Mid Term Flashcards

1
Q

How are A/R constables remunerated for performing authorized program activities?

A

A/R are not remunerated for performing authorized program activities. Not entitled to the same benefits as police officers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What information must you record in your notebook at the beginning of every shift?

A
  • Time and date (on- and off-duty)
  • Day of the week
  • Shift Assignment,
  • patrol area
  • call sign
  • Partner (name and PIN)
  • Weather conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should you do if you accidentally leave a blank page in your notebook?

A

Cross out the entire page and initial. Make note of the blank page when convenient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a law?

A

Law is a body of rules recognized and sanctioned by government that regulates the conduct of members of society, making it possible for many different people with many different interests to relate to each other in an equitable and orderly manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Differentiate between criminal law and civil law.

A

CRIMINAL LAW: deals with criminal offences or “crimes.” In Canada, the term “crime” refers to acts or omissions that violate federal laws, such as those set out in the Criminal Code (CC) and other laws, such as the Controlled Drugs and Substances Act (CDSA).

Under Canadian law, a criminal offence differs from offences against provincial or municipal laws.

CIVIL LAW: regulates the relationships between individuals or groups. Cases dealt with under civil law usually involve persons or groups being found liable for something and being ordered to pay a sum of money to another person or group as a form of restitution. For example, if a customer slips, falls, and is injured in a store due to negligence on the part of the storeowner, the case could be dealt with under civil law. Civil law covers such areas as property law, contract law, and torts (civil wrongs, such as assault and battery, and negligence).

The basic differences are that criminal law deal with offences against society, the objective is punishment/rehabilitation, the Crown prosecutes, Criminal procedure applies, only the Crown or court can stop the case, Crown versus accused and the Police deal with criminal problems; while on the other hand, deals with wrongs against individuals, the objective is compensation, the individual prosecutes, civil procedure applies, the individual can stop the case, plaintiff versus defendant, and the police do not deal with civil problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name five principles of common law.

A

Trial by jury
1. A free man has the right to be judged by his peers.

Presumption of Innocence
i. All accused persons are considered innocent until the contrary is proved.

Burden of Proof
i. The prosecution has the burden of proving the accused’s guilt beyond a reasonable doubt.

Reasonable doubt
i. A case against an accused person must be proved beyond a reasonable doubt; otherwise the accused must be found not guilty. This standard of proof exceeds the civil standard of proof, which is based on a “balance of probabilities.”

Accused’s right to silence
i. The accused has the right to remain silent and cannot be forced to give evidence at trial. This is a safeguard against self-incrimination. An accused may give evidence if he or she wishes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the purpose of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms?

A

The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms guarantees the rights and freedoms set out in it subject only to such reasonable limits prescribed by law as can be demonstrably justified in a free and democratic society.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What right is guaranteed under Section 8 of the Charter?

A

Everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable search or seizure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name three situations that would be encompassed by the term “detention.”

A

a. Physical detention (Situation where a police officer assumes physical control)
b. Verbal detention (When a police officer assumes control over accused by a demand or direction)
c. Psychological detention (Instances where accused believes there is no choice but to comply)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the significance of Section 24(2) of the Charter?

A

Evidence that was obtained in a manner that infringed or denied any rights or freedoms of the Charter shall be excluded from court proceedings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Distinguish between indictable, summary, and dual offences.

A

Indictable offences are the most serious offences and are tried by indictment. Only the federal government may create this classification of offence. Some examples of indictable offences are: Causing death by criminal negligence Murder Aggravated assault Mischief that endangers life Break and enter to a dwelling Robbery Mischief over $5,000 Theft over $5,000 Depending on the offence, maximum penalties can range from life in prison to as low as two years

Summary conviction offences are generally the least serious and may be created by both the federal government and the provinces. All provincial offences are summary conviction offences. Some examples of federal summary conviction offences are: Unlawful assembly Indecent acts Causing disturbance Trespassing at night The maximum penalties available for federal summary conviction offences are laid out in Section 787(1) of the Criminal Code, which states: Unless otherwise provided by law, everyone who is convicted of an offence punishable on summary conviction is liable to a fine of not more than five thousand dollars or to a term of imprisonment not exceeding six months or to both.

