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mid sem test Flashcards

1
Q

what is pharmacokinetics?

A

the way the drug is absorbed, distributed, biotransformed and excreted from the body.

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2
Q

receptors in pharmacology

A

will also cause adverse effects

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3
Q

statement best describes drug therapy for a particular vulnerable group is

A

neonate & older adult a prolonged half-life can occur due to their decreased kidney function.

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4
Q

if a drug has a first pass effect this means?

A

after administration it is metabolised first before it reaches the systemic circulation

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5
Q

drug formulations in correct order from lowest to highest bioavailability are?

A

pill, oral suspension, oral solution, IV solution.

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6
Q

a drug contraindicated during pregnancy is

A

category X

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7
Q

excretion of drugs occurs

A

via breast milk, tears and kidneys

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8
Q

older adult may be at increased risk for drug accumulation because

A

liver function decreases with age

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9
Q

a drug that has a short half-life is

A

less likely to cause problems for breast feeding mums

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10
Q

example of type B adverse effect is

A

anaphylaxis

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11
Q

phenytoin, an anticonvulsant, is a potent inducer of hepatic metabolising enzymes. when the other drugs metabolised by the same hepatic metabolising enzymes are co-administered with phenytoin this can result in

A

decreased serum concentrations of the other drugs and possible non-therapeutic effect.

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12
Q

pharmacist-only drugs

A

are sold in pharmacies only and must be purchased from the pharmacist.

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13
Q

the most clinically significant drug-drug interactions are those involving drugs

A

that are metabolised by the liver

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14
Q

narrow therapeutic index drugs

A

they require regular monitoring

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15
Q

if an antibiotic is acid stable, and it is given orally

A

it will have good bioavailability

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16
Q

advice NOT to give a pt using miconazole cream>

A

it should be applied for at least 48 hrs after infection has cleared.

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17
Q

MOA of terbinafine means that it

A

is faster acting than an azole

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18
Q

false statement about antibiotic doxycycline
-true-
is bacteriostatic
can be taken as prophylactic treatment for malaria
should be taken 2 hrs apart from a calcium supplement.

A

is safe to use in pregnancy

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19
Q

example of a group of cell-cycle nonspecific drugs is

A

cytotoxic antibiotics

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20
Q

Zidovudine (AZT) is an example of a prodrug. if someone has impaired liver function this will result in

