggests to use a cut off score of 30 out of 40 for assigning a diagnosis of psychopathy
- high scores are associated with impulsive and aggressive tendencies, low empathy, lock of social, persistent violent offening - more like the predatory aggressive conception of McCord than to Cleckley

222
Q

PCLR items reveal distinct interpersonal-affective and antisocial deviance subdimensions (factors) - although moderately correlated, these factors show ontrasting relations with external criterion measure

A

the interpersonal-affective factor
- relates to indices of nacissim, low empathy and proactive agreession, high social assertiveness and low fear, distress and depression

high scores on the antisocial deviance factor by contrast, are associated mainly with maladaptive tendencies and bejaviours, including impulsiveness, sensation seeking etc.

223
Q

criminal psychopathy has been characterised into two variants

A

primary - bold disinhibited
secondary - disinhibited mean

both based on anxiety levels

224
Q

psychopathy in noncriminal adults

A

mostly assessed on a self report basis

PPI tool used - coheres to two distinguishable factors: a fearless dominance factor (reflecting social potency, stress immunity and fearlnessness) and a self centred impulsivity factor (reflecting egocentricity, exploitativveness, hostile rebelliousness and lack of planning

Unlike PCLR, PPI factors are uncorrelated

225
Q

callous=unemotional ysed ti describe youth who show symptoms that may indicate psychopathic tendencies

A

DSM-5 classifies childhoos psychopathology as a conduct disorder

226
Q

different inventories exist for assessing psychopathic tendencies in young

A

best known consist or rating based measures developed, using the PCLR, ti udebtuft ostcgioatgt

emphasis in work of this type for predicting greater severity and persistence of current problem

  • termed callous-unemotional traits, these features enompass: low empathy, deficient remorse of guilt, shallow affect, and lack of concern about performance in school

one popular method is Antisocial process screening device for ages 6-13 - has two distinct factors

227
Q

core ingredients of psychopathyL disinhibition, boldness and meanness

A

triarchic model - conceives of psychopathy as encompassing three separable symptomatic components - viewed as thematic building blocks for different conceptions of psychopathy

disinhibition:
- encompasses tendencies toward impulsiveness, weak behavioural restraint, hostility and mistrust, and difficulties regulating emotion

meanness:
- entails deficient empathy, lack of affiliative capacity, contempt toward others, predatory exploitativeness, and emopowerment through cruelty and destructiveness

referents for disinihibition and meanness include the finding of distinct ICP and CU factors in the child psychopathy literature and corresponding evidence for distinct disinhibitory and callous-aggression factors underlying impulse control problem in adult

boldness: encompasses dominance, social assurance, amotional resiliency, and venturesomeness

228
Q

from the perspective of the triarchic model

A

Cleckley’s conception of psychopathy empahsized boldness and disinhibition

whereas criminally oriengtated conceptions including the PCLR and APSD emphasize meannes and disinibition more so

229
Q

according to the model

A

individuals high in disinhibitory tendencies would warrant a diagnosis of psychopathy -> if also high in bordless or meanness (or both), but individuals high in only one of these tendencies would not

Must be disinhibitory and boldness or meanness

230
Q

anti social personality disorder

A

counterpart diagnosis to psychopathy

defined by specific symptoms of behavioural deviancy in childhoos continuiing into adulthood

231
Q

psychopathy

A

synonymous with psychopathic personality, the term used by Cleckley, and adapted from the term psychopathic introsuxde by Koch to designate mental disorders presumed to be heritable.

232
Q

triarchic model

A

model formulated to reconcile alternative historic conceptions of psychopathy and differing methods for assessing it. conceives of pyschopathy as encompassing three symptomatic components: boldness, involving social efficacy, emotional resiliency, and venturesomenesss, meannes, and dishingibition