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Physiology: Midterms to finals > Mid: Blood physio > Flashcards

Mid: Blood physio Flashcards

1
Q

is a fluid connective tissue

A

Blood

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2
Q

Blood composition

A

 Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells)
 Leukocytes (White Blood Cells)
 Platelets
 Plasma

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3
Q

fluid portion of blood

A

Plasma

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4
Q

It’s the fluid part where the erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets are going to be suspended.

A

Serum

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5
Q

T/F, serum is poor in coagulation factors

A

True

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6
Q

In vivo:
In vitro:

Serum/blood

A

In vivo: Plasma

In vitro: Blodd

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7
Q

Functions of erythrocyte

A

Oxygen transport
Nutrient transport
Excretion of waste products
Acid-base balance

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8
Q

Major function of RBCs

A

Oxygen transport

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9
Q

T/F, Higher animals: Hgb is in a free state

A

False, lower

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10
Q

About ___% of Hgb leaks through the capillary membrane into the tissue spaces or through the glomerular membrane of the kidney

A

3

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11
Q

Hgb in the cells is an excellent acid-base buffer. T/F

A

True

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12
Q

TSH produced by the ___ is carried by blood to act upon the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones.

A

pituitary gland

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13
Q

Blood in general also Integrates with the endocrine system, T/F

A

true

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14
Q

protective mechanism of our body carried by blood through WBC

A

inflammatory response

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15
Q

Total blood volume

A

Approximately 5 liters

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16
Q

Blood volume composition

A

45%: erythrocytes
1%: leukocytes and platelets
54%: plasma

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17
Q

one of the ways by which we assess the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.

A

Hematocrit

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18
Q

Common Blood Tests

A

Complete Blood Count (CBC)
Platelet count
Peripheral blood smear

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19
Q

What does CBC determine

A 
	Hemoglobin
	RBC count
	Hematocrit - 
	WBC count
	Differential count
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20
Q

percentage of blood that is in cells

A

Hematocrit

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21
Q

It identify and quantitate the different white blood cells in the sample

A

Differential count

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22
Q

determine the number of circulating platelets

A

Platelet count

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23
Q

where blood is placed on a slide and its content is visually evaluated

A

Peripheral blood smear

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24
Q

view the different types of RBC disorders or WBC

disorders

A

Peripheral blood smear

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25
Q

T/F, The study of blood smears will help us to Identify disease affecting blood and blood forming organs

A

true

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26
Q

Serves as a clue in the diagnosis of viral, bacterial, and parasitic infections

A

Blood smears

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27
Q

Aka Red Blood Corpuscles (RBCs)

A

ERYTHROCYTES

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28
Q

it is the misnomer of RBC because they do not have a nucleus

A

Minute corpuscles

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29
Q

Where RBC develops as true cells

A

bone marrow

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30
Q

Normal RBC count

A
  1. 2 M/ cu. mm males

4. 7 M/ cu. mm females

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31
Q

Shape of RBC

A

Biconcave disc

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32
Q

Diameter of RBC

A

7.8 μm

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33
Q

Thickness of RBC

A

2.5 μm at the thickest point

1μm or less in the center

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34
Q

RBC presents a {greater/lesser} surface area in relation to its volume

A

greater

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35
Q

The average volume of RBCs is around

A

90-95 cu um

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36
Q

T/F, Persons living at high altitude would have greater number of RBCs

A

true

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37
Q

Concentration of Hgb in 1 RBC

A

34g/dl

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38
Q

In normal people, the hemoglobin level should be at the {min/mid/max}

A

max

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39
Q

each gram of pure hemoglobin is capable of combining with __mL of oxygen

A

1.34

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40
Q

Quantity of Hgb in males and females

A

15 g/ 100 ml (males)

14 g/100 ml (females)

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41
Q

is the percentage of blood that is made up of cells

A

Hematocrit

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42
Q

Normal Value of Hct

A

40-45%

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43
Q

process of blood formation

A

Hematopoiesis

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44
Q

T/F, Hematopoiesis takes place at various intervals

A

true

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45
Q

Where does hematopoiesis occur

A

liver,
spleen,
thymus
bone marrow and the lymph nodes

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46
Q

T/F, one blood forming organ is going to be more dominant than the other blood forming organ.

