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veterinary dentistry > Mid-Terms > Flashcards

Mid-Terms Flashcards

1
Q

It is estimated that 80% of dogs and 70% of cats develop detectable periodontal disease by what age?

A

By 3 years of age

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2
Q

This course focuses on the concept of the ORAL ATP (assessment, treatment, and prevention)…give examples of an assessment, treatment, and prevention?

A

Assessment - oral examinations, laboratory data, charting, radiology

Treatment - anesthesia and supportive care, dental cleaning, periodontal therapy, extractions, endodontics, and orthodontics

Prevention - home health care, re-evaluations

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3
Q

the term “dental” is no longer used…the newest term is COHAT…What does this stand for?

A

Comprehensive Oral Health Assessment and Treatment

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4
Q

Immature, primary, and deciduous teeth are all synonyms for baby teeth?

A

True (after these fall out you are left with adult or permanent teeth)

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5
Q

Teeth are designated according to their sequence rostral to caudal, or _______ to _______ in the case of the premolars and molars.

A

mesial to distal

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6
Q

Kittens and puppies are born without teeth…this is called?

A

edentulous

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7
Q

The deciduous teeth of kittens begins to emerge (erupt) from the gums (gingiva) at 2-3 weeks of age, and all teeth are in place and developed (i.e. dentition is complete) by the end of the ________ week?

A

Fourth

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8
Q

Eruption of the first puppy teeth also occurs at a similar time (2-3 weeks), but full dentition of the deciduous teeth is not apparent until puppies are ______ weeks of age?

A

Eight

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9
Q

Permanent kitten teeth begin to appear between at 4 months of age, and full dentition is complete by the end of the ________ month?

A

Sixth

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10
Q

In puppies the adult teeth begin to appear at 4 to 5 months, but permanent teeth are not fully erupted until ____ of age?

A

Six to Seven Months

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11
Q

Give the dental formula for canine deciduous teeth?

A

2X (I 3/3: C 1/1: P:3/3) = 28

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12
Q

Give the dental formula for canine permanent teeth?

A

2X (I 3/3: C 1/1: P 4/4: M 2/3) = 42

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13
Q

Give the dental formula for feline deciduous teeth?

A

2X (I 3/3: C 1/1: P 3/2) = 26

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14
Q

Give the dental formula for feline permanent teeth?

A

2X (I 3/3: C 1/1: P 3/2: M 1/1) = 30

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15
Q

This system simplifies dental nomenclature by assigning numbers to the individual teeth. Each tooth is designated by three numbers. The first number refers to the to the four quadrants of the mouth. As you face the animal and go clockwise quadrant 1 is the right maxilla, quadrant 2 the left maxilla, quadrant 3 the left mandible and quadrant 4 the right mandible?

A

This is the Triadan System

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16
Q

The Triadan System can be quite confusing, a useful of learning this system is to remember that the maxillary carnassial teeth (4th premolars) are designated as __1__ and __2__ in the dog (cats have same numbers but on different teeth). The mandibular carnassial teeth (1st molars) are designated as __3__ and __4__ in both species?

A

1) 108
2) 208
3) 309
4) 409

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17
Q

This is the aspect of the mouth that is between the teeth and the cheek?

A

The buccal aspect (and the buccal surface of the teeth is that part of the tooth facing the cheek…these surfaces may also be referred to as the vestibular or labial surfaces

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18
Q

The ________ surface of the mandibular teeth is that portion of the tooth facing the tongue?

A

lingual

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19
Q

The inner surface of the maxillary teeth is called the?

A

palatal surface

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20
Q

The _________ surface is that portion of the tooth facing the tooth directly above or below (i.e. the top of the tooth)

A

occlusal

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21
Q

The crown of a tooth has three layers…describe each?

