Mid-Term II Flashcards

Study guide for mid-term II

1
Q

Difference between IPv4 and IPv6

A
  • IPv4: 32-bit address; written in decimal form; allows for 3.4 billion addresses; 8 bits per octet; 192.168.1.1
  • IPv6: 128-bit address; written in hexadecimal; allows 340 undecillion addresses; supports auto-configuration and built-in security; 16 bits per section; 0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0000:0001
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2
Q

Private IP ranges for IPv4

A
  • Class A: 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
  • Class B: 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255
  • Class C: 192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255
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3
Q

Who assigns public IP addresses

A

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) distributes IP’s to Regional Internet Registries (RIR) that then distribute IP’s within their assigned region.

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4
Q

What are the CIDR classes

A
  • Class A: 1.0.0.0 - 126.255.255.255; Default mask - 255.0.0.0 (/8)
  • Loopback: 127.0.0.1 - 127.255.255.255
  • Class B: 128.0.0.0 - 191.255.0.0; Default mask - 255.255.0.0 (/16)
  • Class C: 192.0.0.0 - 223.255.255.255; Default mask - 255.255.255.0 (/24)
  • Class D: 224.0.0.0 - 239.255.255.255; Multicast Class
  • Class E: 240.0.0.0-255.255.255.255; Reserved
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5
Q

Usable hosts on /30 subnet

A

Total: 4
Usable: 2

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6
Q

Usable hosts on /29 subnet

A

Total: 8
Usable: 6

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7
Q

Usable hosts on /28 subnet

A

Total: 16
Usable: 14

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8
Q

Usable hosts on /27 subnet

A

Total: 32
Useable: 30

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9
Q

Usable hosts on /26 subnet

A

Total: 64
Useable: 62

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10
Q

Usable hosts on /16 subnet

A

Total: 65,536
Usable: 65,534

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11
Q

Three main categories of ports

A

Well-Known (0-1023) - Assigned by IANA
Registered Ports (1024-49151) - Used by software vendors for proprietary applications
Dynamic/Ephemeral (49152-65535) - Temporarily used for client-side comms

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12
Q

What port does FTP (Data) use

A

Port 20

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13
Q

What port does FTP (Control) use

A

Port 21

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14
Q

What port does SSH use

A

Port 22

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15
Q

What port does Telnet use

A

Port 23

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16
Q

What port does SMTP use

A

Port 25

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17
Q

What port does DNS use

A

Port 53

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18
Q

What port does DHCP use

A

Port 67-68

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19
Q

What port does TFTP use

A

Port 69

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20
Q

What port does HTTP

A

Port 80

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21
Q

What port does POP3 use

A

Port 110

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22
Q

What port does NTP use

A

Port 123

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23
Q

What port does RPC use

A

Port 135

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24
Q

What port does NetBIOS use

A

Port 137-139

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25
Q

What port does IMAP use

A

Port 143

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26
Q

What port does SNMP use

A

Port 161-162

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27
Q

What port does LDAP use

A

Port 389

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28
Q

What port does HTTPS use

A

Port 443

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29
Q

What port does SMB/CIFS

A

Port 445

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30
Q

What port does Syslog use

A

Port 514

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31
Q

What port does IMAPS use

A

Port 993

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32
Q

What port does POP3S use

A

Port 995

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33
Q

What port does MS SQL use

A

Port 1433

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34
Q

What port does Oracle DB use

A

Port 1521

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35
Q

What port does L2TP use

A

Port 1701

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36
Q

What port does RADIUS use

A

Port 1812-1813

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37
Q

What port does MySQL use

A

Port 3306

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38
Q

What port does RDP use

A

Port 3389

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39
Q

What port does SIP use

A

Port 5060/5061

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40
Q

What port does BitTorrent use

A

51413

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41
Q

Which category of Ethernet cable supports speeds up to 10 Gbps?

A

CAT6a

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42
Q

True or False: Coaxial cables are commonly used for broadband Internet connections.

A

True

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43
Q

What is the maximum length for a standard Ethernet cable run?

A

100 meters

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44
Q

Which type of network cable is best for outdoor use?

A

Fiber optic cable

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45
Q

What type of connector is commonly used with Ethernet cables?

A

RJ45

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46
Q

What is the main advantage of fiber optic cables over copper cables?

A

Higher bandwidth and longer distance capabilities.

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47
Q

Fill in the blank: __________ cables use light to transmit data.

A

Fiber optic

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48
Q

What does the ‘U/FTP’ in cable specifications stand for?

