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Skel rad C > Mid term > Flashcards

Mid term Flashcards

1
Q

Arthritis of one joint

A

monoarthrosis

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2
Q

arthritis that affects multiple joints

A

polyarthritis

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3
Q

Monoarthrosis can be caused by these for things

A

Rheumatoid conditions
Infections
crystal induced
trauma

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4
Q

Monoarhritic Rheumatoid athritises

A

Juvenile chronic arthritis (JCA)

Still’s

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5
Q

Stills disease is a _____ arthritic condition and is sero_____

A

mono

negative

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6
Q

can be sero negative or positive, (Type or Variant)

A

JCA

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7
Q

crystal induced monoarthritis types

A

gout

pseudogout

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8
Q

Gout is characterized by starting in a single ______ with a very sudden _____

A

joint (first MTP)

onset

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9
Q

is the inflammatory component of CPPD

A

pseudogout

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10
Q

Polyarthritic conditions can be caused by (4)

A

Inflammatory joint disease
Degenerative joint disease
Metabolic deposition disease
Blood polyarthritis

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11
Q

“painfull soft tissue swelling of joints”

A

inflammatory joint disease

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12
Q

“bony enlargement of joints”

A

degenerative joint disease

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13
Q

“Lumpy, bumpy joints”

A

metabolic deposition disease

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14
Q

“Painful soft tissue swelling”

A

blood polyarthritis

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15
Q

starts in hands and feet ( small joints, symmetrical, inflammatory)

HLA-B27 negative
RH sero positive

A

Rheumatoid types

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16
Q

Rheumatoid types (5)

A 
RA
Systemic Lupus Erythematous
Progressive systemic sclerosis (Scleroderma)
Dermatomyosis
Transient viral infection
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17
Q

only Rheumatoid type that starts primarily in the joint

A

RA

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18
Q

mimics muscular dystrophy

A

dermatomyosis

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19
Q

asymmetric, large joints/axial skeleton
HLA-27 positive
Rh sero negative

A

Rheumatoid variants

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20
Q

Rheumatoid variant conditions (4)

A

Psoriatic Arthritis
AS
Inflammatory Bowl disease
Reiter’s syndrome

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21
Q

subtypes of djd

A

primary

secondary

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22
Q

these conditions can be either primary or secondary oust arthritis

A

charcot’s joints

EOA

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23
Q

only inflammatory DJD

A

EOA

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24
Q

Polyarthritic metabolic deposition diseases

*can be normal or abnormal byproduct

A

gout
amyloidosis
hyperlipidemia
multicentric reticulocytosis

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25
Q

Hemophilia can cause

A

blood polyarthritis

26
Q

blood bleeds into joint causing inflammatory response that irritates synovial membrane

A

blood polyarthritis

27
Q

these conditions do not have any osteopenia around affected joints

A

psoriatic

gout

28
Q

podagra

A

gout in 1rst MTP

29
Q

stages of gout

A

hyperurecemia
Acute monoarticular
chronic periarticular: around ankle (swelling+joints affected)
chronic tophaceous

30
Q

overhanging margins

A

gout

31
Q

does not have osteopenia near affected joints

A

psoriatic

gout

32
Q

4 states of gout developement

A

hyperurecemia
acute monoarcitular
periarticular
chronic tophaceous

33
Q

what stage of gout has overhanging margins?

A

chronic tophacous

34
Q

joint space narrowing in later stages in what disease but erosions in earlier stages?

A

gout

35
Q

how do tophi cause radioluscent, geographical lesions?

A

top press against the bone and inactivate osteoblasts, but still allow bone reabsorption

36
Q

pathoneumonic findings for gout?

A

reabsorption of clavicle

non traumatic olecrannon bursitis

37
Q

first MT… how do you tell the difference between RA and DJD?

A

RA-bilateral

DJD- change in joint angle

38
Q

CPPD is the same as ____ except different ______

A

HADD

Crystal deposition

39
Q

can be both inflammatory or degenerative

A

CPPD

40
Q

CPPD clinical entities

A 
chondrocalcinosis
inflammatory arthritis (pseudogout)
Pyrophosphate athropathy (DJD)
41
Q

chondrocalcinosis affects what types of cartilage?

A

hylaline

fibrocartilage

42
Q

hyaline chondrocalcinosis has a _____ appearance

A

curvilinear

43
Q

fibrocartilage calcinosis has a ______ appearance

A

amorphous

44
Q

_____ is more common than____ therefore when seen on a radiograph, just assume _____

A

CPPD
HPT
CPPD

45
Q

joints of the vertebral column

A

cartilagenous
uncovertebral
synovial
fibrous/enthesis

46
Q

cartilagenous degenerative diseases of Spine

A 
IVOC
Spondylosis deformans (PADD)
47
Q

Uncovertebral degenerative diseases of Spine

A

arthrosis

48
Q

Synovial degenerative diseases of Spine

A

Apopyseal jont osteoarhtritis

costovertebral joint osteoarhtitis

49
Q

Fibrous/ethesis degenerative diseases of Spine

A

DISH

OPPL

50
Q

unvovertebral arthrosis is usually related to

A

IVOC

51
Q

occurs in the central nucleos

A

IVOC

52
Q

Occurs in the peripheral nucleus

A

Spondylosis deformans

53
Q

what condition allows for true bone on soft nerve

A

IVOC on the medial border of IVF

54
Q

MC OPPL or DISH

A

DISH

55
Q

more clinically relevant OPPL or DISH?

A

OPPL

56
Q

can cause major channel stenosis

A

OPPL

57
Q

which is worse: spondylosis deformans or IVOC

A

spondylosis deformans

58
Q

osteophytes are related to degeneration of ______ and therefore related to _____

A 
outer annulus
spondylosis deformans (Not IVOC)
59
Q

ligamentum flava is related to

A

IVOC

60
Q

Ligament that runs from L5 TP to Illiac crests?

A

Iliolumbar

Skel rad C (3 decks)

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