A

true

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47
Q

Early weeks of embryonic life, the nucleated RBCs are produced in the __, .

A

yolk sac

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48
Q

RBCs produced in yolk sac is termed as

A

primitive nucleated RBCs

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49
Q

Middle trimester of gestation, ___becomes the main organ for production of RBCs.

A

liver

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50
Q

In middle trimester of gestation, what other sites produces rbc aside from liver

A

Lymph

spleen

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51
Q

Stage where there is start of blood cell formation in the bone marrow

A

last month of gestation and after birth

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52
Q

During the last month of gestation and after birth, site exclusive in production of RBC

A

bone marrow

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53
Q

T/F, essentially all

bones would produce RBCs until a person is 5 years old.

A

true

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54
Q

after age 20, what structures becomes quite fatty and produce no more RBCs?

A

marrow of long bones except for the proximal portions of the humeri and tibia

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55
Q

Organs for secondary hematopoiesis

A

liver and other primitive blood forming organs

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56
Q

diseased states wherein there is a severe decrease in production of blood cell

A

Bone marrow disease

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57
Q

secondary hematopoiesis will occur during Bone marrow disease, T/F

A

true

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58
Q

what bones will produce most rbc beyond age 20

A

membranous bones (the vertebra, sternum,
ribs and
ileac bone)

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59
Q

50 y/o will have __% blood forming cells, ___% fat

A

50: 50

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60
Q

___ y/o will have ___% blood forming cells, 90% fat

A

90: 10

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61
Q

T/F, as we grow older, bone marrow produces more blood forming cells

A

false, less

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62
Q

bone marrow which is actually the combination of (2)

A

blood forming cells fatty tissues.

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63
Q

the source of platelets

A

megakaryocytes

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64
Q

Formation of the multiple different blood cells from the ___ in the bone marrow

A

original pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell (PHSC)

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65
Q

 blood cells will begin their lives in the bone marrow as

A

pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell (PHSC)

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66
Q

the source of all circulating blood

A

pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell (PHSC)

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67
Q

it can develop into any type of the cells when they eventually further mature, they can have a certain level of commitment

A

uncommitted stem cell

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68
Q

T/F, pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell (PHSC) are uncommitted stem cell

A

true

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69
Q

a unit of spleen which can develop into the erythrocytes/ granulocyte

A

CFU-S (colony forming unit- spleen)

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70
Q

unit of erythrocyte which which can develop into the erythrocytes

A

CFU-E (colony forming unit-erythrocytes)

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71
Q

a unit which will develop into the granulocytes or some of your WBCs like the neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils as well as the monocytes

A

CFU-GM

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72
Q

A unit which will develop into your platelets

A

CFU-M

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73
Q

2 types of lymphocytes:

A

a. T-lymphocytes

b. B-lymphocytes

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74
Q

the first or most immature cell that can be identified as belonging to the RBC series

A

Proerythroblast

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75
Q

these large numbers of cells are going to be formed from the CFU-E stem cells

A

Proerythroblast

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76
Q

end product of Proerythroblast

A

mature erythrocytes

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77
Q

Basophil erythroblast stains with what dye? and structure? and color

A

Basic
cytoplasm
color blue

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78
Q

stage that will herald Hgb production

A

Polychromatophilic erythroblast

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79
Q

This is what we identify in the peripheral blood smear as the nucleated RBCs

A

Orthochromatic erythroblast

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80
Q

Aka “Polychromatophilic erythrocyte”

A

Reticulocytes

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81
Q

This is the result when orthochromatic erythroblast would extrude its nucleus.

A

Reticulocytes

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82
Q

T/F, Reticulocytes still contains some remnant of the golgi apparatus, the mitochondria, and a few other cytoplasmic organelles

A

true

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83
Q

A stage where cells pass from the bone marrow to the blood capillaries through diapedesis

A

Reticulocytes stage

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84
Q

term for squeezing through the pores of the capillary membrane

A

diapedesis

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85
Q

Reticulocytes stage, the remaining basophilic material in the reticulocytes would normally disappear within ___days

A

1-2

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86
Q

after 1-2 days, cell will now become the ___

A

mature erythrocyte

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87
Q

T/F, reticulocytes have long life span

A

false, short

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88
Q

concentration of reticulocytes among rbc

A

less than 1%.