A

Unshielded Foiled Twisted Pair

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49
Q

What is the typical color coding for Ethernet cables?

A

Orange and white stripes, blue and white stripes, green and white stripes, brown and white stripes.

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50
Q

True or False: Shielded cables are used to reduce electromagnetic interference.

A

True

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51
Q

What is the difference between single-mode and multi-mode fiber cables?

A

Single-mode fibers allow one light mode to propagate, while multi-mode fibers allow multiple light modes.

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52
Q

Fill in the blank: The standard for Ethernet networking is defined by __________.

A

IEEE 802.3

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53
Q

What is the maximum data transfer rate of CAT5e cables?

A

1 Gbps

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54
Q

Multiple Choice: Which type of cable is typically used for connecting a modem to a router? A) Coaxial B) Fiber C) Ethernet D) Telephone

A

C) Ethernet

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55
Q

True or False: Twisted pair cables are used in telephone networks.

A

True

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56
Q

What type of network cable is most resistant to physical damage?

A

Fiber optic cable

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57
Q

Fill in the blank: __________ cables are used for long-distance telecommunications.

A

Fiber optic

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58
Q

What does the term ‘crosstalk’ refer to in network cables?

A

Interference caused by signals in adjacent wires.

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59
Q

Multiple Choice: Which cable type is best for high-speed networks? A) CAT5 B) CAT6 C) CAT3 D) Coaxial

A

B) CAT6

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60
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of using copper cables?

A

Limited distance and susceptibility to interference.

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61
Q

True or False: Network cables can be used to power devices using Power over Ethernet (PoE).

A

True

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62
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ cable is commonly used for connecting televisions to satellite dishes.

A

Coaxial

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63
Q

What is the main function of a patch cable?

A

To connect devices to a network switch or router.

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64
Q

True or False: The higher the category number of an Ethernet cable, the better its performance.

A

True

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65
Q

Fill in the blank: __________ cables are more flexible and easier to install than solid cables.

A

Stranded

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66
Q

What does the term ‘attenuation’ mean in the context of network cables?

A

Loss of signal strength over distance.

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67
Q

Multiple Choice: Which type of fiber optic cable is typically used for short distances? A) Single-mode B) Multi-mode C) Coaxial D) Twisted pair

A

B) Multi-mode

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68
Q

What is the primary use of a crossover cable?

A

To connect two like devices directly, such as two computers.

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69
Q

True or False: The maximum data rate of CAT6 cables is 10 Gbps.

A

True

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70
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ connector is used with fiber optic cables.

A

Lucent Connector (LC)

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71
Q

What is the primary benefit of using shielded twisted pair (STP) cables?

A

Reduced electromagnetic interference.

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72
Q

What is the standard color for the wiring in a CAT5 cable?

A

Blue, orange, green, brown.

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73
Q

Fill in the blank: __________ cables are often used in data centers for high-speed connections.

A

Fiber optic

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74
Q

What is the main disadvantage of fiber optic cables?

A

Higher installation costs compared to copper cables.

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75
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of coaxial cables? A) High bandwidth B) Susceptible to interference C) Used for cable TV D) Used for long-distance networking

A

B) Susceptible to interference

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76
Q

What is the purpose of a network cable tester?

A

To check the integrity and performance of network cables.

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77
Q

True or False: Fiber optic cables are immune to electromagnetic interference.

A

True

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78
Q

This mode accommodates transmitting and receiving on the network, but not at the same time

A

Half-duplex mode

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79
Q

This mode simultaneously transmits and receives

A

Full-duplex mode

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80
Q

This type of cable is typically used with Fast Ethernet operating at 100Mbps with a transmission range of 100 meters

A

Category 5

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81
Q

This type of cable used on networks that run at 10/100Mbps and even up to 1000Mbps

A

Category 5e

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82
Q

This type of cable has a minimum of 250MHz of bandwidth and specifies cable lengths up to 100 meters with 10/100/1000Mbps transfer, along with 10Gbps over shorter distances

A

Category 6

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83
Q

This type of cable a minimum of 500MHz of bandwidth with transmission distance up to 100 meters with 10Gbps networking speeds

A

Category 6a

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84
Q

What type of coaxial cable is often used for cable TV and cable modems

A

RG-6

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85
Q

This type of fiber optic cable has many beams of light travel through the cable bouncing off the cable walls. This strategy actually weakens the signal reducing the length and speed at which the data signal can travel

A

Multi mode fiber

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86
Q

This type of fiber optic cable uses a single direct beam of light thus allowing for greater distances and increase transfers speeds