A

1) the outer surface is the enamel, which is the hardest substance of the body (primarily calcium hydroxyapatite)
2) interior to the enamel is the dentin. This constitutes majority of the adult tooth. (mostly hydroxyapatite but has organic components, primarily collagen)
3) the central area of the tooth is the pulp which is composed of blood vessels, lymph, and nerve tissue. It also contains odontoblasts that form dentin.

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22
Q

The root of the tooth does not require an enamelar surface, however root dentin is covered by?

A

cementum (bone-like tissue)

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23
Q

The root of a tooth is connected to the surrounding bone by the?

A

periodontal ligament

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24
Q

True or False: As an animal matures less dentin is laid down and therefore the root canal narrows.

A

True: as the animal matures dentin is laid down in successive layers, and the root canal narrows

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25
Q

the division between two roots i called the?

A

furcation

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26
Q

The position on the tooth where the enamel ends and the cementum begins is called the?

A

cementoenamel junction

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27
Q

The cementoenamel junction is where the gingival tissue lies in close proximity to the tooth crown. The margin of the gingiva is round and curves slightly inward, forming a small pocket or SULCUS. What is the normal pocket dept of the (a) dog and the (b) cat?

A

(a) dog = 1-3mm
(b) cat = 0.5-1.0mm

these numbers are important when evaluating pocket depth in patient with periodontal disease

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28
Q

What is the most common disease state in small animals and in humans?

A

Periodontal disease - it is estimated that 80% of dogs, and 70% of cats, will develop some degree of PD by three years of age

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29
Q

What are the two basic forms of disease with regards to disease of the mouth?

A

1) gingivitis - is the reversible inflammation of gingival tissue
2) periodontal disease - is the irreversible loss of the tissues surrounding the teeth and is the sequela to gingivitis

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30
Q

The maxillary 4th PM and mandibular 1st M are called?

A

carnassial teeth

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31
Q

True or False: The tissue damage seen with periodontal disease occurs more from the virulence factors produced by bacteria and less to do with the host response?

A

False - the host response causes more damage

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32
Q

Periodontal disease is classified by the severity of inflammation and destruction of the periodontium…describe stage 0-4?

A

Stage - 0 = healthy teeth and periodontal tissues
Stage - 1 = plaque accumulation, mild gingival inflammation around the tooth, no attachment loss
Stage - 2 = edematous gingival inflammation (tissues bleed readily), calculus formation, less than 25% attachment loss between teeth and alveolar bone
Stage -3 = calculus, irreversible damage to periodontal tissues, 25-50% attachment loss
Stage - 4 = suppurative tissues, severe and irreversible damage to periodontium, >50% attachment loss, +/- tooth mobility

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33
Q

The importance of Periodontal Disease has become very apparent over the years….the statement “the head is connected to the rest of the body” was trying to convey what message?

A

That PD exerts both a localized deleterious effect in the mouth and a negative systemic effect on the well-being of the human or animal

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34
Q

PD begins with adherence of bacteria to a mixture of salivary proteins and glycoproteins called the?

A

pellicle (on the tooth surfaces)

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35
Q

With regards to plaque/calculus development…finish these formulas:

1) saliva + food =
2) biofilm + bacteria =
3) plaque + minerals =

A

1) biofilm
2) plaque
3) calculus (tartar)

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36
Q

Finish this sentence…PD results greatly not by biochemical activity of pathogenic organisms but rather by?

A

the host’s response to the organism’s biochemical activity

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37
Q

Plaque bacteria is greater to or equal to ______ times more resistant to antibiotics.

A

1000X

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38
Q

Plaque bacteria is greater to or equal to ______ times more resistant to antiseptics.

A

500,000X

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39
Q

What is the etiologic agent of periodontal disease?

A

Plaque

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40
Q

Alveolar bone loss occurs and proceeds in two planes, vertical bone loss and horizontal bone loss….give definitions of both?

