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Micro test 3 INTRANET > Microtest3INTRANET > Flashcards

Microtest3INTRANET Flashcards

1
Q

What did Girolamo Fracastoro come up with?

A

Diseases are caused by transferable spore like particles that could transmit infection

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2
Q

What did Van Leeuwenkoek come up with?

A

Invented microscope and was the first to describe microbes.

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3
Q

What did Semmelweis come up with?

A

Hand washing prevents puerperal (childbirth) fever.

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4
Q

What did Lister come up with?

A

Antiseptic in surgery.

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5
Q

What did Pastuer disprove?

A

Spontaneous generation.

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6
Q

Who is the father of microbiology?

A

Van Leeuwnekoek.

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7
Q

Who came up with the germ theory?

A

Pasteur.

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8
Q

What did Kock come up with?

A

Koch’s postulates, and TB vaccine.

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9
Q

What did Griffith come up with?

A

Bacteria are capable of transferring genetic information.

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10
Q

Who came up with anthrax, and rabies vaccines?

A

Pasture.

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11
Q

What did Avery, McCarty, and Macleod come up with?

A

Transforming substance is DNA.

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12
Q

What did Watson and Crick come up with?

A

Structure of DNA.

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13
Q

What did John Cairns come up with?

A

Bacterial chromosome is circular.

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14
Q

What shape will Coccus (cocci) bacteria be?

A

Spherical.

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15
Q

What shape will Bacillus (bacilli) bacteria be?

A

Rod-shaped.

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16
Q

What shape will Spirillum (spirilla) bacteria be?

A

Spiral.

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17
Q

What shape will coccabacillus bacteria be?

A

rod-shaped with round ends, mistaken for coccus.

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18
Q

What shape will spirochete bacteria be?

A

spiral shaped cell with unique motility.

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19
Q

What shape will pleomorphic bacteria be?

A

Vary in shape.

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20
Q

With Gram positive what will surround the bacteria’s cell membrane?

A

Thick peptidoglycan layer.

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21
Q

What color will Gram positive bacteria stain?

A

Purple.

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22
Q

What will create a negative charge in gram positive cell walls?

A

Teichoic acids.

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23
Q

What will surround the cell membrane with gram negative cell walls?

A

Thin peptidoglycan layer.

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24
Q

With gram negative cell wall what will surround the thin peptidoglycan layer?

A

Outer membrane.

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25
Q

What is embedded in the outer membrane of a gram negative cell wall?

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

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26
Q

What will the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) embedded in the Outer membrane of a gram negative cell wall be composed of?

A

Lipid A and O specific polysaccharide/

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27
Q

The LPS of the gram negative cell walls is toxic and is known as what?

A

Endotoxin.

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28
Q

What is the toxic portion of the LPS?

A

Lipid A.

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29
Q

What color will gram negative cell walls of bacteria stain?

A

Pink.

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30
Q

What will acid fast cell walls stain like?

A

Due to high lipid content they do not readily take up stain.

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31
Q

How can you get an acid fast cell to stain?

A

Requires unique dyes and heat to stain.

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32
Q

What is the genus in which all species are acid-fast?

A

Mycobacterium

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33
Q

What are bacterial cells that lack a cell wall like?

A

Cell membranes have high sterol content which gives rigidity to the cell.

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34
Q

What is the normal model of a phospholipid bilayer?

A

Fluid mosaic model with proteins moving around.

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35
Q

What are 2 ways a cell membrane will be selectively permeable?

A
  1. Facilitated diffusion. 2. Active transport.
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36
Q

Which type of selective permeablity will rarely be used in bacteria?

A

Facilitated diffusion.

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37
Q

What is active transport of bacterial cell membranes like?

A

Transport proteins will move substances acrossed the membrane and energy is required.

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38
Q

Where will oxidative phosphorylation take place in bacteria?

A

Cell membrane.

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39
Q

Where will enzymes used in DNA replication of bacteria be located at?

A

Cell membrane.

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40
Q

What is a bacteria mesosome?