A

Single-mode fiber

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87
Q

This is the mysterious space that resides between the false, or drop, ceiling and the true ceiling

A

Plenum

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88
Q

This type of cable must be fire resistant and they must not produce toxic fumes if exposed to intense heat

A

Plenum cables

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88
Q
A
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89
Q

This type of fiber connector uses a half twist bayonet type of lock

A

Straight Tip (ST) connector

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90
Q

This type of fiber connector uses a push pull connector similar to common audio and video plugs and sockets

A

Subscriber Connector (SC) connector

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91
Q

This type of fiber connector has a flange on top similar to an RJ-45 connector that aids secure connection

A

Lucent Connector (LC) connector

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92
Q

This type of fiber connector is a popular connector for two fibers in a very small form factor

A

MT-RJ

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93
Q

This type of cable is proprietary cable used to connect a PC to a Cisco router

A

Rollover cable

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94
Q

This type of cable is used to test and isolate network problems

A

Loopback cable

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95
Q

This type of cabling connects the telecommunication room to the end-user

A

Horizontal cabling

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96
Q

This type of cabling connects telecommunication rooms, server rooms, and remote locations and offices

A

Vertical cables

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97
Q

This provides a connection point between network equipment such as hubs and switches and the ports to which PCs are connected which normally are distributed throughout a building

A

Patch panels

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98
Q

This type of closet for a network typically holds the majority of the network gear including routers switches wiring servers and more. This is also typically the wiring closet where outside lines run into the network

A

Main Distribution Frame (MDF)

99
Q

This is the connection point between the operators part of the network and the customers portion of the network

100
Q

This standard defines a range of networking systems based on the original ethernet standard

101
Q

This, which is defined in the IEEE 802.3 standard, is the most common media access method because it is associated with 802.3 Ethernet networking, which is by far the most popular networking system

A

Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection CSMA/CD

102
Q

This is known as a contention media access method because systems contend for access to the media

103
Q

On a network that uses this, every node has equal access to the network media

104
Q

On this type of network, each computer signals its intent to transmit data signals before any data is actually sent

A

Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance CSMA/CA

105
Q

CSMA/CA uses this method to signal its intention to transmit data

A

Broadcasts

106
Q

This enables you to use multiple channels at the same time to increase performance

107
Q

10BaseT ethernet type has

A

Speed: 10 Mbps

Medium: Twisted Pair (Cat3 or better)

Max Length: 100 meters

108
Q

100BaseTX ethernet type has

A

Speed: 100 Mbps
Cable Type: Twisted pair (Cat5 or higher)
Max Length: 100 meters

109
Q

1000BaseT ethernet type has

A

Speed: 1 Gbps
Cable Type: Twisted pair (Cat5e or higher)
Max Length: 100 meters

110
Q

10GBaseT ethernet type has

A

Speed: 10 Gbps
Cable Type: Twisted pair (Cat6a or higher)
Max Length: 100 meters

111
Q

100Base-FX ethernet type has

A

Speed: 100 Mbps
Cable Type: Fiber optic
Max Length: 2 kilometers (multi-mode fiber)

112
Q

1000BaseLX

A

Speed: 1 Gbps
Cable Type: Fiber optic
Max Length: 5 kilometers (single-mode fiber)

113
Q

10GBaseSR

A

Speed: 10 Gbps
Cable Type: Fiber optic
Max Length: 300 meters (multi-mode fiber)

114
Q

Common Ethernet Suffixes

A

T: Twisted Pair (e.g., 100Base-TX)
TX: Twisted Pair with extended capabilities (e.g., 100Base-TX)
FX: Fiber Optic (e.g., 100Base-FX)
LX: Long Wavelength Fiber Optic (e.g., 1000Base-LX)
SX: Short Wavelength Fiber Optic (e.g., 1000Base-SX)
SR: Short Range Fiber Optic (e.g., 10GBase-SR)
LR: Long Range Fiber Optic (e.g., 10GBase-LR)

115
Q

10 Gigabit Ethernet is defined in what IEEE standard

116
Q

What is 802.11a?

A

Frequency: 5 GHz

Speed: Up to 54 Mbps
This is the maximum possible speed under perfect conditions (no interference, ideal distance, etc.)