A

Vertical bone loss - loss of bone along the long axis of the root toward the apex

Horizontal bone loss - bone loss that develops and progresses parallel to the plane of crestal bone (this can result in exposure of the tooth root)

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41
Q

___________ inflammation should be the primary determinant of the need for professional oral therapy?

A

gingivitis

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42
Q

True or False: Widespread calculus can occur without gingivitis?

A

True

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43
Q

which systemic disorders can worsen periodontal disease?

A
  • nutritional deficiency
  • cancer/chemotherapy/radiation treatment
  • hypothyroidism
  • liver, kidney, cardiac disease
  • CUSHINGS/ EXOGENOUS STEROIDS
  • DIABETES MELLITUS
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44
Q

What are the harmful effect of steroids with PD?

A
  • suppresses neutrophil activity
  • blocks cell mediated immunity
  • decreases circulating lymphocytes
  • COLLAGEN DEGRADATION, OSTEOPOROSIS (INCREASED DESTRUCTION OF PERIO TISSUE)
  • delayed wound healing
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45
Q

There is a strong link between perio and disease and?

A

diabetes mellitus

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46
Q

What are the predisposing factors to PD?

A
  • breed (yorkies, poodles)
  • facial hair
  • conformation (brachycephalics)
  • diet (hard vs soft)
  • decrease immune status
  • systemic disease
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47
Q

What are the main periodontal disease characteristics?

A
  • local bacterial infection, bacteremia
  • tartar
  • increased gingival sulcus (“pocket”) depth
  • destruction of periodontal tissues
  • tooth loss
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48
Q

How is Furcation Exposure (or FE) classified?

A
  • Class 1 (FE1): a periodontal probe extends less than 1mm under the crown (alternatively, 2mm)
  • Class 3 (FE3): probe can be passed from one side of the furcation to the other (through and through)
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49
Q

ORAL ATP (assessment, treatment, and prevention)…describe the assessment aspect?

A

ASSESSMENT: starts with awake patient

  • complete physical exam
  • incomplete oral exam (awake patient, must caution owners that you are only getting a partial picture of oral disease —- assessment during anesthesia complete external oral exam, charting, RADIOGRAPHS)
  • CBC, chemistry, UA
  • EKG
  • heartworm status
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50
Q

What is the most important diagnostic tool in dentistry?

A

RADIOGRAPHY - >60% or oral pathology cannot be visualized without radiographs (because 60% of the tooth structure is located below the gums)

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51
Q

Dental radiology is used in evaluation and detection of conditions and treatments including:

A

a) missing or supernumerary teeth
b) PD in all patients undergoing dental prophylaxis
c) condition of roots of teeth that have worn, discolored or fractured crowns
d) tooth and bone involvement in cases of benign and malignant tumors, and osteomyelitis
e) traumatic injuries
f) malocclusion and other developmental anomalies (dilacerations, fused teeth, bigeminy)
g) tooth resorption
h) extraction procedures (pre- and post- extraction)
i) efficacy of therapeutic programs for all forms of oral and dental disease
j) endodontic, orthodontic and prosthodontic procedures

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52
Q

Human Dental x-rays are all taken using Parallel Technique (film parallel to tooth): but this does not work for animals…so we use?

A

Bisecting Angle Technique: with this technique we position the film, tubehead, patient so parallel technique is simulated (by using tooth plane and film = bisecting plane)

53
Q

the Parallel Technique is only useful for? (veterinary dentistry)

A

only useful for mandibular distal premolars and molars

54
Q

What are some “helpful hints” with regards to doing dental radiographs?

A
  • you are radiographing root and bone, not crown
  • radiograph apposing teeth to see “normal”
  • practice on skulls before patients
  • long learning curve: patience is helpful
55
Q

What are some common results of incorrect positioning of x-ray, patient, film, tubehead, etc?

A

Foreshortening: tooth image is smaller and stunted than the actual tooth

Elongation: tooth image is stretched out

56
Q

Pulp stones = hypercalcified…what is the significance?

A

no pathology

57
Q

Describe the ends of the explorer tool?