Dual or hybrid offences are offences for which the Crown has the option of proceeding either by summary conviction or by indictment. Only the federal government may create dual offences. Some examples of dual offences are: Operation while impaired Assault Theft under $5,000 Mischief under $5,000 Break and enter to a non-dwelling The Crown usually decides which way to proceed either before the accused appears in court or at the arraignment. The Crown would have specific reasons for proceeding one way or the other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define the term “mens rea.”

A

Commonly referred to as the “guilty mind,” mens rea is the required mental element of a crime, and addresses the question, “What did the accused mean to do?” It is not necessary that the accused intended to commit a crime; it is enough that the accused intended to carry out a particular act that is recognized by law as a crime

Mens rea takes one or more of the following three forms: Intention, Knowledge, and Recklessness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Distinguish between burden of proof and standard of proof.

A
  • The burden of proof (or responsibility) to prove an accused’s guilt beyond a reasonable doubt rests upon the Crown.
  • Whereas standard of proof refers to the level or degree of proof required for a finding of liability. In a criminal prosecution, the standard of proof that the Crown must meet is proof beyond a reasonable doubt. This is a very high level of proof, but it does not mean proof beyond all doubt or absolute proof.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

List the facts in issue that must be established in any legal case.

A
  • Date, time, and location of the offence (including jurisdiction).
  • Identity of the offender who committed the alleged offence.
  • Essential elements of the offence in question.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define the term “essential elements of the offence.”

A

The term “essential elements of the offence” refers to the basic components in the definition of the offence, including both the actus reus and mens rea components. These elements are specific to each particular offence and are indicated in the wording of the law that has been violated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name three divisions of Provincial Court.

A
  • Criminal
  • Youth
  • Traffic
  • Also (family, small claims)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the term “informations” refer to?

A
  • The term “informations” refers to the process of laying a criminal charge against someone involving laying the “information,” which is the document that begins the criminal trial process. An information is a written statement of declaration made on oath before a justice by an “informant” who accuses a person of having committed an offence. The charge is laid once the information has been sworn.
  • The document which begins the criminal trial process, an information is a written statement of declaration made on oath before a justice by an “informant” who accuses a person of having committed an offence.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

5 Basic common law duties of police constables: PPPEA

A
  • Preserve the peace
  • Prevent crime
  • Protect life and property
  • Enforce the law
  • Apprehend offenders
    PPPEA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sir Robert Peel based his policing on 9 general principles:

A

The basic mission for which the police exist is to prevent crime and disorder.

The ability of the police to perform their duties is dependent upon public approval of police actions.

Police are the public and the public are the police.

  • The degree of cooperation of the public that can be secured diminishes proportionately to the necessity of the use of physical force.
  • The test of police efficiency is the absence of crime and disorder, not the visible evidence of police action dealing with it.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the five services provided by police.

A
  1. Responding to and investigating current and past crimes
  2. Detecting crime and apprehending offenders
  3. Preventing crime
  4. Preserving and maintaining peace and order
  5. Protecting persons and property
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name two officer ranks that may be used in both municipal police departments and the RCMP.

A

Superintendent and Inspector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the term “integrated policing model” refer to?

A

An organizational model based on the principles of information sharing, collaboration, and coordinated planning and response. Ie departments coming together and working together and sharing information and resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is PRIME?

A

A tool that allows police anywhere in BC to read a report written by any other officer in the province. It provides a uniform reporting format that is used for all incident reports in BC. Police Records Information Management Environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define the term “community policing”

A

Focus was placed not only on apprehending and punishing offenders but also on addressing risk factors that increase the likelihood of criminal behavior. These new approaches required the participation not only of justice system personnel, but of the entire community. Emphasis was laid on increased decision making at the community level and the use of the community problem-solving approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Under what condition may an A/R? constable be authorized to operate a marked police vehicle?

A

Only for transportation purposes while performing community policing and crime prevention activities.

26
Q

Give 3 examples of tasks A/R constables must not perform.

A
  1. Issue, serve, or execute documents related to court proceedings ie. Tickets, warrants.
  2. Guard prisoners.
  3. Engage in covert surveillance or non-uniform duties.
  4. While not on duty, identify themselves as an A/R for personal gain or enforcement purposes.
27
Q

Name 6 possible disciplinary measures that may be applied in cases where an A/R Cst. has committed a disciplinary default:

A
  1. Release from program
  2. Suspension from program
  3. Reduction of rank
  4. Transfer or reassignment
  5. Written reprimand
  6. Verbal reprimand
28
Q

List the three ways in which detention may occur:

A

Physical detention i.e. assumes control.

