Mid-term Flashcards

1
Q

F&E: what is crucial to the maintenance of homeostasis?

A

regulation of the concentration of oxygen, carbon dioxide, organic nutrients, wastes and inorganic ions

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2
Q

F&E: intracellular components

A

40% total body weight

most found in skeletal muscle cells

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3
Q

F&E: extracellular components

A

20% total body weight
compartments: interstitial [cells outside vessels], intravascular [cells w/i the blood vessel], transcellular [cells everywhere else]

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4
Q

F&E: 1 L of water= ___ lbs=___ kg

A

2.2
1
this allows for fluid loss/gain to be monitored via weight change

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5
Q

F&E: Na+

A

sodium
135-145 mEq/L
for fluid retention, neuromuscular and enzymatic functioning

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6
Q

F&E: Cl-

A

chloride
96-106 mEq/L
works w/ Na to provide hydration with a role in hydrochloric acid

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7
Q

F&E: K+

A

potassium
3.5-5.0 mEq/L
for contraction of muscles [esp/ heart muscles]

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8
Q

F&E: Ca+

A

calcium
8.6-10.2 mg/dL
most abundant mineral in the body
for muscle contraction, blood coagulation, and bone structure [as 99% of Ca+ is stored in the bones]

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9
Q

F&E: PO4-

A

phosphorous
2.4-4.4 mg/dL
combined w/ Ca+ in the crystals of bones and teeth
2nd most abundant mineral in the body
for acid-base balance as a buffer [phosphoric acid]

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10
Q

F&E: Mg+

A

magnesium
1.5-2.5 mEq/L
for neuromuscular functioning

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11
Q

F&E: HCO3

A

bicarbonate
22-26 mEq/L
for acid-base regulation

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12
Q

F&E: hydrostatic pressure

A

influenced by blood pressure and volume
arteries have a high hydrostatic pressure
it pushes fluid out of the vessel into the interstitial space
as it leaves, the H.P. decreases
as the H.P. decreases, it will fall below the colloidal osmotic pressure

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13
Q

F&E: colloidal osmotic pressure

A

exerted by plasma proteins
once the fluid is in the interstitial areas and the hydrostatic pressure is decreased, blood draws back into the vessels to be brought back into the heart
- at this point the O-carrying blood has perfused O to the tissue, so it enters the bloodstream to get oxygenated once more
in cases of malnutrition, the colloidal osmotic pressure couldn’t do its purpose in bringing blood back into the vessels b/c of the lack of essential plasma proteins

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14
Q

F&E: how much urine should be excreted?

A

1-2 mL/kg/hr

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15
Q

F&E: protein deficiency

A

causes: inadequate protein intake, protein loss, decreased protein synthesis
s/s: poor wound healing, edema [disturbance in colloidal osmotic pressure], anemia [protein carries O], fatigue, weight loss, muscle wasting [builds up muscle]
tx: diet high in amino acids, CHO [CHO used for energy leaving protein to be used for muscle gain and not energy] and protein

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16
Q

F&E: plasma-to-interstitial fluid shift

A

fluid shift from vascular compartment to interstitial compartment
causes: increased capillary hydrostatic pressure, decreased plasma protein, increased capillary permeability
s/s: increased heart rate [decrease in blood volume makes heart work harder to get blood to the major organs], decrease in B.P., decrease urine output, edema
tx: replace F and E, cautiously

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17
Q

F&E: types of edema

A
pitting
dependent
- upon gravity and position
weeping
- fluid seeps out through the skin
anascara
- edema throughout the body
other
- edema of a specific system [i.e. ascites, pleural effusion]
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18
Q

F&E: interstitial-to-plasma fluid shift

A

shift of fluid from interstitial to intravascular compartment
causes: decrease in capillary hydrostatic pressure, increases in colloidal osmotic pressure, remobilization of fluid following burns and trauma
s/s: increased B.P., large amounts of diluted urine, bounding heart beats, pleural edema, restlessness [2o to pleural edema]
tx: fluid is excreted naturally is pt. has healthy heart and kidneys, if not, use of diuretics or dialysis may be needed

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19
Q

F&E: what are primary and secondary sx of respiratory distress?