A

one end is a notched end (pocket depth) and the shepherd’s hook (check tooth surfaces, sub-gingival exam)

58
Q

Prophys are preventative (i.e. - they prevent periodontal disease from occurring). Does this occur in Vet Dentistry?

A

NO! instead we are treating PD after it has occurred.

59
Q

Owners are reluctant to dentals because of two main reasons…one, cost, and two, anesthesia. It is important to have an anesthetic protocol that maximizes safety….what should be done in this protocol?

A

pre-operative bloodwork, IV cath with fluid therapy, patient monitoring (EKG), and preventative hypothermia

60
Q

How is a explorer tool held and why?

A

modified pen grasp…it maintains maximum control of sharp instruments

61
Q

What are tartar forceps used for?

A

tartar removal and gross scaling

62
Q

True of False: Dental cleaning is performed before a radiographic study, charting, and client contact has been performed?

A

True

63
Q

Fill the blanks: Cleaning of only the ______________ tooth surfaces is cosmetic and does not constitute an effective dental cleaning.

A

supragingival

64
Q

Describe the difference between a scaler and a curette (they are the same tool with different ends)…what are each used for?

A

Scalers - have a sharp-edged triangular toe and are used only SUBGINGIVALLY for the removal of tartar and plaque

Curettes - have a rounded surface on the toe and can be used above and below the gum line to remove calculus and plaque

65
Q

If pocket depth is <5mm, clean the sulcus via?

A

Closed Root Planing +/- perioceutic (doxirobe) = perioceutics are agents that promote subgingival health

66
Q

If pocket depth is >5mm, clean the sulcus via?

A

Open Root Planing (surgical procedure involving the creation of a gingival or mucoperiosteal flap – separation of gingival and mucosal tissues from the underlying alveolar bone –, curettage of the periodontal tissues, and suturing of the flapped tissues back to their original position

67
Q

Mechanical scalers are used to remove small pieces of tartar and plaque above and below the gumline. They are available from many sources and have three main modes of action: ultrasonic, piezoelectric, and rotary. There are advantages and disadvantages to all three types…what are the main disadvantages?

A
  • mechanical scalers and high-speed handpiece can aerosolize bacteria >6 feet (staff safety)
  • operator safety is not an option (protective eyewear, garments, and gloves)
  • maintain contact with individual teeth for no more than 10-15 seconds to avoid excessive heat transfer from the scaler tip to the interior of the tooth
68
Q

The final step of dental cleaning is polishing…where, why , and how?

A

Where - the crown and the most coronal portion of the gingival sulcus

Why- done to remove grooves created in the enamel by scaling and thus retard bacterial adhesion on the tooth. Polishing of tooth surfaces is done using a fine abrasive paste and polisher.

How- performed using an air-driven low-speed handpiece (high speed handpiece is used for sectioning of teeth and removal of alveolar bone, and is used in extractions and other periodontal surgical procedures)

69
Q

What is a reciprocating prophy angled handpiece used for? (for polishing)

A

avoids hair tangles

70
Q

What three different treatments are useful in reducing attachment loss and increasing pocket depth that has occurred as a result of periodontal disease?

A

1) subgingival therapeutic agents (periceutics) can be used to temporarily fill the periodontal pocket, retard bacterial growth and promote gingival reattachment (doxirobe)
2) open root planing - indicated when probing reveals attachment loss extending apically below MGJ. Root and alveolar bone are exposed by incising the gingiva apically. The tissue is then elevate from the underlying bone using periosteal elevators “gingival flap”: Planing is followed by irrigation, application of EDTA, placement or an absorbable barrier membrane, and flap closure via suturing.
3) bone regeneration - bone grafts can be placed in areas that fill the void after cleaning. Grafting has largely been replaced by application of ground bone or bio-glass polymers such as Consil(TM) = osteoconductive agent. (also Periomix(TM) and Synergy(TM))

71
Q

What is the difference between Guided tissue Regeneration (GTR) and Guided Bone Regeneration (GBR)?