Range: Shorter than 2.4 GHz (higher freq = less penetration)

Often used in business or industrial environments

117
Q

What is 802.11b

A

Frequency: 2.4 GHz

Speed: Up to 11 Mbps

Range: Good range, but very susceptible to interference from devices like microwaves and Bluetooth

Obsolete but foundational

118
Q

What is 802.11g

A

Frequency: 2.4 GHz

Speed: Up to 54 Mbps

Backward compatible with 802.11b

Suffers from the same interference as 802.11b

119
Q

What is 802.11n

A

Frequency: 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz (dual-band)

Speed: Supports speeds up to 600 Mbps (theoretical), but commonly seen at up to 540 Mbps or slightly lower in practice. (typically 150–300 Mbps per channel)

Uses MIMO (Multiple Input Multiple Output)

Backward compatible with a/b/g

120
Q

What is 802.11ac

A

Frequency: 5 GHz

Speed: Up to 6.9 Gbps

Uses MU-MIMO and wider channels (80/160 MHz)

Backward compatible with 802.11n

121
Q

What is 802.11ax

A

requency: 2.4 GHz & 5 GHz, newer variants support 6 GHz

Speed: Up to 9.6 Gbps total throughput

More efficient for high-density environments (stadiums, offices)

Introduces OFDMA and Target Wake Time (TWT)

122
Q

What is WEP

A

Wired Equivalent Privacy

Uses RC4 stream cipher

Very insecure due to weak key generation

Deprecated; should not be used

123
Q

What is WPA

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access

Uses TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol)

Introduced to replace WEP

Better than WEP, but still has vulnerabilities

124
Q

What is WPA2

A

Replaces TKIP with AES encryption (CCMP mode)

Much more secure than WPA

Recommended minimum for secure networks

125
Q

What is WPA3

A

Latest Wi-Fi security standard

Uses SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) for stronger handshakes

Better protection against dictionary attacks

Individualized data encryption

126
Q

What is omni directional antenna

A

Sends/receives signals in all directions equally

Ideal for general coverage in open spaces

Common in home routers

127
Q

What is a Yagi antenna

A

Highly directional antenna

Long-range, focused beam

Great for point-to-point communication (e.g., between buildings)

128
Q

What is a panel antenna

A

Flat and directional

Mounts on walls to focus signal

Offer a directional radiation pattern, which means they focus the signal in one direction, ideal for point-to-point connections (like between buildings)

Easier to install and align than larger directional options like parabolic antennas

Less likely to interfere with nearby 4G/5G signals since the radiation pattern is focused

129
Q

What is a parabolic antenna

A

Uses a dish to focus signals

Very long-range, extremely directional

Often used for satellite or long-distance point-to-point Wi-Fi

130
Q

What is SSID broadcast

A

The SSID is the network name broadcast by the AP

Disabling SSID broadcast hides the network from casual scanning, but doesn’t provide real security

131
Q

What is RADIUS

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

Centralized AAA (Authentication, Authorization, Accounting) service

Used in WPA2-Enterprise and WPA3-Enterprise

Integrates with Active Directory or LDAP for user authentication

132
Q

What is static routing

A

Routing paths are manually configured by a network administrator.

Used in small networks or for predictable routing needs.

Advantages: Simple, secure, no overhead.

Disadvantages: Doesn’t adapt to changes or failures.

133
Q

What is dynamic routing

A

Routers automatically share routing information using protocols.

Adapts to network changes (e.g., down links or new routes).

Involves routing algorithms and metrics (like hop count, bandwidth, delay).

134
Q

What is RIP

A

Routing Information Protocol

Distance-vector routing protocol

Uses hop count as metric (max 15 hops)

Simple but slow to converge and not scalable

RIPv1: Classful (no subnet info)

RIPv2: Classless, supports VLSM

135
Q

What is OSPF

A

Open Shortest Path First

Link-state routing protocol

Uses cost (based on bandwidth) as metric

Fast convergence, highly scalable

Supports VLSM and CIDR

Common in enterprise environments

136
Q

What is BGP

A

Border Gateway Protocol

Path-vector protocol used on the Internet

Used for routing between autonomous systems (ASes)

Complex and policy-based routing decisions

Essential for ISPs and large-scale networks

137
Q

What is EIGRP

A

Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (Cisco proprietary)

Hybrid protocol (both distance-vector and link-state features)

Uses DUAL algorithm

Metric based on bandwidth, delay, reliability, and load

Faster convergence and more efficient than RIP

138
Q

What is VLAN

A

Virtual Local Area Network

Logically segments a network into separate broadcast domains, even if devices are on the same switch

Improves security, performance, and management

139
Q

What is 802.1q

A

IEEE standard for VLAN trunking

Adds a VLAN tag to Ethernet frames to carry VLAN info across switches

Enables multiple VLANs to be transported over a single trunk link

140
Q

What is a trunk port

A

A switch port configured to carry multiple VLANs

Used between switches or to VLAN-aware devices (like routers/firewalls)