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89
Q

T/F, reticulocytes can become elevated in normal conditions

A

false, pathologic conditions

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90
Q

What is the staining used for reticulocytes

A

• Supravital Staining of the reticulocyte with the use of New Methylene Blue

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91
Q

The most essential regulator of RBC production

A

Tissue oxygenation

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92
Q

Decrease oxygen transport will __ rbc production

A

increase

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93
Q

type of feedback relation between oxygen concentration and rbc production

A

negative feedback

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94
Q

T/F, in anemia. the bone marrow will immediately begin to produce large quantities of RBCs.

A

true

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95
Q

T/F, Destruction of major portions of the bone marrow by any means would stop rbc prodcution

A

false, increase by attempting to supply the demand of rbc

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96
Q

High altitude - the Hgb will also {increase/decrease}

A

increase

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97
Q

Hgb increase will increase the concentration of __

A

oxygen transported thru blood

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98
Q

T/F, diseases of the circulation that will cause decreased blood flow will decrease in the rate of red cell production

A

false- increase rate

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99
Q

hormone secreted by the kidney

A

Erythropoietin

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100
Q

main function of Erythropoietin

A

increase the production of RBC

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101
Q

hormone that stimulates the bone marrow to increase RBC production

A

Erythropoietin

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102
Q

Erythropoietin stimulate the production of ____from hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow

A

proerythroblasts

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103
Q

How Erythropoietin increase production of rbc

A

Stimulate the production of proerythroblasts from hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow and causes these cells to pass more rapidly through the different erythroblastic stages than they normally do, further speeding up the production of new RBCs

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104
Q

Vitamins that are very important in the production of red blood corpuscles

A

Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid

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105
Q

T/F, Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid are essential for the synthesis of RNA

A

false, DNA

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106
Q

Vitamin B12 and Folic Acid is required for the formation of __, which is essential building blocks of DNA

A

thymidine triphosphate

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107
Q

What will result due to lack of either B12 or folic acid in erythropoiesis?

A

abnormal and diminished DNA – failure of nuclear maturation and cell division

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108
Q

Cells larger than normal RNA due to absence of B12 or folic/ failure of maturation of rbc

A

Macrocyte

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109
Q

T/F, when RBCs mature, they will become smaller

A

true

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110
Q

largest cell in erythropoiesis

A

proerythroblast

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111
Q

the smallest cell in erythropoiesis

A

red blood corpuscle

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112
Q

Most essential biochemical component of the erythrocytes

A

Hemoglobin

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113
Q

Hgb is Composed of __ chain

A

4 globin chain

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114
Q

T/F, Hgb is a polypeptide

A

True

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115
Q

Ratio of heme molecule to globin chain in Hgb

A

1:1

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116
Q

Elemental content of heme

A

Iron

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117
Q

Ratio of iron to heme molecule

A

1:1

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118
Q

4 types of globin chains:

A

Alpha, Beta, Gamma & Delta

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119
Q

Types of Hgb

A

Hgb A
Hgb A2
Hgb F

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120
Q

Hgb type that makes up majority of our Hgb (96-97%)

A

Hgb A

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121
Q

chains of Hgb A

A

2 alpha and 2 beta chains

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122
Q

chains of Hgb A2

A

2 alpha and 2 delta

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123
Q

chains of Hgb F

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma

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124
Q

T/F, myoglobin and some cytochromes does not require iron

A

false, will require

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125
Q

total quantity of body iron

A

4-5 grams

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126
Q

percentage of iron found in Hgb

A

65%

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127
Q

percentage of iron found in Mgb

A

4%

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128
Q

percentage of iron found in heme compounds that promote intracellular oxidation

A

1%

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129
Q

percentage of iron combined with transferrin

A

0.1%

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130
Q

percentage of iron stored as ferritin

A

15-30%

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131
Q

storage form of iron

A

ferritin

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132
Q

Form of Iron excreted in the Small intestine

A

transferrin

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133
Q

Aids in formation of transferrin

A

Apotransferrin

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134
Q

T/F, Iron is tightly bound to transferrin

A

false, loosely

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135
Q

Why iron is loosely bound to transferrin

A

to release iron to the different parts of the body (e.g: you can release it in the different hepatocytes as well as in the reticulo-endothelial cells of the bone marrow)