A
  • GTR = GOALS - prevent migration of epithelium into sulcus. restore attachment lost to periodontal disease
  • GBR = GOALS - replaces lost bony tissue
72
Q

The goal of dentistry is the preservation of teeth and their supporting tissues, thereby __________ is the LAST (not first) resort in dentistry?

A

extractions….however, there are a number of conditions when extractions are not only necessary but are the only thing we can do to ensure the wellness of the oral cavity

73
Q

What are the indications for extractions?

A
  • > 50% attachment loss from periodontal disease
  • Grade III (and many Grade II) furcation exposures
  • loss of the tooth structure from resorption or caries
  • persistent primary (deciduous) teeth
  • malocclusion of primary teeth (resulting in improper eruption and placement of the permanent teeth)
  • overcrowding of teeth
  • supernumerary teeth (where the result is food trapping and PD)
  • tooth fracture (where endodontic or restorative therapy is not possible)
  • jaw fractures that occur at points of root attachment
  • osteomyelitis or neoplasia that compromises root attachment
  • oronasal fistula
74
Q

What are the two treatment options for COMPLICATED crown fractures?

A

EXTRACTION AND ROOT CANAL THERAPY/CROWN

75
Q

This is a tooth fracture that does not have pulp exposure?

A

Uncomplicated crown fracture- these may be treated with a restoration procedure to seal dentinal tubules

76
Q

When should analgesia be used when performing a tooth extraction?

A

before, during, and after extractions

77
Q

Name the Drug:

1) pre-operative sedation
2) perioperative analgesia
3) dogs/cats
4) rapid onset
5) IM or IV a dose of 0.1mg/kg
6) 4-6hrs of effective analgesia
7) causes vomiting, but this can prevent aspiration pneumonia

A

HYDROMORPHONE

78
Q

This is an opiate-like drug that partially blocks nerve impulse transmissions at the opiate MU receptor. This drug is used in place of opiates, but its analgesic effects appear to be more variable. Can be given to both dogs and cats and is inexpensive. NMDA receptor antagonist?

A

TRAMADOL (KETAMINE AND AMANTADINE ARE ALSO NMDA RECEPTOR ANTAGONIST)

79
Q

What the most commonly used NSAIDS used in animal dentistry?

A

Meloxicam - this is the most commonly used drug in cats and dogs (take considerable care giving this to cats postoperatively)

Carprofen (Rimadyl) - used in dogs, before, during, and after surgery

Ketoprofen - high analgesic efficacy (not approved for use in small animals and is known to produce uncontrolled bleeding)

80
Q

Pain that arises directly from nerve tissue (rather than from nociceptors) is termed neuropathic pain. This may occur as a result of disease or trauma that directly damages nerve tissue (a neuropathy). One drug that is useful in treating chronic neuropathies is?

A

GABAPENTIN

81
Q

With regards animal dentistry, what are the 4 main nerve blocks and what to each effect (anatomically) speaking?

A

1) Mental - (area affected) = bone, incisors, soft tissue rostral to 2nd mandibular premolar
2) Infraorbital - (area affected) = bone, soft tissue, dentition rostral to the maxillary first molar
3) Maxillary - (area affected) = maxillary bone, upper teeth, soft tissue, palate, nares, and upper lip
4) Mandibular - (area affected) = mandibular bone, teeth, soft tissue and tongue on the infiltrated side (two techniques - intraoral and extra-oral)

82
Q

True or false: antibiotics should not be used in cases of routine prophylactic cleaning procedures?

A

True

83
Q

What are the two drugs most commonly used as Ab for animal dentistry?

A

amoxicillin-clavulinate and clindamycin (these drugs work well against the anaerobic bacteria that cause the bulk of periodontal disease)

84
Q

name all the instruments and supplies necessary for teeth extractions and gingival flaps?