141
Q

What is an access port

A

A switch port assigned to a single VLAN

Used to connect end-user devices like PCs

142
Q

What is an Access Control Lists (ACL)

A

A set of rules used to permit or deny traffic based on IP, protocol, or port

Can be applied inbound or outbound on a router interface

Used for filtering, firewalling, and traffic control

143
Q

What are the two main types of ACLs

A

Standard ACL: Filters by source IP address only

Extended ACL: Filters by source/destination IP, protocol, and port numbers

144
Q

What is Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

A

What is STP and why is it important?
A:

Spanning Tree Protocol (802.1D) prevents switching loops in Layer 2 networks

Automatically blocks redundant paths while keeping backup links available

Elects a Root Bridge and calculates the shortest path tree

145
Q

What are some improvements to Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)

A

RSTP (802.1w): Rapid Spanning Tree – faster convergence

MSTP (802.1s): Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol – supports multiple STP instances for VLANs

146
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Model

A

The Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model is a conceptual framework used to understand and standardize how different networking protocols interact in a layered architecture.

Consists of 7 layers.

147
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Layer 7

A

Application Layer

Interfaces directly with user applications (e.g., browsers, email)

Protocols: HTTP, FTP, SMTP, POP3, IMAP, DNS

148
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Layer 6

A

Presentation Layer

Responsible for data format translation, encryption, and compression

Converts data into a format readable by the application layer

149
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Layer 5

A

Session Layer

Manages sessions and connections between computers

Responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating sessions

150
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Layer 4

A

Transport Layer

Responsible for reliable data transport

Protocols: TCP (reliable), UDP (unreliable)

Handles segmentation, flow control, and error recovery

151
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Layer 3

A

Network Layer

Handles logical addressing and routing

Protocols: IP, ICMP, ARP, RIP, OSPF, BGP

Breaks data into packets

152
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Layer 2

A

Data Link Layer

Responsible for MAC addressing, framing, and error detection

Sub-layers: LLC (Logical Link Control) and MAC (Media Access Control)

Protocols: Ethernet, PPP, HDLC

153
Q

Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Layer 1

A

Physical Layer

Defines the hardware and transmission of raw bits over a medium

Includes cables, NICs, hubs, modems, and signaling standards

154
Q

Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)

A

A 4-layer model used by modern networks and the Internet

More practical than OSI; directly maps to protocols in use

155
Q

TCP/IP and OSI

A

Application (OSI Layers 5-7)

Transport (OSI Layer 4)

Internet (OSI Layer 3)

Network Interface (OSI Layers 1-2)

156
Q

What does DOCSIS stand for?

A

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification

157
Q

What is DOCSIS used for?

A

A telecommunications standard used to deliver high-speed Internet over cable TV systems

Employed by cable internet providers

Developed by CableLabs

Supports data, voice, and video over existing coaxial cable infrastructure

158
Q

What does POTS stand for and what is it?

A

Plain Old Telephone System

The basic analog voice service provided over copper telephone wires

Used in traditional landline systems

Works over the PSTN

159
Q

What does DSL stand for?

A

Digital Subscriber Line

160
Q

The installer failed to install the POTS filters on the phones.

A

DSL and voice share the same phone line.

POTS filters are required on each phone jack to prevent DSL signal interference with voice calls.

Without filters, phones may have no dial tone or experience static.

161
Q

What does PTSN stand for

A

Public Switched Telephone Network

162
Q

What is PSTN used for

A

The global network of traditional telephone lines (POTS)

Used to make voice calls across public and private networks

Supports analog voice transmission over copper wires

163
Q

What is V.90?

A

A ITU-T standard for dial-up modems

It defines a maximum download of 56 Kbps over analog phone lines

Upload speeds were typically 33.6Kbps

164
Q

What channels are available for 2.4 GHz

165
Q

What is LDAP

A

LDAP = Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

Used to query and modify directory services (like Active Directory)

Often works with RADIUS as the backend directory storing user credentials

Not directly used by WPA2-Enterprise, but supports it indirectly

166
Q

What is TFTP

A

Trivial File Transfer Protocol

A simple, lightweight file transfer protocol

Used for tasks like:

Transferring router/switch configs

Uploading firmware to network devices

Not secure, and not used for wireless authentication

167
Q

What is IPSec

A

Internet Protocol Security

A suite of protocols for securing IP traffic

Commonly used in VPNs to encrypt data between endpoints

Works at the network layer, providing confidentiality, integrity, and authentication