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136
Q

Iron plus apoferrittin is

A

Ferritin

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137
Q

Best test to confirm diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia

A

Serum ferritin level

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138
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of iron deficiency anemia

A

BONE MARROW FERRITIN

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139
Q

Iron can be degraded to ___ to be excreted

A

bilirubin

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140
Q

Source of iron loss primarily of women

A

Menstruation

141
Q

T/F, Degradation of iron to bilirubin also produces iron

A

true

142
Q

Abnormalities in the appearance of RBCs (6)

A

Anisocytosis
Poikilocytosis
Macrocytes
Hypochromia

143
Q

Abnormalities variation in size of rbc

A

Anisocytosis

144
Q

Abnormalities shape of rbc

A

Poikilocytosis

145
Q

abnormally large RBCs

A

Macrocytes

146
Q

pale than normal RBC

A

Hypochromia

147
Q

Young RBCs which enter the circulation

A

Polychromatophilic erythrocytes/ reticulocytes

148
Q

Describe the Normal RBCs in H&E (color, size)

A

color pink with an area of pallor at the center that is around 1/3 of the diameter of the entire corpuscle

149
Q

Polychromatophilic erythrocytes/ reticulocytes have what color in H&E, and why

A

Bluish or greenish tinge due to basophilic staining of residual ribosomes

150
Q

Definite identification of reticulocyte would depend on

A

supravital staining

151
Q

Describe Normal rbc cytoskeleton

A

Spectrin linked together by actin and attached to the membrane by ankyrin

152
Q

Certain disease conditions associated with cytoskeleton abnormalities are:

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

Hereditary elliptocytosis

153
Q

sphere shaped or ball-shaped RBCs which will have abnormalities when it comes to pliability as well as volume

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

154
Q

cigar-shaped RBCs

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis

155
Q

aggregation of RBCs like a stack of coins

A

Rouleaux formation

156
Q

Rouleaux formation is seen after an increase in

A

fibrinogen

other protein levels in the serum such as globulin levels

157
Q

Rouleaux formation can cause abnormality in what test

A

Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) test

158
Q

RBC response in a Moderately hypotonic solution

A

swelling

159
Q

RBC response in a strongly hypotonic solution

A

hemolysis or rupture

160
Q

A decrease in Hgb concentration

A

ANEMIA

161
Q

Classification of anemia (4)

A

Factor deficiency anemia

Production defect anemia

Depletion anemia

Based on RBC morphology

162
Q

lack of an important nutrient that is used for the forming of RBCs

A

Factor deficiency anemia

163
Q

Factors lacking in Factor deficiency anemia (3)

A

Iron,
vit. B12
folic acid

164
Q

Anemia secondary to failure of the blood forming organs to produce and deliver mature RBCs to the peripheral blood

A

Production defect anemia

165
Q

Causes of Production defect anemia

A

o Replacement of bone marrow by fibrosis
o Hypoplasia of the bone marrow
o Toxic suppression of bone marrow
o bone marrow is replaced by malignant cells

166
Q

malignancy of the WBCs

A

leukemia

167
Q

one of the possible clinical manifestations for leukemia

A

anemia

168
Q

loss of RBCs from the peripheral blood

A

Depletion anemia

169
Q

Causes of Depletion anemia (4)

A

o Hemorrhage
o Hemolytic anemia
o RBC destruction and loss in the presence of intact vasculature
o Hypersplenism/ over-active spleen

170
Q

small cells with an area of pallor that is large

A

Microcytic, hypochromic

171
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia occurs in what pathological states (3)

A

o Chronic iron deficiency
o Thalassemia
o Occasionally, chronic systemic disease

172
Q

Normocytic, hypochromic anemia occurs in what pathological states (2)

A

o Anemia due to systemic disease

o Lead poisoning

173
Q

Normocytic, normochromic anemia occurs in what pathological states (6)

A 
o	Anemia due to systemic disease
o	Pituitary, thyroid, adrenal disease
o	Acute blood loss
o	Hemolytic anemia
o	Bone marrow replacement or hypoplasia
o	Hypersplenism
174
Q

Macrocytic, normochromic anemia occurs in what pathological states (2)

A

o Vit. B12 or folic acid deficiency

o Malabsorption syndrome

175
Q

deficiency of folic acid, Vit. B12, and intrinsic factor from stomach mucosa

A

Megaloblastic Anemia

176
Q

The viscosity of blood depends almost entirely on

A

concentration of RBCs.