Verbal detention i.e. by demand or direction (words of detention)

Psychological detention where the individual assumes they are detained and feels they must comply

29
Q

Under what condition may a police officer detain a person against his or her will?

A

If the officer is carrying out some lawful purpose that requires the person to be detained (e.g. search for weapon, a breathalyzer test, investigative detention).

30
Q

In what types of situations may a peace officer employ the power of arrest?

A

o Officer has personal knowledge of a person having committed an indictable offence.

o Officer has reasonable grounds to believe that an indictable offence has been committed.

o Has reasonable grounds to believe that person is about to commit an indictable offence.

o Find person committing a criminal offence.

o Officer has reasonable grounds to believe that there is a warrant of arrest.

31
Q

What is the impact of Section 9 of the Charter on the power of arrest?

A

Everyone has the right not to be arbitrarily detained or imprisoned. An officer must have reasonable suspicion (Articulable cause or grounds to suspect).

32
Q

Name the three fundamental rights that Section 10 of the Charter guarantees to a person who is arrested or detained.

A

The right to be informed promptly of the reason for arrest or detention.

The right to be informed without delay of the right to counsel.

The right to have access to counsel without delay.

33
Q

Give two examples of informational duties that police officers must fulfil when arresting a person.

A

Informed any arrested person of their right to counsel.

Officer took steps to ensure arrestee understood their rights.

Privacy requirements when receiving counsel.

34
Q

Give three examples of implementational duties that police officers must fulfil when arresting a person.

A

Reasonable Opportunity: Provide detainee with reasonable opportunity to exercise this right, and Cease Questioning until the opportunity to obtain advice from counsel.

Privacy.

Counsel of choice.

35
Q

What does the term “wilfully” mean in the context of the offence of mischief?

A

Not only to commit the act voluntarily, but to commit with an evil intention. Doing the act deliberately, intentionally, and without a justifiable excuse. Can include failing to do something that is part of their job. Also does not care (reckless).

36
Q

What type of offence is theft?

A

Theft over 5000 and under. Under 5000 is a dual offence, over 5000 is indictable.

37
Q

List four actions that may be considered acts of “breaking in.”

A
  • Breaks a hole in the wall.
  • Breaks a door or window.
  • Picks a lock of a door or opens it with a key.
  • Lifts a latch or loosens any other fastening that closes doors or windows.
38
Q

What does the term “entering” mean in the context of the offence of break and enter?

A

Any part of his/her body enters or any instrument held in their hand.

39
Q

What four categories of location does the element of “place” refer to in the context of the offence of break and enter?

A

A dwelling (house),

a building or structure other then a house,

a railway vehicle, a vessel, an aircraft, or a trailer,

and a pen or an enclosure in which fur-bearing animals are kept.

40
Q

How is the term “weapon” defined in the Criminal Code?

A

Any thing used, designed to be used or intended for use in causing death or injury to any person, or for the purpose of threatening or intimidating any person.

41
Q

What are the essential elements of the offence of robbery?

A
  • The accused person steal property by using or threatening violence to a person or property.
  • Steals property from a person and assaults or uses any violence on that person immediately before, during, or after the theft.
  • The accused assaults someone with the intention of stealing from that person.
  • Steals property while being armed with an offensive weapon or imitation of one.
42
Q

Differentiate between custodial arrest and symbolic arrest.

A

Custodial Arrest: Physically taking control of someone to arrest them.

Symbolic Arrest: Where using the worse of “arrest” alone are sufficient.

43
Q

Name three situations in which the power of citizen’s arrest may be exercised:

A

When a person sees someone committing an indictable or dual offence.

When a person sees someone escaping from law.

When a person witnesses a crime related to a person’s property.

44
Q

What are the peace officer’s duties when detaining a person?

A

A. Identify oneself as a peace officer.

B. Inform the person of the true reason for the detention.

C. Inform the person of the right to retain and instruct counsel.

45
Q

Define the term “interim release method” and give two examples.

A
  • Allows an accused person to be released and compel them to court instead of waiting in jail.
  • Release the person and issue a notice to appear.
  • Release the person and compel court attendance by way through summons.
46
Q

Distinguish between a search and a seizure.