A

scalpel blade, tissue forceps, needle holders, absorbable suture material, gauze sponges, “double curved” iris scissors (La Grange scissors), periosteal elevators, luxators, elevators, winged elevators, rongeurs, extraction forceps, bone curettes, high and low speed handpiece, water/air gun, dental burrs (fissure or crosscut, round, cylindrical {football})

85
Q

This is the best instrument for trimming gingiva prior to suturing the gum tissue?

A

“double-curved” iris scissors - La Grange scissors

86
Q

These are used to elevate mucogingival and palatal tissues for gingival flaps: several sizes are needed to accommodate different size patients and teeth?

A

periosteal elevators

87
Q

These are used to cut the periodontal ligament and loosen the tooth: this instrument is used in a circular cutting motion around the circumference of the root: different sizes for different?

A

luxators

88
Q

These are used to elevate and loosen the tooth from its socket: these come in different size: used in a prying motion to elevate the tooth from its socket?

A

elevators

89
Q

Which tool can be used as either an elevator or luxator?

A

winged elevator - these have a winged cup-like tip and are in different sizes: the tip conforms to root contours: can be used as either an elevator or luxator

90
Q

Which tool is used to remove diseased or fragmented alveolar bone from extraction sites: can also be used as an extraction forcep?

A

rongeurs

91
Q

What tool is used to grasp the tooth and remove it from the socket?

A

extraction forceps

92
Q

These are used to debride the alveolus after extraction: several sizes are available?

A

bone curettes

93
Q

Fill the blanks: Safe and complete extractions of multi-rooted or canine teeth require the above instruments and a dental unit containing high/low speed handpiece, water/air gun. ____1___ are used with in the high speed handpiece. The type of bur refers to the shape of the head. ___2___ or ___3___ bur are used for sectioning teeth. ___4___ burs are used to remove alveolar bone, and may also be used to section small teeth. _______5_______ or “_____5_____” _____5____ burs can be used for smoothing and contouring bone.

A

1) Dental burs
2) Fissure or crosscut burs
3) Round burs
4) Cylindrical or “football” diamond burs

94
Q

What are teeth extraction goals?

A

complete root extraction, smooth bone to prevent post-op pain

95
Q

What causes oronasal fistulas, who does it effect, and what are its main causes?

A
  • PD is #1 cause
  • small breed dogs (dachshunds, poodles) are predisposed
  • other causes include trauma, neoplasia, sinus infection
96
Q

What is the difference between a Closed (simple or nonsurgical) extraction, a multi-rooted non-surgical extraction, and an open (surgical) extraction?

A

CLOSED EXTRACTION = single rooted teeth, also used in extractions of canine teeth that have significant attachment loss. Extraction site may be left open after central or intermediate incisor extractions: blood clot forms rapidly at these sites, and healing is often uncomplicated. However closure of the surrounding gingiva with suture shoule be attempted whenever possible

MULTI-ROOTED (NON-SURGICAL) EXTRACTION = premolar two rooted teeth may be extracted without the need for an extensive surgical procedure such as creation of mucoperiosteal flap and removal of alveolar bone with a high speed handpiece. Almost always requires sectioning. After tooth segment are removed the two apposing gingival surfaces are apposed and sutured. Gingival tissue should be apposed without tension.

OPEN (SURGICAL EXTRACTIONS) = done where the tooth size, number of roots, or root pathology dictate that an expanded surgical field be created. Procedure begins with a mucoperiosteal flap, then vertical release incisors are made before flap closure

97
Q

What is the surgical repair of most oronasal fistulas?

A

single flap technique

98
Q

Fractured or worn teeth that have pulpas exposure are treated in one of two ways…what are they?

A

extraction or endodontic (root canal) therapy

99
Q

What is the gold standard for home healthcare with regards to dentistry?