177
Q

The blood viscosity may fall to as low as 1.5 times of water (normal viscosity: 3 times of water)

A

Severe anemia

178
Q

T/F, In Severe anemia will increase the resistance of blood flow in the peripheral blood vessels

A

false, decrease

179
Q

T/F, In severe anemia, Far greater than normal quantities of blood flow through the tissues will return to the heart

A

true

180
Q

Cardiac output in severe anemia

A

Increased

181
Q

results from the diminished transport of oxygen by the blood

A

Hypoxia

182
Q

severe anemia • causes the peripheral tissue blood vessels to {dilate/constrict}

A

dilate

183
Q

end result of increase pumping workload of the heart secondary to sever anemia

A

high output cardiac failure

184
Q

Increase in Hemoglobin

A

POLYCYTHEMIA

185
Q

Types of Polycythemia (3)

A

Polycythemia Vera

Relative polycythemia

Secondary Polycythemia

186
Q

neoplastic condition type of polycythemia

A

Polycythemia Vera

187
Q

What is excessive in Polycythemia vera (3)

A

erythrocytes
WBCs
platelets
also Hct

188
Q

In Polycythemia Vera, there is {mild, moderate, severe} degree of neutrophilic immaturity

A

moderate

189
Q

Contents of bone marrow aspirate in PCV

A

marrow hyperplasia with increase in 3 blood element precursors

190
Q

RBC and Hct count in PCV

A

RBC: 7-8 M/ um
Hct: 60-70%

191
Q

caused by a genetic aberration in the hemocytoblast cells that produce the blood cells

A

Polycythemia Vera

192
Q

T/F, In PCV, hemocytoblast will no longer stop producing RBCs even if too many cells are already present.

A

true

193
Q

What feedback mechanism fails to control PCV

A

feedback mechanism

194
Q

In PCV, there is also an increase in blood volume. T/F

A

true

195
Q

Explain the basis of viscosity of PCV

A

In addition to an increase in hematocrit, there will be an increased in total blood volume, resulting to an engorgement of the entire vascular system, so the blood becomes viscous and as a consequence some of the capillaries may become clogged, so the viscosity of blood in polycythemia vera could actually reach around 10 times as compared to that of water

196
Q

RBC mass falsely appears increased due to decreased plasma volume

A

Relative polycythemia

197
Q

In RPC, plasma {decrease/increase} will appear that the hematocrit is increased even if there is no actual increase in hematocrit.

A

decrease

198
Q

Pathological condition that causes RPC (2)

A

Dehydration

Stress polycythemia

199
Q

Presence of a specific underlying cause for increase in RBC mass

A

Secondary Polycythemia

200
Q

What is increased in Secondary poly

A

erythropoietin levels is increased

201
Q

In PCV, there is ab increase of erythropoietin levels. T/F

A

False, no increase

202
Q

Conditions that causes secondary poly (4)

A

o hypoxia
o smoking
o Cushing’s syndrome
o neoplasms

203
Q

Effects of polycythemia on Cardiac output , why

A

near normal (increased viscosity of the blood in polycythemia wherein the blood flow through the peripheral blood vessels is often very sluggish. So the increased blood viscosity will decrease the rate of venous return to the heart)

204
Q

Effects of polycythemia on Arterial pressure, why

A

Normal in most people with polycythemia (blood pressure regulating mechanism can usually offset the tendency for increased blood viscosity.)

In about 1/3- arterial pressure is elevated

205
Q

How many days does mature RBC remain active in circulation

A

120 days

206
Q

What organ removes aged RBC

A

Spleen

207
Q

accounts for most normal RBC death

A

Extravascular or macrophage-mediated hemolysis

208
Q

The signals to macrophages that initiate RBC ingestion may include (3)

A

binding of autologous IgG,

membrane lipid changes,

cation balance changes

209
Q

results when mechanical factors breach the cell membrane while the cell is in the peripheral circulation

A

Intravascular hemolysis

210
Q

Minute colorless anucleate corpuscles

A

PLATELETS

211
Q

Shape of platelets

A

Flat biconvex disc

212
Q

size of platelets

A

2-3 um

213
Q

PLATELETS Normal count

A

150,000-450,000 /cu mm

214
Q

cytoplasmic fragments of megakaryocytes

A

PLATELETS

215
Q

Platelets function (2)

