MiDie Flashcards

1
Q

Blood Culture Growth

thick pellicle forms on the surface of medium with hemolysis

A

Bacillus species
Saprophytic fungi (Candida caligans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Blood Culture Growth

Less gas but with foul odor

A

Bacteroides species (B. fragilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Blood Culture Growth

Marked hemolysis with unpleasant odor and gas under pressure

A

Clostridium species (C.pefringens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Blood Culture Growth

Turbid with marked hemolysis of blood

A

Beta hemolytic — Streptococci species (S. pyogenes, S.agalactiae)
E. faecalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Blood Culture Growth

Less distinct turbidity with greenish tint

A

Alpha hemolytic
S.pneumoniae
N.meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Blood Culture Growth

No change in the medium only by sub-culturing on chocolate

A

Haemophilus species (H.influenzae)
–smallest coccobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Blood Culture Growth

Uniformly turbid medium with gas bubbles

A

Gram negative rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Blood Culture Growth

Large jelly-like coagulum throughout broth

A

S.aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Blood Culture Growth

Cotton ball colonies on top of sedimented red cell with clear upper layer of broth

A

Non hemolytic
Streptococci species (S.bovis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Duration of Culture of Bacteremia & Septicemia

A

5-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Culture medium for Bacteremia & Septicemia

A

Aerobic or anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Culture medium of Brucellosis in blood culture

A

Brucella Broth or Wisconsin Medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Duration of culture for Brucellosis in blood

A

3 to 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Culture medium for Leptospirosis in Blood culture

A

Fletchers medium

EMJH- Ellinghansen McCullough Johnson Harris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Leptospirosis duration of culture

A

5 to 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Neutralizers for sulfonamides antibiotic

A

Para amino benzoic acid/PABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Neutralizers for tetracycline antibiotic

A

MAGNESIUM SULFATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ratio of blood to culture medium

A

1:10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Characteristic of blood anticoagulant

A

Prevent phagocytosis
Prevent complement activation
Neutralizes some antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Panton-Valentein Factor
(for destroying WBC)

A

Leukocidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Scalded-Skin Syndrome or Ritters disease toxin

A

Exfoliatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

responsible for food poisoning toxin

A

Enterotoxin A,B,D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

females in use of tampon cause toxin

A

TSST-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Spreading Factor

A

Hyaluronidase
Lipase
DNAse
Protease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Responsible for destroying CLOT

A

Fibronolysin or Staphylokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Disease associated in E.faecalis and E.faecium

I. Endocarditis
II. UTI
III. Pneumonia
IV. Meningitis

A

2 only (UTI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Disease associated with S. pneumoniae

I. Endocarditis
II. UTI
III. Pneumonia
IV. Meningitis

A

3 and 4 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Disease associated with S.pyogenes
I. Endocarditis
II. UTI
III. Pneumonia
IV. Meningitis

A

NOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Disease associated with S.bovis
I. Endocarditis
II. UTI
III. Pneumonia
IV. Meningitis

A

1 and 2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

S. agalactiae
I. Endocarditis
II. Puerperal fever
III. Neonatal Sepsis
IV. Meningitis
V. UTI

A

2,3,4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Staphylococcus
I. Pinpoint
II. Beta hemolytic
III. Catalase negative
IV. Bacitracin resistant

A

2 and 4 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Micrococcus
I. Pinhead
II. Alpha hemolytic
III. Non glucose fermenter
IV. Bacitracin susceptible

A

3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hippurate test
I. Group A
II. purple color
III. turbid
IV. Group B

A

2 and 4 only

34
Q

CAMP test
I. Group A
II. bowtie appearance
III. arrowhead hemolysis
IV. Group B

A

2,3,4 only

35
Q

Bacitracin test
I. Group A
II. bowtie appearance
III. arrowhead hemolysis
IV. Group B

A

1 only

36
Q

PYR hydrolysis test
I. Group A and D
II. Group A only
III. Group B and D
IV. Group E

A

1 only

37
Q

Bile esculin test
I. Group A
II. Group D
III. blackening of medium
IV. Entero and Non entero
V. turbidity

A

2,3,4 only

38
Q

Serological test
I. Group A
II. Group D
III. Streptex
IV. agglutination
V. turbidity

A

1,3,4

39
Q

Salt tolerance test
I. 6.5% NaCl
II. Group D
III. Non-enterococci
IV. Enterococci
V. turbidity

A

1,2,4,5

40
Q

Diagnostic test for scarlet fever caused by S.pyogenes

A

Skin test
✔️Dicks test
✔️Schultz-Charlton Test

41
Q

Used to test for previous infection of scarlet fever

A

Dicks Test

42
Q

Referred as Taxo P

A

Optochin disc test

43
Q

Referred as Taxo A

A

Bacitracin disc test

44
Q

organisms that resembles Streptococci in terms of MORPHOLOGY

A

Leuconostoc
Abiotrophia
Granulicatella

45
Q

used in bioprocessing and biopreservation of foods such as cheese, meats, and vegetables

A

PEDIOCOCCUS

46
Q

Nutritionally Variant Streptococci (NVS)

A

Abiotrophia spp.
Granulicatella spp.