A

Brushing (with toothpaste = dentifrices)

  • other useful home dental care included dental diets, antiseptics, antibiotics, water additives, barrier products
100
Q

This is seen occasionally in young dogs and cats. The gingiva appears inflamed or hyperplastic, with potential to periodontitis and bone loss. Treatment consists of regular dental cleaning and institution of a home health care program?

A

Juvenile gingivitis or periodontitis

101
Q

This condition in adult dogs and cats is characterized by mucosal ulceration and infect. It is the result of tartar buildup on tooth surfaces and subsequent abrasion of overlying mucosa. Patients experience considerable pain and suffer from loss of appetite, excessive drooling, and general malaise. Long-term Ab therapy, oral antiseptics, and frequent dental are a means of controlling this disorder. In instances where tartar rapidly re-accumulates the teeth are extracted?

A

Chronic Ulcerative Paradental Stomatitis (CUPS)

102
Q

______% of all cats will develop tooth resorption (TR)

A

30-50%

103
Q

What is the treatment for tooth resorption (TR)?

A

extraction or crown (coronal) amputation

104
Q

Tooth Resorption is classified as TYPE 1, TYPE 2, and TYPE 3…describe each?

A

TYPE 1 = inflammation (gingivitis, periodontitis,) at junction of crown and root: this area destroyed, some/all of root and periodontal ligament intact. Observable pain symptoms

TYPE 2 = resorption starts within root, crown dissolves later: no periodontal ligament seen. Do not exhibit pain. Can do crown amputation here.

TYPE 3 = combo of type 1 and type 2

105
Q

What are the many other names of oral cavity stomatitis?

A

gingivostomatitis, faucitis, lymphocytic-plasmacytic gingivitis

106
Q

what is the most vesing oral condition in the cat?

A

oral stomatitis

107
Q
  • Severe bilateral inflammation of gingiva
  • Unknown pathogenesis, suspect hyperimmune response to substrates on tooth surfaces (and/or tooth itself)
  • lymphs, plasmocytes infiltrate gingiva, mucosa
  • Ab, steriods provide temporary relief

….this describes?

A

Stomatitis

108
Q

What is the “cure” for stomatitis?

A

extractions are only known “cure”, but cure does not occur in all cases

“partial mouth” extracted indicated if inflammation is confined to caudal areas of mouth (60-80% cure)

“full mouth” extractions indicated if inflammation extends to canines, incisors: also indicated if partial mouth extractions do not resolve inflammation: 90% cure

“terminal” stomatitis: euthanasia in some refractory cases or $ concerns

109
Q

New Rule of Thumb:

Gingivitis only = (1)

Gingivitis and Caudal Mucositis = (2)

A

1) Periodontal Disease

2) Stomatitis Requiring Extractions

110
Q

How do you differentiate between (GS) gingivostomatitis and (EGC) eosinophilic granuloma complex

A

depends on a tissue biopsy and histopathology

111
Q

This condition has similar signs to gingivostomatitis, but often unilateral. Condition can occur in dogs/cats . The gingiva and portions of the oral mucosa are inflamed and swollen. This condition can also manifest as discrete growths of the tongue or gingiva, as well as a “rodent ulcer”. This condition often responds positively to corticosteroid therapy?

A

Eosinophilic Granuloma Complex

112
Q

Gingival hyperplasia is now termed?

A

Gingival Enlargement

113
Q

Which breeds are commonly affected by gingival enlargement and what are the main causes?

Treatments?

A

Breeds = boxer, english bulldog

Hyperplasia may also develop as a result of disease (lupus) or as a drug reaction (sulfas, cyclosporine, amlodipine). In some instances the gingiva may become so enlarged that a “pseudosulcus” may form and act to potentiate the developing/worsening of PD. Severely hyper-plastic gum tissue may need to be removed. This procedure can result in extensive hemorrhage, and use of incisional instruments such as laser or radiosurgery may be beneficial in these cases. Some cases can be idiopathic.