Not used for Wi-Fi encryption like WPA2

168
Q

What is PKI

A

Public Key Infrastructure

Manages X.509 digital certificates

Enables secure authentication, encryption, and digital signatures

Used for VPNs, Wi-Fi (WPA2-Enterprise), web security (HTTPS)

Core of certificate-based authentication

169
Q

What is Kerberos

A

Network authentication protocol using tickets, not certificates

Used in Windows domain environments (Active Directory)

Provides mutual authentication and single sign-on (SSO)

Does not use X.509 certificates

170
Q

What is TACACS+

A

Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus

Used to authenticate access to network devices (e.g., routers, switches)

Separates authentication, authorization, and accounting

Does not use or manage X.509 certificates

171
Q

What are X.509 Certificates

A

X.509 certificates are digital certificates that follow the X.509 standard for public key infrastructure (PKI). They’re used to prove someone’s identity online and enable secure communication.

172
Q

What do X.509 Certificates include?

A

Subject Name (who the certificate belongs to — a user, website, or device)

Issuer (who issued the certificate — e.g., a Certificate Authority)

Public Key (used to encrypt or verify data)

Valid From / To (expiration and start dates)

Serial Number (unique ID for the cert)

Digital Signature (proves the certificate hasn’t been tampered with)

173
Q

What are X.509 Certificates used for?

A

Secure Websites (HTTPS)
The padlock icon in your browser? That’s made possible by an X.509 certificate.

User or Device Authentication
Used in WPA2-Enterprise, VPNs, and smart card logins.

Secure Emails
Enables email encryption and digital signatures (e.g., S/MIME).

Code Signing
Verifies the integrity and origin of software.

174
Q

What is TKIP and where is it used?

A

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol

Used in WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access)

Designed as a quick fix for weaknesses in WEP

Provides per-packet key changes for improved security

Compatible with older (legacy) devices

Used in WPA Mixed Mode alongside AES

175
Q

What is AES and where is it used in WIRELESS networks?

A

Advanced Encryption Standard

Used in WPA2 for strong wireless encryption

Provides robust, modern encryption

Not backward-compatible with legacy WPA-only devices

Used in WPA Mixed Mode alongside TKIP to support newer devices

176
Q

What is TEMPEST, and what is it used for?

A

TEMPEST is a U.S. government standard for shielding electronic equipment from leaking sensitive information via radio frequency (RF) emissions.

Prevents electronic snooping or eavesdropping on secure communications

Used in military, government, and high-security environments

Involves shielding, grounding, and device design to limit signal leakage

177
Q

What is DWDM, and what does it do?

A

Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing

A technology used in fiber-optic networks

Combines multiple data signals on a single fiber by using different light wavelengths

Greatly increases bandwidth and efficiency in long-distance data transmission

Common in telecom backbones and large-scale ISPs

178
Q

What is a public cloud?

A

Services are delivered over the internet

Managed by a third-party provider (e.g., AWS, Microsoft Azure, Google Cloud)

Shared resources among multiple customers

Scalable, cost-effective, and quick to deploy

Example use: Hosting websites, cloud storage, SaaS

179
Q

What is a Private Cloud

A

Cloud infrastructure is used exclusively by one organization

Can be hosted on-premises or by a third party

Offers greater control, security, and customization

Ideal for industries with strict regulatory requirements (e.g., healthcare, finance)

180
Q

What is a hybrid cloud?

A

Combines private cloud + public cloud

Enables data and application portability between environments

Great for scalability during peak usage or disaster recovery

Example: Internal systems + temporary cloud servers for added capacity

181
Q

What is a community cloud?

A

Shared by multiple organizations with common goals or compliance needs

Managed internally or by a third party

Balances cost savings and customization

Example: Government agencies or universities sharing infrastructure

182
Q

What is SaaS

A

Software as a Service

Delivers fully functional applications over the internet

Users access the software via a web browser; no local installation required

The provider manages everything: application, data, OS, infrastructure

Examples: Google Workspace, Microsoft 365, Salesforce, Dropbox

183
Q

What is PaaS

A

Platform as a Service

Provides a development and deployment environment in the cloud

Developers use it to build, test, and deploy applications

Users manage: Apps and data

Provider manages: OS, runtime, servers, storage, infrastructure

Examples: Google App Engine, Heroku, Microsoft Azure App Services

184
Q

What is IaaS

A

Infrastructure as a Service

Provides virtualized computing resources over the internet

Users manage: Operating systems, applications, storage

Provider manages: Servers, networking, virtualization, hardware

Offers flexibility and scalability

Examples: Amazon EC2, Microsoft Azure VM, Google Compute Engine

185
Q

What is GSM

A

Global System for Mobile Communications

A 2G digital cellular network standard

Used worldwide (especially in Europe and Asia)

Supports voice, SMS, and basic data

Uses TDMA and SIM cards

Foundation for later technologies like EDGE and LTE

186
Q

What is EDGE (not the browser)

A

Enhanced Data rates for GSM Evolution

Also called 2.75G

An enhancement of GSM networks to support faster data transfer

Max speed: ~384 Kbps

Often shown as “E” on phones when connected to a slower data network

187
Q

What is LTE?