A

Invaginations of the cytoplasmic membrane that can form into vesicles.

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41
Q

What is a possible role of a mesosome?

A

Cell division.

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42
Q

What is periplasmic space?

A

Space between the inner and outer membranes in gram negative cells.

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43
Q

What is a nucleoid?

A

Region of bacterial cell containing DNA.

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44
Q

What is the plasmid?

A

Small extrachromosomal DNA.

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45
Q

What type of replication will plasmid be involved in?

A

Autonomous.

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46
Q

What are bacterial ribosomes used for?

A

Organells composed of ribosomal RNA and protein.

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47
Q

What are bacterial storage granules?

A

accumulations of high molecular weight polymers.

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48
Q

What are 2 other names for storage granules?

A

Inculsion bodies, granular inclusions.

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49
Q

Flagella is for motility and what?

A

Can act as a virulence factor (Capablitiy to cause disease).

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50
Q

Bacteria pili serve what purpose?

A

Adherence factors, and a virulence factor.

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51
Q

What do sex pili do?

A

Transfer plasmids.

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52
Q

Bacteria capsules are aka?

A

Glycocalyx.

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53
Q

Bacteria capsules are external structures that do what?

A

Protect walls around some Gram + and gram -.

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54
Q

How will bacteria capsules act as virulence factors?

A

They impede phagocytosis and the bacteria will survive longer.

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55
Q

What 2 gram + bacteria have the external structure endospore?

A

genera bacillus, and clostridium.

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56
Q

What is the role of endospores?

A

Protective not reproductive.

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57
Q

Endospores are protective against what?

A

Heat, drying, disinfectants.

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58
Q

The earliest classification system was proposed by who?

A

Linnaeus.

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59
Q

Originally linnaeus came up with how many kingdoms?

A

Two.

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60
Q

More recently who came up with the idea of 5 or 6 kingdoms?

A

Woese.

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61
Q

Most recently a 3 domain system was proposed due to what?

A

DNA comparison.

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62
Q

What are the 3 domain systems?

A

Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya.

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63
Q

What is the order of bacterial nomenclature?

A

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, species, strain.

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64
Q

What nomenclature do we use to name an organism in this class?

A

Genus and occasionally strain.

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65
Q

What morphological characterisitics are used for bacterial identification?

A

Colony characterisitcs, Cell shape, presence of capsule, endospore, staining (G+ or G-), Locomation.

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66
Q

Why will we do biochemical testing for bacterial identification?

A

Test for utilization of different substrates.

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67
Q

When classifying bacteria by molecular taxonomy why use size?

A

Size of bacterial genomes differ among genera and species.

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68
Q

What else will differ among genera and species with molecular taxonomy?

A

G+C content.

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69
Q

What 2 things are left to look for with molecular taxonomy besides size, and G+C content?

A

Nucleic acid similarity and protein similarity.

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70
Q

How is Diagnostic molecular pathology classification done?

A

In vivo hybridization. Create a labeled fluorescent probe of KNOWN DNA of suspect infection. Then apply the probe to tissue and see if a match with complementary strands is present in the tissue.

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71
Q

How is the Polymerase Chain reaction (PCR) classificatn done?

A

allow millions of copies of bacteria to be made. Use a primers specific for target.

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72
Q

How are immunological tests done to identify bacteria?

A

Analyze blood serum to search for specific antibodies present.

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73
Q

What indicates what bacteria will have a specific set of antigens?

A

Serotype.

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74
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

A virus that infects a bacterium.

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75
Q

Bacteriophages are aka?

A

Phage.

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76
Q

Phage are specific to what?

A

Host.

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77
Q

What is bacteriophage typing?

A

Infect a microbe with a phage and you can determine what the bacteria is.

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78
Q

What is antibiotic sensitivity testing?

A

Subject sample bacteria to various antibiotics and test for resistance or suceptibility then you can find out what type of bacteria it is.

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79
Q

What is the energy source for bacterial metabolism?

A

ATP.

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80
Q

How will bacteria get ATP?