47
Q

Bile solubility test:
Plated method positive result

A

disappearance of colonies

48
Q

Bile solubility test:
Tube method positive result

A

Turbid

49
Q

Inulin fermentation positive result

A

Yellow for S.pneumoniae

50
Q

Academic/Bergy’s: 10°C and 37°C

A

Lactic (S. lactic)

51
Q

Academic/Bergy’s: 37°C

A

Pyogenic
Viridans
Entero
Lactic

52
Q

Academic/Bergy’s: 37°C and 45°C

A

Viridance

53
Q

Hemolysin that is oxygen stable

A

Streptolysin S

54
Q

Academic/Bergy’s: 10°C and 37°C and 45°C

A

Enterococcus faecalis

55
Q

Gram negative cocci considered as normal flora of the body

A

M.catarrhalis
V.parvula

56
Q

Gram negative cocci that is obligate anaerobe

A

Veillonella (V.parvula)

57
Q

Neisseriaceae sp. that is catalase NEGATIVE

A

N.weaver

58
Q

Chromogenic neisseriaceae

A

N. flavescens & N. sicca

59
Q

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

A

Meningococcemia/Spotted Fever

60
Q

Disseminated Gonorrhoeae

I. Opthalmia neonatorum
II. Gonococcal Arthritis
III. Septicemia
IV. Localized Gonorrhoeae
V. Fitz Hugh-Curtis Syndrome

A

2, 3, & 5

61
Q

Veillonella parvula
I. Periodontitis
II. Gonococcal Arthritis
III. Dental Caries
IV. Purulent arthritis

A

1 & 3

62
Q

Moraxella catarrhalis
I. Otitis media
II. Broncho-pulmonary infection
III. Bacterial tracheitis
IV. Endocarditis
V. Meningitis

A

AOTA

63
Q

N. meningitidis
I. Periodontitis
II. Gonococcal Arthritis
III. Endophthalmitis
IV. Purulent arthritis

A

3 & 4

64
Q

commonly used antibiotics for gonorrhea

A

Penicillin
Ceftriaxone
Spectinomycin

65
Q

Principal virulence factor of N. meningitidis

A

Endotoxin (Lipooligosaccharide)

66
Q

Principal virulence factor of N. gonorrhoeae

A

Pili

67
Q

Incubation period of N. gonorrhoeae

A

2 to 7 days

68
Q

Human oral and gastrointestinal microbiota

A

Bacteremia
Endocarditis
Otitis media

69
Q

Satellitism phenomenon

A

-Thiol compounds
-cysteine
-vitamin B
-Sulfhydryl compounds or pyridoxal hydrochloride

70
Q

VF

Mediate acquisition of iron for bacterial metabolism

A

Transferrin
Lactoferrin
Hemoglobin

71
Q

protein I

A

Porin protein- promotes
intracellular survival by preventing phagolysosome fusion in neutrophils

72
Q

protein II

A

Opacity protein- mediates firm attachment to eukaryotic cells

73
Q

Protein III

A

Reduction-modifiable protein – protects other surface antigens (Por protein, LOS) from bactericidal antibodies

74
Q

Hydrolyzes beta lactam ring in penicillin

A

Beta lactamase

75
Q

Least Virulent serological type of N.meningitidis that causes pneumonia
A. Serotype A
B. Serotype B
C. Serotype C
D. Serotype E

A

NOTA — Serotype Y

76
Q

Most Virulent serological type of N.meningitidis that causes invasive disease Meningococcemia
A. Serotype A
B. Serotype B
C. Serotype C
D. Serotype E

A

NOTA- Serotype W135

77
Q

serological type of N.meningitidis that causes meningitis and septicemia
A. Serotype A
B. Serotype B
C. Serotype C
D. Serotype E

A

Serotype C

78
Q

Incubation period of Spotter fever syndrome

A

1 to 10 days

79
Q

vaccine available for the prevention of meningitis

A

Menactra vaccine

80
Q

Menactra vaccine contains

A

Polysaccharide
Antigen A, C, Y and W-135