114
Q

Traumatic injuries to the oral cavity and face of small animals occur with some frequency. In dog a very common form of trauma is fracture of the buccal surface of the upper fourth premolar teeth “_________” or “________” fractures as result of chewing on hard materials.

A
  • slab or shear fractures (dentin exposure is almost universal)
  • other commonly encountered traumatic injuries included fractures of the teeth and/or jaw by blunt trauma, electrical burns, and penetrating wounds caused by foreign bodies.
  • tx options different depending on the nature of the trauma but may include root canal therapy, extraction, stabilization of fractured bone, and repair of gingival and mucosal tissues
115
Q

Fill in the blanks: _____1____ teeth are covered by gingiva and bone, whereas ____2____ teeth have their eruption blocked by other teeth.

A
  1. unerupted teeth

2. impacted teeth

116
Q

This refers to improper positioning of the teeth resulting in an abnormal bite pattern?

A

malocclusion

117
Q

The normal position of the teeth in the mesatocephalic dog is referred to as a?

A

scissor bite

118
Q

A lance tooth refers to a maxillary canine that project mesially: this is most often seen in?

A

shelties

119
Q

Describe….

Class 1 malocclusions:
Class 2 malocclusions:
Class 3 malocclusions:

A
  • Class 1 malocclusions: individual teeth misplaced
  • Class 2 malocclusions: (mandibular distoclusion) - mandible caudal to to maxilla
  • Class 3 malocclusions: (mandibular mesiocclusion) - mandible rostral to maxilla

(2 and 3 malocclusions result exclusively from a genetic defect)

120
Q

Caries is a term for dental decay and is commonly known as a cavity. This occurs rarely in dogs and is not described in cats. The maxillary first molar teeth of medium and large breed dogs are most often affected, especially in which breed?

A

Retriever breeds

121
Q

Disruption of the normal deposition of the enamel matrix during development before eruption is called?

A

enamel hypoplasia (teeth may also be affected by enamel hypomineralization, a condition where the enamel matrix is inadequately mineralized)

122
Q

A commonly seen disorder is the purplish or brown discoloration to the crown that occurs as a result of trauma to the tooth and hemorrhage in the pulp chamber. This is condition has been referred to as ____1____, but affected teeth are now termed as having ______2_____?

A

1 - pulpitis

2 - intrinsic staining

(because the blood supply to the tooth has been irrevocably damaged, the tooth is dead and should be extracted (or have root canal therapy done)

123
Q

In older animals a periapical lucency (now termed a rarefaction) observed radiographically is abnormal and often results from bacterial infection. In dogs certain teeth (canines, mandibular first molars) can have a well-defined lucent area of bone at the apex. What is this termed? Normal or abnormal?

A
  • chevron lucency

- normal for THESE teeth

124
Q

Osteomyelitis: infections of the jaw result from a number of causes (PD, trauma, oral tumors). __________ abscesses can penetrate through alveolar bone and gingiva and result in fistulous draning

A

periapical abseccess

125
Q

This refers to a firm localized swelling of the gingiva?

A

epulis (benign and result most frequently from proliferation of the periodontal ligament. The newer term for this growth is a focal fibromatous hyperplasia.

126
Q

What are the most commonly seen malignant neoplasms seen in dentistry?

A

squamous cell carcinoma (most common oral cancer), malignant melanoma, and fibrosarcoma

127
Q

An aggressive but benign subgingival mass in which unerupted teeth are incarcerated is an?

A

odontogenic cysts

128
Q

These are often seen radiographically as an “empty” (fluid-filled) cyst in the jaw?

A

dentigerous cysts

129
Q

This condition is characterized by progressive horizontal bone loss and gingival recession of the canine teeth of cats and it is a form of PD?

A

extrusion - attachment loss may proceed to the point that the teeth fall-out, or are extruded. Extrusions are commonly seen in conjunction with alveolitis (newer term is buccal alveolar exostosis), a swelling of the bone surrounding the tooth root.

veterinary dentistry (1 decks)

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