A
  • When a police officer (or agent of the state) intrudes upon a person’s reasonable expectation of privacy.
  • The taking of a thing from a person by a public authority without that person’s consent.
47
Q

Define the term “exigent circumstances” and list the two categories of such circumstances.

A
  • Or “urgent” circumstances. Emergent circumstances that confront law enforcement and necessitate immediate police action.
  • Protection of life and Protection of property (evidence).
48
Q

What actions may police officers take during a vehicle stop that would not violate a person’s right to be secure against unreasonable search?

A
  • Inspect vehicle for protection of the officer.
  • Use of a flashlight to illuminate the interior.
  • Open doors and looking into the rear of a vehicle.
  • Talk to passengers.
  • May search the vehicle for documents related to vehicle.
49
Q

List five common law authorities to search without a warrant.

A
  • Search/Seizure incident to lawful arrest.
  • Plain view seizure.
  • Search/Seizure with consent.
  • Search for the protection of life.
  • Search while in hot pursuit.
50
Q

List the three conditions that must exist in order for a peace officer to be justified in using deadly force to prevent an escape.

A
  • Lawful arrest, with or without a warrant.
  • The person to be arrested takes flight to avoid arrest.
  • The flight cannot be prevented by reasonable means in a less violent manner.
51
Q

The Criminal Code specifies criteria that would justify the use of force to prevent the commission of a crime. What are those criteria?

A
  • To prevent the commission of an offence (i) for which if committed, the person may be arrested without a warrant and (ii) would likely cause immediate and serious injury to any person or property of anyone
52
Q

List the steps in the continuous assessment process illustrated in the NUFF.

A

Assess, Plan, and Act. Then, Re-assess.

53
Q

What is the difference between a passive resistant subject and an active resistant subject?

A

Passive: Does not interfere with the officers attempts to control, but does nothing to assist.

Active: Does not assault the officer, but actively resists in a way that will not allow the officer to gain control i.e. Pushing/pulling away.

54
Q

State three of the basic principles of the IMIM.

A
  • Primary duty of an officer is to preserve and protect life.
  • Primary objective of any intervention is public safety.
  • Officer safety is essential to public safety.
55
Q

In the IMIM, what type of subject behavior does the term “grievous bodily harm or death” refer to?

A

The subject exhibits actions that the officer reasonably believes are intended to or likely to cause grievous bodily harm or death to any person.

56
Q

Explain how perception may affect an officer’s overall assessment of the situation.

A

Personal characteristics and life experience will influence an officer’s perception of a situation.

57
Q

Distinguish between physical control and intermediate weapons as defined under the IMIM.

A

Physical control is use of physical techniques that does not involve the use of a weapon. Whereas intermediate weapons involves the use of less-lethal weapons.

58
Q

In what situations may a peace officer take charge of a child? Which provincial law grants these powers?

A

Child, Family and Community Services Act (CFCS) Section 15 permits an officer to take charge of a child: under the age of 12, has acted in a manner prohibited by law or has failed or refused to act in a manner required by law.

59
Q

Under the Liquor Control and Licensing Act, police officers may arrest without a warrant a person who commits any one of four offences. What are those offences?

A
  • Remain in a service area, establishment, or at event site after the person is requested to leave.
  • Enter back into the place/establishment within 24 hours after the time the person was requested to leave.
  • Without lawful excuse, possess a knife or weapon in a service area or establishment.
  • Any person found intoxicated in a public place, for the protection of themselves and others. (41(2)).
60
Q

The Mental Health Act authorizes the police to apprehend a mentally disordered person under certain circumstances. What are they?

A

Section 28: (a) is acting in a manner that is likely to endanger that person’s own safety or the safety of others and (b) is apparently a person with a mental disorder.

61
Q

Under the Motor Vehicle Act, a police officer may arrest without warrant a person whom the officer finds driving while prohibited under Sections 95 or 102. In what other circumstances may an officer arrest a person without a warrant under this legislation?

A
  • Finds driving without insurance.
  • Believes on reasonable ground has committed an offence under Section 68 of the MVA (hit and run). There is no requirement to find the offender driving.
62
Q

Define the term “reasonable grounds”.

A

A set of facts that would cause an ordinary, cautious, and prudent person to believe that an event has
happened. Reasonable grounds go beyond mere suspicion.. There must be factual evidence that causes one to believe that a person has committed a crime.

The peace officers subjective beliefs.

The objective basis.