A

Carbohydrate, lipid and protein catabolism. Also synthesis of cellular componenets a type of anabolism.

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81
Q

What is it called when catabolism and anabolism are tightly linked together?

A

Metabolism.

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82
Q

What is the primary carbohydrate used in energy production?

A

Glucose.

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83
Q

Metabolism of glucose occurs when with or without oxygen?

A

Both with and without.

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84
Q

One molecule of glucose is converted into what?

A

2 pyruvate and 2 ATP, amd 2 NADH.

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85
Q

Both Pyruvates from 1 glucose enter the TCA cycle aka krebs cycle and what happens to pyruvate?

A

Completely oxidized to water and CO2.

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86
Q

What is the net gain of 1 glucose (2 pyruvates) in the krebs cycle?

A

2 ATP, 6NADH, 2FADH2.

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87
Q

After the krebs cycle what enters the electron transport chain?

A

FAHD2.

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88
Q

What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain for bacteria?

A

Oxygen.

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89
Q

The electron transport chain synthesizes ATP how?

A

By proton motive force generated by passing electrons along chain.

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90
Q

What is the name of the theory of the way the electron transport chain works?

A

Chemiosmotic theory.

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91
Q

What is oxidative phosphorylation?

A

The use of reducing power of NADH and FADH2 to synthesize ATP.

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92
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

Transferring electrons from NADH and FADH2 to oxygen.

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93
Q

What is anaerobic respiration?

A

In absence of O2 electrons are transferred to an inorganic terminal electron acceptor like SULFUR.

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94
Q

What is fermentation?

A

In absence of O2 electrons are transferred to an organic terminal electron acceptor.

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95
Q

Fermentation is used by what type of organisms?

A

Those that cant respire.

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96
Q

How much ATP is made with Aerobic respiration?

A

38 atp.

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97
Q

How much ATP is made with Anaerobic respiration?

A

30 or less.

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98
Q

How much ATP is made with fermentation?

A

2-4 ATP.

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99
Q

What are Psychrophiles?

A

Microbes that live between -5 - 15 degrees C.

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100
Q

What are Mesophiles and Thermophiles?

A

Mesophiles- Microbes that live between 25-45 degrees C. Thermophiles- between 45-70 degrees C.

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101
Q

What type of bacteria lives in Humans?

A

Mesophiles.

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102
Q

What are obligate aerobes?

A

Microbes that have an absolute requirement for O2.

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103
Q

What are obligate anaerobes?

A

Microbes that can not multiply if O2 is present.

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104
Q

What is Facultative anaerobes?

A

Microbes that grow better if O2 is present, but can grow without it.

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105
Q

What are microaerophiles?

A

Microbes that require small amounts of O2 (2-10%)

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106
Q

What are aerotolerant anaerobes?

A

Microbes that are indifferent to O2 can grow with or without O2.

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107
Q

Will aerotolerant anaerobes use O2?

A

No they do not use it to transform energy.

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108
Q

What is O2-?

A

Superoxide.

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109
Q

Hydrogen peroxide is generated when using O2 and it is what type of agent?

A

Oxidizing agent.

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110
Q

What will damage cells more superoxide or hydrogen peroxide?

A

Superoxide anions.

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111
Q

How will cells prevent damage from Toxic oxygen derivatives?

A

They possess enzymes to degrade the toxins.

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112
Q

What Enzyme will convert O2- to H2O2?

A

Superoxide dismutase.

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113
Q

What enzyme will convert H2O2 to H20 and O2?

A

Catalase.

114
Q

What will the internal pH of microbes be?

A

7.0 pH.

115
Q

What pH will the internal pH of neutrophiles, Acidophiles, and Alkalophiles be?

A

near 7.0.

116
Q

What type of pH will the neutrophiles, acidophiles and alkalophiles be found living in?

A

Neutro- 5-8. Acid- below 5.5. Alkal- above 8.5.

117
Q

What type of bacteria live in the gut according to pH?

A

Neutrophiles.

118
Q

How will neutrophiles live in the acidic environment like the gut?