A

Patch small defects in the endothelial lining of blood vessels and limit hemorrhage by promoting blood coagulation

formation of platelet plugs or the primary plug which will need to be reinforced by secondary coagulation

216
Q

Mobile units of the body’s protective system

A

LEUKOCYTES

217
Q

Where is leukocytes formed (2)

A

Bone marrow

lymph tissue

218
Q

what leukocyte type is formed in bone marrow (3)

A

granulocytes monocytes and a few lymphocytes

219
Q

what leukocyte type is formed in lymph tissues

A

lymphocytes and plasma cells

220
Q

where leukocyte is formed partially

A

lymph tissues

221
Q

T/F, True cells are Nucleated

A

true

222
Q

Describe true cells morphology in general

A

Spherical, motile, varying in sizes

223
Q

T/F True cells may or may not contain granules

A

true

224
Q

Leukocytes are true cells, T/F

A

true

225
Q

They offer rapid, potent defense against an infectious agent

A

leukocytes

226
Q

WBC that have the ability to seek out and destroy foreign invaders

A

granulocytes and monocytes

227
Q

Types of leukocytes

A
  1. Granular

2. Agranular

228
Q

aka Polymorphonuclears

A

Granulocytes

229
Q

These are wbc that are granular (3)

A

o Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils
o Polymorphonuclear Eosinophils
o Polymorphonuclear Basophils

230
Q

Agranulocytes aka

A

Agranular Leukocytes

231
Q

part of the monocyte-macrophage system

A

Monocytes

232
Q

WBC that are agranular (3)

A

Monocytes

Lymphocytes and Plasma cells

233
Q

They (2)protect the body against invading organisms mainly by ingesting them (Phagocytosis)

A

Granulocytes and Monocytes

234
Q

function mainly in connection with the immune system (2)

A

Lymphocytes and Plasma cells

235
Q

They release antimicrobial or inflammatory substances that have multiple effects that aid in destroying the offending organism.

A

Granulocytes and Monocytes

236
Q

Humoral immunity- antibody production, and the Cell-mediated immunity are function of (2)

A

Lymphocytes and Plasma cells

237
Q

main function of leukocytes

A

Rapid, potent defense against an infectious agent

238
Q

Concentration of Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils in blood

A

62.0%

239
Q

most abundant WBC in blood

A

Polymorphonuclear Neutrophils

240
Q

Concentration of Polymorphonuclear Eosinophils in blood

A

2.3%

241
Q

Concentration of Polymorphonuclear Basophils in blood

A

0.4%

242
Q

Concentration of Monocytes in blood

A

5.3%

243
Q

Lymphocyte concentration in blood

A

30%

244
Q

second most abundant wbc

A

lymphocyte

245
Q

The normal adult usually has about ___ WBCs per microliter of blood

A

7,000

246
Q

First step of genesis of wbc

A

Early differentiation of the pluripotential hematopoietic stem cell into the different types of committed stem cells

247
Q

T/F, WBC will come from the different pluripotent stem cell but they will form different units

A

false, same PHSC

248
Q

Granulocytes and Monocytes comes from what unit

A

CFU-GM

249
Q

Megakaryocytes comes from what unit

A

CFU-M

250
Q

responsible for the formation of lymphocytes

A

Lymphoid stem cells

251
Q

Two major lineages of WBCs

A

o myelocytic lineage

o lymphocytic lineages

252
Q

lineage that starts with myeloblast

A

myelocytic lineage

253
Q

lineage that starts with lymphoblast

A

lymphocytic lineages

254
Q

Granulocytes and Monocytes formed only in the ___

A

bone marrow

255
Q

T/F, Granulocytes and Monocytes are stored within the marrow until they are needed in the circulatory system

A

true

256
Q

T/F, Granulocytes and Monocyte about 2 times as many white blood

A

false, three

257
Q

how many days can the granulocyte and macrocytes stored in the marrow supply the body

A

6 days

258
Q

Lymphocytes & Plasma Cells produced mainly in the___

A

various lymphogenous tissues

259
Q

various lymphogenous tissues where Lymphocytes & Plasma Cells are produced

A

lymph glands, spleen, thymus, tonsils, and various pockets of lymphoid tissue such as Peyer’s patches underneath the epithelium in the gut wall