A

Long Term Evolution

A 4G wireless standard for high-speed data and voice

Offers speeds up to 100+ Mbps

Based on IP packet-switched technology

Common in smartphones and modern cellular networks

Transition toward VoLTE (Voice over LTE) and 5G

188
Q

What is CDMA

A

Code Division Multiple Access

Competing standard to GSM (mainly used in the U.S. by Verizon/Sprint)

Does not use SIM cards (traditionally — newer CDMA phones now may)

Devices are tied to the network provider

Uses code-based multiplexing to separate users

Being phased out in favor of LTE/5G

189
Q

What are the benefits of caching on a Web proxy?

A

Response Time

Virus Detection

190
Q

What is a Web Proxy

A

is an intermediary server that sits between a user’s device and the internet. It processes requests from the user and forwards them to the destination server, then returns the response to the user.

191
Q

What is SLAAC and what does it stand for?

A

Stateless Address Autoconfiguration

To allow a host to automatically configure its own IPv6 address without the need for a DHCP server

192
Q

What does WINS stand for and what does it do?

A

Windows Internet Name Service

Resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses

193
Q

What protocol does WINS use to register and resolve NetBIOS names?

A

NetBIOS Name Service (NBNS)

194
Q

When does a host register its NetBIOS name with the WINS server?

A

When does a host register its NetBIOS name with the WINS server?

195
Q

What port does WINS/NetBIOS name service typically use?

A

UDP port 137

196
Q

What does POP3 stand for?

A

Post Office Protocol v3W

197
Q

What does IMAP4 stand for?

A

Internet Message Access Protocol v4

198
Q

POP3 vs IMAP4

A

Pop3 - Downloads emails to a local device and deletes them from the server.
IMAP4 - Synchronizes emails with the server, allowing access from multiple devices.

199
Q

What protocol does IPv6 use to discover neighbors and replace ARP?

A

NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

200
Q

Remote workers, telecommuters, and traveling employees.

A

Purpose: Allows individual users to connect to a central network securely.

Requires: VPN client software on the user’s device.

Use Case: Remote work, secure access to internal company resources from home or on the go.

201
Q

Site-to-Site VPN

A

Purpose: Connects two or more entire networks (sites) together.

Requires: Routers/firewalls with VPN capabilities—no client software on user devices.

Use Case: Linking branch offices to a main office securely over the internet.

202
Q

DMVPN (Dynamic Multipoint VPN)

A

Purpose: A Cisco-developed enhancement of Site-to-Site VPNs allowing dynamic, direct tunnels between sites.

Requires: Cisco routers, uses mGRE and NHRP for scalability.

Use Case: Large-scale, meshed networks where branch offices can connect to each other dynamically.

203
Q

MPLS VPN (Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN)

A

Purpose: A service provider-managed VPN that uses label switching rather than traditional routing.

Requires: ISP infrastructure support—typically used by businesses, not home users.

Use Case: High-performance, scalable connections between enterprise sites—often faster and more reliable than internet-based VPNs.

204
Q

Extranet VPN

A

Purpose: Connects a company’s network to that of a partner, vendor, or customer over a secure VPN.

Requires: Similar to Site-to-Site, usually built between two organizations.

Use Case: Secure communication between business partners.

205
Q

What does the dig command do in Linux/macOS? What does it stand for?

A

Performs DNS lookups and displays detailed results such as: IP address, DNS record type, TTL, query time, and name server info.

Domain Information Groper

206
Q

What is ICMP and what does it stand for?

A

ICMP operates at layer 3 of the OSI model. It sends error messages and operational information about network conditions.

Internet Control Message Protocol

207
Q

What does a firewall do?

A

A firewall is a security device or software that controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a set of configured rules.

It is commonly placed at the network edge (perimeter) to protect internal networks from unauthorized access and filter traffic based on IP addresses, ports, and protocols.

208
Q

Which DNS record type maps a hostname to an IPv6 address?

A

A DNS AAAA record (pronounced “quad-A”) maps a hostname to an IPv6 address.