A

They have unique mechanisms to change pH.

119
Q

What type of microbes need water?

A

All.

120
Q

What are Halophiles?

A

Microbes that require high levels of salt to live and multiply more than 10%.

121
Q

What are Osmotolerant bacteria?

A

Those tolerant to high salt environments (up to 10%).

122
Q

What is a Pure Culture?

A

A populatin of organisms descended from a single cell and is therefore separated from all other species.

123
Q

What did Robert Koch do?

A

Developed solid media for bacterial growth.

124
Q

What did Robert Koch use for the solid media?

A

Agar-agar.

125
Q

What was and still is agar-agar used for?

A

Cooking it is derived from seaweed.

126
Q

Agar-agar was contained in dishes that were invented by who?

A

Koch’s lab assistant Julius Richard Petri.

127
Q

What is Binary fission?

A

After a bacterial cell has increased in size and doubled all of its parts it divides.

128
Q

When will bacterial chromosome be replicated?

A

Early in life of the cell.

129
Q

The cell during binary fission grows and elongates to what size?

A

About twice its size.

130
Q

With Binary fission DNA is partitioned and cell lays down new plasma membrane and cell wall material will be where?

A

Regions between attachmet site of 2 daughter genomes.

131
Q

What is the last step of Binary fission?

A

Cell wall grows.

132
Q

What is the growth of bacteria like?

A

Exponential.

133
Q

What is the time called that it takes the bacteria to double in number?

A

Generation time.

134
Q

In the closed system of a lab bacteria will grow following a pattern called what?

A

Growth curve.

135
Q

What is the first phase of the growth curve?

A

Lag Phase.

136
Q

What is the lag phase?

A

Cells “ramp up” by synthesizing macromolecules required for division and ATP.

137
Q

What is the second phase of the growth curve?

A

Exponential phase.

138
Q

What is th exponential phase like?

A

Cells dividing at a constant rate, growht is balanced with available nutrients.

139
Q

What is the 3rd phase of the growth curve?

A

Stationary phase.

140
Q

What is the stationary phase like?

A

Cells have exhausted supply of energy and nutrients, number of cells remains relatively constant.

141
Q

What is the 4th and last phase of the growth curve?

A

Death phase.

142
Q

What is the death phase like?

A

Population decreases as cells die off at constant rate.

143
Q

What are 2 methods used to measure growth?

A
  1. Direct-count method using microscope and hemacytometer. 2. Indirect- Cell counting using serial dilution.
144
Q

Microbial DNA is composed of how many nucleotides and which ones are they?

A

4 A,T,G,C.

145
Q

Which nucleotides pair with each other?

A

A-t, G-C.

146
Q

Will microbial DNA have the double stranded helical molecule?

A

YES.

147
Q

What is a codon?

A

A set of 3 neucleotides on a strand that encodes a specific amino acid.

148
Q

Where will DNA replication begin at?

A

A specific nucleotide sequence called a replication origin (ORI).

149
Q

For DNA replication synthesis occurs where?

A

ON both strands.

150
Q

How is DNA replication of both strands done?

A

By a variety of enzymes and proteins.

151
Q

DNA replication is it conservative or semi-conservative?

A

Semi-conservative.

152
Q

What direction will DNA replication proceed in?

A

5’ to 3’.

153
Q

Since both strands of DNA are replicated what will the 2 strands be called?

A

Leading and Lagging.

154
Q

What is the leading and what is the lagging strand?

A

Leading- synthesized continuously. Lagging strand- discountinuously synthesized.

155
Q

Lagging strand is aka?

A

Okazaki fragments.

156
Q

For gene expression DNA info is transferred to what?

A

An RNA copy of the gene.

157
Q

DNA to RNA is called what?

A

Transcription.

158
Q

RNA to Protein is called what?

A

Translation.

159
Q

What is synthesized from a DNA template by RNA polymerase?

A

mRNA.

160
Q

What are the RNA nucleotides?

A

A,U,G,C.

161
Q

What happens to the newly formed mRNA?