A

primary
- restlessness>increased heart rate
secondary
- crackles in the lungs, altered mental status, drop in pulse ox., use of accessory muscles

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20
Q

F&E: hyper-osmolarity

A

too many particles [of Na] or too little water which results in cell-shrinking
causes: decreased water intake, extracellular solute excess
s/s: dehydration [evidenced by increase in heart rate, thirst, poor skin turgor, dry mucous membranes/skin, decreased/concentrated urine], cell shrinkage [evidenced by altered mental status]
tx: replace water [PO or IV]

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21
Q

F&E: hypo-osmolarity

A

or water intoxication
too few particles or too much water which results in cell swelling
causes: replacing H2O and Na loss w/ only H2O, inability to excrete urine [seen in chronic renaal failure]
s/s: cerebral edema, diluted urine, increased B.P.
tx: replace loss w/ Na ad H2O [isotonic solution], utilize oral liquids w/ electrolytes

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22
Q

F&E: isotonic deficit

A

Na and H2O loss in equal proportions which do not cause size change in cells but decreases the volume of the ECF
tx: treat underlying cause, administer isotonic solution, carefully

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23
Q

F&E: what are s/s of hemorrhaging?

A

increase in heart rate, altered mental status, hypoxia, decrease in urine output

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24
Q

F&E: isotonic excess

A

Na and H2O gain in equal proportions which do not cause size change in cells but increases the volume of the ECF
s/s: pulmonary edema [causing restlessness, tachycardia, crackles in the lungs]
tx: restrict fluids, monitor fluids, diuretics/dialysis

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25
Q

F&E: hypernatremia

A

an excess of Na
s/s: results from cell shrinkage and fluid shifting [i.e. brain cell shrinkage causing altered mental status]
tx: restrict Na intake, gradual lowering of Na to prevent cerebral edema, monitor changes in behavior

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26
Q

F&E: hyponatremia

A

a deficit of Na
s/s: cerebral edema, diluted urine, increased B.P.
tx: isotonic or hypertonic solution, restriction of water

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27
Q

F&E: hyperkalemia

A

an excess of K

causes: pseudohyperkalemia, chronic renal failure, use of salt substitutes [major ingredient: K], K sparing diuretics, metabolic acidosis, burns [destroy K-containing blood cells]
tx: K-restricted diet, calcium gluconate [does not affect K levels, used for cardiac arrhythmia’s, dialysis, med.’s to reduce K [i.e. kayexalate]

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28
Q

F&E: pseudohyperkalemia

A

this occurs during a blood draw where the syringe hemolized [destroyed the blood cell] RBC’s which caused its contents to come out the cell causing an K increase in that area
the K levels in the blood would :. be high, but falsely

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29
Q

F&E: hypercalcemia

A

excess of Ca

causes: hyperparathyroidism, immobilization, overuse of calcium products, malignancies
tx: loop diuretics [promotes excretion of Ca], fluids, encourage activity, med.’s [d/o cause of condition], low Ca diet, vit. D [helps GI tract absorb Ca]

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30
Q

F&E: fluid spacing

A

1st- normal distribution of body water
2nd- abnormal accumulation in interstitial space [edema]
3rd- fluid is trapped and essentially unavailable and cannot go back to where it came from
- it is a distributional shift in fluid in a space that does not easily exchange w. the ECF [i.e. peritonitis]

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31
Q

F&E: hypocalcemia

A

deficit of Ca+
causes: hypoparathyroidism, inadequate vit. D, chronic renal failure
s/s: + Trousseau sign, + Chvostek sign
tx: IV calcium [regularly check IV bag for calcium precipitation; flush ac and pc Ca administration], Vit. D

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32
Q

F&E: trousseaau sign

A

muscular contraction including flexion of the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, hyper-extension of the fingers, and flexion of the thumb on the palm, when a sphygmomanometer cuff is inflating to above systolic pressure for several minutes
suggest neuromuscular excitability caused by hypocalcemia

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33
Q

F&E: chvostek sign

A

spasm of the facial muscles elicited by tapping the facial nerve in the region of the parotid gland; seen in tetany and hypocalcemia

34
Q

F&E: tetany

A

characterized by spasms of the hands and feet, cramps, spasms of the larynx,, and over-active neurological reflexes
indicative of hypocalcemia