260
Q

Lymphocytes & Plasma Cells mostly stored in

A

various lymphoid tissues

261
Q

most immature large; high nucleus-cytoplasm ratio

A

Myeloblast

262
Q

forms immature granules

A

Promyelocyte

263
Q

D-shaped nucleus that is pushed to one side

A

Myelocyte

264
Q

indented kidney-shaped nucleus

A

Metamyelocyte

265
Q

S- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus

A

Band cell

266
Q

T/F, Mature neutrophil, eosinophil, or basophil are part of myeloid series

A

true

267
Q

Myeloid Series include (5)

A 
Myeloblast 
Promyelocyte 
Myelocyte 
Metamyelocyte
Mature neutrophil, eosinophil, or basophil
268
Q

Lymphoid Series (4)

A
  • Lymphoblast
  • Prolymphoblast
  • Prolymphocyte
  • Lymphocyte
269
Q

plasma cell comes from

A

B-lymphocyte

270
Q

cells that produce Antibodies

A

B-lymphocyte

271
Q

Other names of neutrophil

A

Neutrophilic leukocytes or heterophils

272
Q

Most abundant among the WBCs

A

neutrophil

273
Q

T/f, neutrophil is smaller than rbc

A

false, larger

274
Q

neutrophil have how many lobes

A

2-5

275
Q

lobes of neutrophils are connected by

A

a thin strand of chromatin

276
Q

Lobes of neutrophils are polymorphonuclear, T/F

A

true

277
Q

what gender contain some neutrophils with appendage representing the X chromosome

A

female

278
Q

structure with drumstick appendage on side of neutrophil

A

Barr body

279
Q

Granules of neutrophils (2)

A
  1. Specific Granules

2. Azurophil Granules

280
Q

Specific Granules of neutrophils (2)

A

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase,

phagocytins

281
Q

Lysosomal enzymes granule content of neutrophil

A

Azurophil Granules

282
Q

Main function of neutrophil

A

Mainly for Phagocytosis

283
Q

Other function of neutrophil

A

2nd line of defense against bacterial invasion

284
Q

1st line defense resident is

A

macrophages

285
Q

composes 1-2% of the leukocyte population

A

Eosinophils

286
Q

aka acidophils

A

Eosinophils

287
Q

Eosinophils stains what color

A

pink

288
Q

Nucleus of eosinophil has

A

2 oval lobes connected by a nuclear thread

289
Q

Eosinophil granules contain ___enzymes but with a higher concentration of peroxidase

A

lysosomal

290
Q

Lysosomal enzyme that is dominant in eosinophil

A

peroxidase

291
Q

Conditions that Increases circulating eosinophils (2)

A

o Allergic and hypersensitivity conditions

o Parasitism

292
Q

Eosinophil Role in inflammation (2)

A

o detoxify some of the inflammation

o to phagocytize and destroy allergen- antibody complexes

293
Q

How eosinophil detoxify some of the inflammation

A

by inducing substances released by the mast cells and basophils

294
Q

effect of eosinophil phagocytize and destroy allergen-antibody complexes

A

prevent excess spread of the local inflammatory process

295
Q

Condition that increases eosinophils

A

Parasitism

296
Q

Response of eosinophil in Schistosomiasis

A

(1) releases hydrolytic enzymes from their granules, which are modified lysosomes
(2) releases highly reactive forms of oxygen that are especially lethal to parasites
(3) releases the granules, highly larvacidal polypeptide called major basic protein

297
Q

invasion of the body’s muscles by the Trichinella parasite (“pork worm”) after a person eats undercooked infested pork

A

Trichinosis

298
Q

Stain blue purple with basic dyes

A

basophils

299
Q

least of the circulating WBCs

A

basophils

300
Q

basophils makes up ___of the total WBC count

A

0.5%

301
Q

Nucleus of basophil

A

Elongated nucleus may appear U or bilobed, but segmentation is less distinct

302
Q

They have very coarse granules such that the nucleus is hidden by the granules

A

basophils

303
Q

T/F, Basophil Granules are metachromatic

A

true

304
Q

Basophil Granules contains what enzyme (3)

A

o Peroxidase
o Histamine
o Heparin

305
Q

T/F, Basophil are similar to large tissue mast cells located immediately outside many of the capillaries in the body