A

a decrease in response to treatment

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21
Q

codeine can be used to treat all of the following EXCEPT

  • acute pain
  • dry cough
  • diarrhoea
A

urinary retention

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22
Q

pharmacotherapeutic actions of paracetamol are

A

analgesic and antipyretic

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23
Q

all of the following are non-opiod EXCEPT

  • naproxen
  • paracetamol
  • diclofenac
A

tramadol

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24
Q

signs of withdrawal symptoms from an opioid analgesic overdose include

A

dilated pupils and hypertension

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25
antidote for paracetamol overdose is
acetylcysteine
26
inhibition of the synthesis of COX-1 catalysed prostaglandins is associated with all of the following EXCEPT -^ risk of GI ulcers, bleeding, decreased renal perfusion
decreased inflammation
27
providone-iodine is an example of a topical
antiseptic
28
the enzyme that atazanavir targets is
HIV protease
29
naloxone acts as an
opioid antagonist
30
WHO ladder of analgesia for acute pain treatment, the correct order of meds in pain plan from start to finish would be?
oxycodone, tramadol, paracetamol
31
anaphylactic shock would be treated by administration of a
sympathomimetic
32
MOA of a rocuronium is to bind to
nicotinic receptors and block the acetyline from binding
33
quick relief from an acute exacerbation of asthma would be best achieved by using
salbutamol
34
antidote for organophosphate poisoning is
atropine
35
anticholinesterase drugs have a common adverse effect of
hypotension
36
tachycardia is a common adverse effect of all of the following EXCEPT - ipratropium - terbutaline - theophylline
budesonide
37
adrenergic receptor found on the presynaptic neuron is
a2
38
Adrenergic receptors can be stimulated by
norepinephrine and dopamine
39
dobutamine is indicated for circulatory shock because it is a
B1 agonist
40
treatment used for the motor symptoms of parkinson's is oral administration
benzatropine
41
having hypertension is a contraindication of using nasal decongestants containing
phenylephrine
42
an example of pre-med drug used to reduce gastric and resp secretions is
atropine
43
a stepwise approach to asthma management in children would dictate that
the lowest dose of each drug should be used in there is good control of asthma symptoms.
44
beta blockers are classified as
sympatholytics
45
drugs that inhibit monoamine oxidase enzyme will lead to
increased synaptic activity of norepinephrine
46
Pilocarpine
glaucoma
47
tramadol
moderate pain
48
paracetamol
mild pain
49
metronidazole
giardia
50
aciclovir
herpes simplex
51
sodium cromoglicate
asthma
52
diclofenac
arthritic pain
53
miconazole
thrush
54
salmeterol
long-acting beta 2 agonist
55
prednisone
steroid
56
glycopyrronium
long-acting muscarinic antagonist
57
metoprolol
beta blocker
58
ciprofloxacin
quinolone antibiotic
59
clotrimazole
azole antifungal
60
doxycycline
tetracycline antibiotic
61
dolutegravir
integrase inhibitor
62
clarithromycin MOA
inhibits the synthesis of bacterial proteins
63
cefalexin MOA
inhibits cell wall synthesis
64
ipratropium MOA
binds to muscarinic receptors and blocks a parasympathetic response
65
codeine MOA
binds to opioid receptors & stops the release of substance P
66
celecoxib MOA
inhibits COX-2 enzymes &stops production of prostaglandins
67
amphotericin B MOA
alters cell membrane permeability
68
efavirenz MOA
inhibits reverse transcriptase & stops the synthesis of viral NA
69
dobutamine MOA
binds to adrenergic receptors & stimulates a sympathetic response
70
opioid analgesic adverse effects
nausea & vomiting, urinary retention, sedation
71
antimetabolites adverse effects
decreased WBC, anorexia, diarrhoea
72
beta blockers adverse effects
postural hypotension, diarrhoea, bronchospasm
73
NSAID drugs adverse effects
GI upset, sodium, water retention
74
Aminoglycosides adverse effects
GI upset, superinfection, ototoxicity
75
quinolones adverse effects
GI upset, superinfection, rash
76
short acting beta 2 adrenergic agonists adverse effects
tachycardia,fine tremors,increased blood glucose
77
antimuscarinic drugs adverse effects
dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation
78
the constipation of morphine and naloxone leads to increased adverse effects
False
79
a drug is considered 'safe' during breast feeding if the infant's dose is less than 20% of the maternal dose (mg/kg)
false
80
polypharmacy is the same as cocktail therapy
false
81
enteric coated tablets increase bioavailability of a drug
true
82
pt at risk of GI complications who needs to be on an NSAID, should also be prescribed a proton pump inhibitor
true
83
drinking alcohol with metronidazole can increase the risk of drowsiness
false
84
disinfectants are used to kill microorganisms on the skin
false
85
fast metabolisers of cedeine are at increased risk of toxicity
true
86
teratogenicity is an example of type b adverse effect
false
87
salbutamol can be administered via IV to treat premature labour
true
88
flucloxacillin is a broad antibiotic
false
89
nicotinic antagonists can b used to aid smoking cessation
false
90
why is celebrex is good for rheumatoid arthritis?
good for relieving symptoms of arthritis such as swelling & joint pain as well as its a selective COX-2 inhibitor & does not inhibit the COZ-1 enzyme, prostaglandins that have a role providing gastroprotection are still being produced, therefore there is a lower risk of GI disturbances.
91
what does it mean by controlled release tablets
drugs released slower and steadier into the bloodstream over period of time. usually used for drugs that have short half-life and hence allows for reduced frequency of dosing
92
why oxycodone should be used with caution and under close supervision?
has a potential for tolerance and physical dependency upon repeated administration. greater at risk of misuse/abuse can lead to physical dependancy and strong psychological dependency
93
why doses should be reduced in pt with renal or hepatic impairment
drug is metabolised in the liver & excreted via urine or faeces. hepatic impairment would decrease metabolism of the drug -prolonged half-life. renal impairment would decrease excretion of drugs' metabolites leading to possible toxicity. lower dose will reduce risk of toxicity and will ensure therapeutic effect is carried out.
94
what does increased in viral load mean?
likely indicates drug resistance and/or poor compliance.
95
advantages of using cocktail therapy to treat HIV infection?
by using a combination of antiretroviral drugs that target dif stages of viral life cycle you can significantly inhibit viral replication reducing viral load. if HIV virus is inhibited it decreases the risk of HIV virus mutating possibly leading to drug resistance
96
MOA of budesonide and eformoterol?
- potent anti-inflammatory, it decreases airway inflammation and spasms. - long acting beta2 agonist that causes bronchodilation by relaxing smooth muscles when inhaled therefore treating exacerbation
97
which inhaler has an adverse effect of oral thrush
budesonide- it increases risk of opportunistic infection by Candida

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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