35
Q

F&E: hypermagnesemia

A

excess of Mg+
causes: renal failue, excessive Mg+ intake
s/s: early [flushing of skin, sense of warmth, N/V] moderate [drowsiness, hypoactive reflexes, weakness] severe [neuromuscular, respiratory and cardiac depression]
tx: dialysis [if caused by renal failure], remove source of Mg+, IV Ca+

36
Q

F&E: hypomagnesemia

A

deficit of Mg+
causes: alcoholism, starvation, diarrhea, increased PTH
s/s: hyperactive reflexes, painful muscle contraction, confusion, tetany
tx: Mg+ replacement

37
Q

F&E: hypokalemia

A

deficit of K+

causes: diuretics, poor intake, GI loss, metabolic alkalosis
tx: K+ replacement

38
Q

F&E: hyperphosphatemia

A

excess of P
causes: chronic renal failure, excessive intake of phosphorous, hypoparathyroidism
s/s: tingling of fingers, muscle spasms, precipitation Ca+ and P
- these are symptoms that occur in hypocalcemia b/c Ca+ and P are antagonistic to one another
tx: treat underlying disorder, IV Ca+ or hemodialysis [in extreme cases

39
Q

F&E: hypophosphatemia

A

deficit of P
causes: hyperparathyroidism, use of thiazide diuretics
s/s: numbness, weakness, decreased cardiac output [decreases O2 perfusion to organs, brain, causing mental changes], mental changes [i.e. apprehension, confusion], acute respiratory failure
tx: phosphorous replacement, assess Ca+ levels

40
Q

F&E: CBC diagnostic test

A

complete blood count

measures: WBC, RBC, platelets, Hct [#of RBC: solution], Hmg [# of O2-carrying protein on RBC]
- Hct can tell us the hydration status where an elevation indicates dehydration

41
Q

F&E: serum creatinine diagnostic test

A

tests kidney functioning
an increase in creatinine signals liver failure
this is the distinguishing factor b/w dehydration and renal failure, if there is an increase in creatinine that indicates kidney dysfunction

42
Q

F&E: BUN diagnostic test

A

blood urea nitrogen
6-20 mg/dL
it is a ratio
tell’s us the hydration status where an increase signals dehydration and vice versa
urea and nitrogen are waste products :. these values tells us about the renal functioning

43
Q

F&E: plasma protein diagnostic test

A

total proteins: 6.4-8.3 g/dL
albumin: 3.5-5.0 g/dL
indicated for pt.’s w/ edema [disturbance in colloidal osmotic pressure], in liver dysfunction [liver produces proteins->ascites]

44
Q

F&E: routine urinalysis diagnostic test

A

tests urine for blood, bacteria, protein, glucose, specific gravity, pH
the pH should be fluctuating constantly as the kidneys compensate for disturbances in the acid-base balance, this is a normal finding
specific gravity measures urine concentration where an increase signals a concentrated urine

45
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: reasons for surgery

A

diagnostic
curative
palliative
cosmetic

46
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: urgency of surgery

A

elective
urgent
emergent [requires life-saving measures]

47
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: surgery impact

A

can cause:
physical stresses
- resistance to infection is lowered
- organ function may be altered due to manipulation
psychological stresses
- fear, pain, anxiety, loss of control, body image, alterations in ADL’s

48
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: surgical risk factors

A
age
nutritional status
fluid and electrolyte balance
general health status
medications
goal: to get the pt. in the most optimal position to handle the surgery to have positive outcomes
49
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: legal issues

A
informed consent
- regarding surgery, anesthesia, blood 
- pt. must be >18 y.o. to give consent
-- minors may consent to their own surgery if they are emancipated
witness to consent
- usually the RN's role to be a witness and an advocate for the pt.
emergency situations
- pt. consent usually isn't obtained
50
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: pre-op checklist

A
baseline vital signs
provide oral hygiene, remove dentures, record loose teeth [to prevent teeth from dislodging and falling into the throat during surgery
remove nail polish, cosmetics, hair pin, protheses
have pt. void
check name band
review consent
administer pre-op medications if ordered
elevate side rails
51
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: pre-op med.’s