A

true

306
Q

Basophils contain receptors for __

A

IgE

307
Q

cells that will degranulate after cross linking with IgE

A

mast cells and basophils

308
Q

Basophil and mast cell will rupture and release what subtances (6)

A

histamine,
bradykinin,
serotonin,
heparin,

slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis,

a number of lysosomal enzymes

309
Q

what are the agranular leukocytes

A

Lymphocyte

Monocyte

310
Q

Second most numerous class of leukocytes

A

Lymphocyte

311
Q

Small spherical cells with an intense staining slightly indented nucleus

A

Lymphocyte

312
Q

It is 7-9 um close to erythrocyte size

A

Lymphocyte

313
Q

What is the staining pattern of Lymphocyte

A

basophilic

dark staining

314
Q

__ has no specific granules

A

Lymphocyte

315
Q

main function of lymphocyte

A

responsible for Acquired Immunity – Cellular and Humoral Immunity)

316
Q

T/F, increase in the number of small lymphocytes has diagnostic significance in acute viral infections and in some immunodeficiency diseases

A

false. large

317
Q

Types of lymphocytes (3)

A

B lympho
T lymho
NK cells

318
Q

B lympho is responsible for what response

A

Humoral

319
Q

B lympho mediates

A

humoral immunity (antibody production)

320
Q

What other roles does B lympho have (5)

A

Bacterial phagocytosis and lysis

  • Anaphylaxis
  • Allergic hay fever and asthma
  • Immune complex disease
  • Bacterial and some viral infections
321
Q

T lympho mediates

A

Cell-mediated immunity

322
Q

Lymphocyte seen in transplant rejection

A

T-lympho

323
Q

What other roles does T-lympho have (5)

A

Delayed hypersensitivity (tuberculin reaction)

  • Graft-versus-host disease
  • Tumor surveillance or destruction
  • Intracellular infections
  • Viral, fungal, and parasitic infections
324
Q

distinct lymphocyte subset and comprise approximately 10% of the circulating lymphocyte

A

NK cells/ Natural Killer Cells

325
Q

Recognize and destroy foreign cells, tumor cells, and even some infected cells

A

NK cells/ Natural Killer Cells

326
Q

increased in the number of lymphocytes

A

Lymphocytosis

327
Q

Commonly associated with a normal or decreased total WBC count

A

Lymphocytosis

328
Q

t/f, Viral infection decreases total wbc count

A

true

329
Q

the largest cells in the peripheral circulation

A

Monocytes

330
Q

cell that has “lacey” cytoplasm

A

Monocytes

331
Q

Monocyte Grayish blue tint with scattered ___granules

A

azurophil

332
Q

describe monocyte nucleus

A

Nucleus is eccentric in position and oval or reniform (kidney-shaped)

333
Q

T/F, monocyte chromatin is roughly granular

A

false, finely

334
Q

monocyte does not have vacoules, t/f

A

false, it has

335
Q

vacoules of monocyte is for

A

phagocytosis

336
Q

function of monocyte

A

o Phagocytosis
o Antigen processing

as macrophage

337
Q

what does monocyte transform to in tissues

A

macrophage

338
Q

monocyte is elevated in what conditions

A

o Recovery phase of acute infections

o Some chronic infections (e.g. Tuberculosis)

339
Q

fixed tissue macrophage reside in particular tissue, t/f

A

true

340
Q

wondering macrophage roam and gather at site of infection, t/f

A

true

341
Q

how many hrs will wbc circulate whole blood after release in bone marrow

A

4-8hrs

342
Q

how many days will wbc reach tissues where they are needed

A

4-5 days

343
Q

in tissue infection, lifespan is lengthened to a few hours, t/f

A

false, shortened

344
Q

___proceed rapidly to the infected area, perform its function but destroyed in the process

A

granulocytes

345
Q

wbc suicide commando

A

granulocytes

346
Q

transit time of mono in blood

A

10-20 hrs

347
Q

larger in size and have more capabilities as compared to monocytes

A

Tissue macrophages

348
Q

tissue macrophage can live for months, T/F

A

true

349
Q

Lymphocytes enter the circulatory system continually along the drainage of

A

lymph from the lymph nodes and other lymphoid tissues

Physiology: Midterms to finals (2 decks)

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