It is the IPv6 equivalent of an A record, which maps to an IPv4 address.

209
Q

What is geofencing in the context of mobile device management (MDM)?

A

It involves setting up virtual geographic boundaries using GPS, Wi-Fi, RFID, or cellular data.

When a managed device enters or leaves one of these boundaries, automated actions can be triggered. Examples include:

Restricting app access

Enforcing specific security policies

Sending alerts to administrators

210
Q

What technique enables IPv6 packets to travel over an IPv4-only network?

A

Tunneling (e.g., 6to4, Teredo, ISATAP)

211
Q

Which IPv6 tunneling method uses a public IPv4 address to automatically generate an IPv6 address?

A

6to4

It requires a public IPv4 address and is not NAT-friendly.

212
Q

Which IPv6 tunneling technique is specifically designed to work through NAT?

213
Q

Which tunneling method is typically used within enterprise networks over internal IPv4 infrastructure?

A

ISATAP (Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol)

214
Q

Which general-purpose tunnel can encapsulate any Layer 3 protocol, including IPv6 over IPv4?

A

GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation)

215
Q

What are the US and EU fiber optic transmission standards?

A

US: SONET (Synchronous Optical Network)

EU: SDH (Synchronous DIgital Hierarchy)

216
Q

What is MX

A

MX (Mail Exchange) records in DNS specify which mail servers are responsible for receiving email on behalf of a domain.

They include:

Priority values (lower = higher priority)

Hostnames of the mail servers (not IP addresses directly)

217
Q

What is the approximate data rate of a T1 line?

A

~1.544 Mbps

218
Q

How many channels are in a T1 line?

A

24 channels, each 64Kbps

219
Q

What is the purpose of Administrative Distance (AD) in routing

A

To determine the trustworthiness or preference of a routing source.

Lower distance = More trusted

220
Q

What does a CNAME record represent in DNS

A

CNAME (Canonical Name) record in DNS is used to map an alias name to the real (canonical) domain name.

221
Q

What does IEEE 802.1X standard define and what is it used for?

A

Port-Based Network Access Control (PNAC)

It is used to authenticate devices before they are granted access to the network.

Commonly used in:

Wired networks (e.g., switch ports)

Wireless networks (e.g., enterprise Wi-Fi)

222
Q

What is the first thing to check when troubleshooting DNS on a client machine?

A

When troubleshooting DNS issues on a client machine, the first thing to check is whether the correct DNS server addresses are configured.

223
Q

PPTP VPN

A

It was used for legacy remote access, mainly for individual users

Not secure by modern standards

224
Q

L2TP VPN

A

Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

225
Q

L2TP with IPsec

A

It adds encryption and security to an otherwise non-secure tunneling protocol.

226
Q

What command is commonly used on Cisco routers to enter global configuration mode?

A

configure terminal

227
Q

What command is used to enter privileged EXEC mode from user EXEC mode?

228
Q

What command displays the currently running configuration?

A

show running-config

229
Q

What command sets a static route on a router?

A

ip route [destination] [subnet mask] [next hop IP/interface]

230
Q

What command is used to configure a specific interface?

A

interface [type/number]

231
Q

What command sets a password for privileged EXEC mode?

A

enable secret [password]

232
Q

What command enables an interface?

A

no shutdown

233
Q

What command disables an interface?

234
Q

What command shows the routing table?

A

show ip route

235
Q

What command shows interface status and statistics?

A

show interfaces or show ip interface briefWhat command is used to test IP connectivity?

236
Q

What command is used to test IP connectivity?

A

ping [destination IP]

237
Q

What command is used to trace the path to a destination?

A

traceroute [destination IP]

238
Q

What is the bandwidth of a T3 line?

A

44.736 Mbps

Combines 28 T1 lines, totaling 672 voice/data channels.

239
Q

What are the two main types of dynamic routing protocols?

A

Distance Vector and Link-State

240
Q

What type of routing protocol is OSPF?

A

Link-State

241
Q

What algorithm does OSPF use to determine the best path?

A

Dijkstra’s Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm

242
Q

What protocol uses hop count as its primary metric?

A

RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
Max hop limit: 15; 16 = unreachable

243
Q

Which protocol is a hybrid routing protocol developed by Cisco?

A

Combines features of both distance vector and link-state

244
Q

What protocol is used for routing between autonomous systems on the Internet?

A

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

245
Q

What are common metrics used by routing protocols?

A

Hop count (RIP)

Cost (OSPF)

Bandwidth, delay (EIGRP)

AS Path, Policy (BGP)