A

anti-anxiety i.e. diazepam [valium]
sedative i.e. midazolam [versed]
analgesic i.e. morphine sulfate
anticholinergic i.e. atropine sulfate
- used to decrease oral secretion in event that intubation is needed
H2-receptor antagonist i.e. zantac
- used to decrease gastric acidity for pt.’s at risk for aspiration to prevent acid from damaging lungs

52
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: members of surgical team

A

surgeon
surgical assistant
anesthesiologist or CRNA [certified registered nurse anesthetist]
circulating nurse
scrub nurse/surgical technologist
specialty nurse, or RNFA [registered nurse first assistant]

53
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: intra-operative care

A

safety
positioning
- once a pt. is placed under anesthesia, they will remain in the position they are placed in for the entirety of the surgery, it is imp. to prevent permanent damage to the tissues
documentation
surgical env’t.
- traffic control, infection control, sterilization of supplies
inadvertent hypothermia

54
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: universal protocol

A

initiated by the joint commission to eliminate surgery at the wrong site, of the wrong procedure, and on the wrong person by:

  • establishing a pre-op verification process
  • marking the operative site
  • performing a “time-out” immediately before starting the procedure
55
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: ASA classifications

A
american society of anesthesiologists classifications
ASA 1 healthy
2 one medical problem
3 more than one medical problem
4 severe systemic disease
5 not expected to survive w.o surgery
6 organ harvest
56
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: anesthesia induction

A

it is the point at which anesthesia is initiated just prior to the first incisional cut

57
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: general anesthesia

A

it produces a controlled loss of consciousness
protective reflexes lost via total muscle relaxation
can be given intravenously, orally, or through inhalation
complications: CNS [emergence delirium, delayed emergence], cardiovascular [hypotension, dysrhythmias, MI], hypothermia, respiratory [laryngospasm], malignant hyperthermia

58
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: malignant hyperthermia

A

it is a chain of abnormalities that occurs due to an inherited pharmacogenetic disease which degrades skeletal muscle
in those w/ disorder, inhaled anesthesia is the trigger [i.e. Halothane, Enflurane, Isoflurane, Desflurane, Sevoflurane, ALL except nitrous oxide]
those suspected w/ this disorder have a caffeine/halothane contracture test to confirm dx
s/s: early signs [muscle rigidity, tachycardia, dysrythmias], breakdown of muscle->heat->rubor and warmth, tachypnea, pyrexia [Hallmark yet late sign]
tx: discontinue anesthesia, administer 100% oxygen, administer dantrelene ASAP, cool pt.

59
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: dermatome chart

A

they are used to determine the level of block [caused by regional anesthesia] for spinal and epidural
access level using a sharp, dull, or cold test items

60
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: postoperative hand-off

A
type and extent of surgical procedure
type of anesthesia
pt. tolerance of anesthesia and surgical procedure
pt.'s allergies
pathologic condition
status of vital signs
type and mount of IV fluids and med.'s administered
incisions, dressings, tubes, drains, cathters
estimated blood loss [EBL]
any intra-operative complications
pertinent past medical hx
hand off's should be standardized
61
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: post-op. respiratory assessment

A
respiratory rate
breathing depth and pattern
breath sounds
pt.'s color
use of accessory muscles
O2
pulse ox.
assess for atelectaasis, pneumonia, embolus 
- prevent via turning and encouraging to cough and deep breathe
- maintain their hydration
- ambulate early
- encourage use of incentive spirometer
62
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: post-op. circulation assessment

A

vital signs
skin temperature
peripheral vascular assessment
check for bleeding

63
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: pot-op. neurological assessment

A

ability to obey verbal commands
level of consciousness [AAOX3]
motor/sensory assessments

64
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: post-op GI assessment

A

bowel sounds, flatus, B.M.
- all of which would have been delayed due to the anesthesia
nausea
vomiting

65
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: post-op. integumentary assessment

A

the surgeon ALWAYS cleans the first dressing
- should the dressing become saturated in drainage, reinforce w/ additional dressing
check for drainage and drains
check for proper wound healing

66
Q

PERIOPERATIVE: how to prevent thrombophlebitis

A
leg exercises while in bed
early ambulation
TED stocking
sequential hose
avoid pressure that may obstruct flow
low dose heparin
67
Q

IV therapy: CDC recommendation on sterile principles

A

IV container should be changed q24h
tubing should be changed routinely q48-72h
IV site dressing should be changed q48-72h
check expiration of tubing, fluids, med.’s, etc.
if there is a break in sterile technique, DISCARD AND START OVER

68
Q

IV therapy: factors influencing gravity flow rate

A
height of sol'n.
- the higher the sol'n. is placed above the heart, the faster the fluids will drip down
patency of cannula
venous spasms
- due to room temp. [approx. 72o F] med.'s into 98.6o F blood
size of cannula 
bleeding in tubing
presence of local complications
69
Q

IV therapy: PICC

A

peripherally inserted central catheters
placed in the ante-cubital fossa, fed through the vein and ends at the superior vena cava
there are low complication rate and it is less expensive
no B.P. or blood draws allowed on the extremity w/ a PICC line

70
Q

IV therapy: CVAD

A

central venous access device

types: tunneled, non-tunneled, port
indications: med. administration, nutrition, blood samples/transfusions, conditions [renal failure, burns, chemotherapy]
care: x-ray ac starting fluids, sterile dressing change, observe sit for s/s infection or systemic complications
complications: catheter occlusion, embolism, infection, pneumothorax, catheter migration

71
Q

IV therapy: infiltration

A

this occurs when fluid from the IV leaves the bloodstream and invades the deep tissue space
this occurrence may not be preventable the after-effects of infiltration can be
s/s: pain, swelling, COLD
- cold distinguishes infiltration from any other rx that have cause local edema
tx: stop IV, pull catheter out, determine whether another IV needs to be put in [based on what med.’s the pt. was receiving

72
Q

IV therapy: phlebitis

A

it is inflammation of the vessel
the catheter is still w/i the vessel and administering sol’n. which is irritating the vessel
s/s: warmth, red streak outlining the vessel that is inflamed
tx: take catheter out

73
Q

IV therapy: pyrogenic rx

A

contaminated set-up of IV caused sepsis
s/s: abrupt rise in temp., severe chills, shaking, increase in HR and RR, headache
tx: stop the IV, KVO [keep vein open]
- KVO b.c of vessel constriction and for need to administer emergency med.’s

74
Q

IV therapy: air embolism

A

air in the line
s/s: chest pain, SOB, decrease B.P., increase H.R., cyanosis, anxiety, confusion
tx: administer O, place pt. in left-lateral modified tradelenberg [air moves up :. air would move towards feet and away from heart and lungs]

75
Q

IV therapy: circulatory overload

A

s/s: increase B.P., distended neck veins, S.O.B.

tx: administer diuretic, slow down rate of infusion, increase H.O.B., KVO

76
Q

IV therapy: speed shock

A

caused by administration of IV push med.’s
s/s: dizziness, chest tightness, flushed face, irregular pulse
- these can occur in less than a minute

77
Q

IV therapy: hyperal

A

hyperalimentation is a type of TPN
indicated for pt.’s w/ GI disturbances, burns, cancer, malnourishment
composed of calories [in dextrose form, electrolytes, protein, vitamins, minerals
- individualized for a specific pt.’s needs each day

78
Q

IV therapy: intralipids

A

it is an isotonic, fat emulsion substance that comes in concentrations of 10-20-30%
provides calories in small volumes
contains soybean and egg phospholipids
the only sol’n. that can be given w/ hyperal
s/s pf hypersensitivity rx: tachycardia, N/V, fever, itching, chills
contraindicated in pt.’s w/ egg allergies or risk of fat embolism

79
Q

IV therapy: complications of TPN infusions

A

hyperglycemia
- due to the body’s inability to get used to the high concentration of dextrose
hypoglycemia
- due to sudden seizure of TPN
infection
- due to high concentration of dextrose
altered electrolyte, mineral, vitamin balances

80
Q

IV therapy: PCA pumps

A

enables the pt. to self-administer med. on PRN basis
programmed according to medical orders
- dosage, time intervals b/w doses, and lock-out intervals]
records the amount of med.’s received and the number of requests by the pt.
- this assessment, done by the nurse, can be given to the physician w/ intention to alter the order