A

Moved to ribosomes for translation.

162
Q

How often will bacteria have more that one gene encoded on a single RNA?

A

Frequently.

163
Q

What is a set of adjacent genes coordinately controlled by regulatory protein and transcribed as a single RNA message?

A

Operon.

164
Q

Are Operons inducible or repressible?

A

Both.

165
Q

What is an inducible operon?

A

An RNA message that is off and can be induced to function.

166
Q

What do inducible operons need?

A

an inducer to prevent a repressor protein from binding to the operator.

167
Q

What is a repressible operon?

A

An RNA message that is on and can be repressed to stop function.

168
Q

What do repressible operons need?

A

They require that the operator be bound by a repressor.

169
Q

What is feedback inhibition of translation?

A

End products inhibit enzymes early in pathways preventing production of more endproducts.

170
Q

Where will spontaneous mutations occur at?

A

In the natural environment.

171
Q

What is a base substitution mutation?

A

An incorrect base is incorporated into the DNA during replication.

172
Q

With Base substitutions what is it called if only 1 base changes?

A

Point mutation.

173
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

A base substitution where it leads to substitiution of different amino acid in protein.

174
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

A base substitution where a stop codon instead of a normal amino acid codon happens.

175
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

Removal or addition of nucleotides that change the way the DNA sequence is read.

176
Q

What is transposons mutation?

A

Segments of DNA that can move spontaneously from one site to another is the same or different DNA molecules.

177
Q

Transposon mutations are aka?

A

Jumping genes.

178
Q

What is an Induced mutation?

A

A change in DNA sequence that is a result of a mutagen such as radiation, or chemical agents.

179
Q

Name 3 chemical mutagens and how they alter DNA molecules.

A

they alter the binding of the DNA. 1. Alkylating agents. 2. Base analogs. 3. Intercalating agents.

180
Q

What are 2 types of radiation that cause DNA mutations?

A

UV light and X-ray.

181
Q

How will UV light cause a mutation?

A

Thymine dimers.

182
Q

How will X-ray cause a mutation?

A

Cause single and double stranded breaks in DNA.

183
Q

Bacteria employ what 2 types of repairs of mutations?

A
  1. Mismatch (or excision repair). 2. SOS.
184
Q

What is a way people can study the normal function of genes?

A

Cause mutation and see what they are not doing.

185
Q

What are prototroph and auxotrophs?

A

Prototroph- cells that grow without added growth factors. Auxotrophs- cells that grow only with growth factors added in laboratory.

186
Q

What are conditional lethal mutants?

A

Mutants defective for the synthesis of an essential macromolecule under specific conditions.

187
Q

How many different ways to genetic recombination are there?

A

three.

188
Q

What are the 3 different types of genetic recombination?

A
  1. Transformation. 2. Conjugation. 3. Transduction.
189
Q

Transformation was first demonstrated by who?

A

Griffith.

190
Q

What did griffith see?

A

Some unknown (later known as DNA) compound transforming bacterial cells.

191
Q

What is naked DNA?

A

DNA not contained in a cell.

192
Q

What does it mean for a cell to be competent?

A

Able to take up naked DNA.

193
Q

Mechanisms of competence is not understood, but populations are naturally competent when?

A

During the exponential aka log phase of growth.

194
Q

How can cells be induced into competence?

A

Treated with CaCl2, or subjecting cells to electrical current called elctroporation.

195
Q

Conjugation requires what?

A

Contact between the 2 bacterial cells.

196
Q

What type of DNA can be transferred with conjugation?

A
  1. Plasmid DNA. 2. Chromosomal DNA.
197
Q

With conjugation what type of Plasmid is transferred?

A

The F plasmid (Fertility plasmid).

198
Q

The donor cell that has the F plasmid is known as what?

A

F+ or male.

199
Q

What is the recipient cell called that will get the F plasmid?

A

F- or female.

200
Q

F plasmid has a series of genes that code for what?

A

Formation of sex pilus.

201
Q

When will F plasmid allow chromosmal DNA to be transferred with conjugation?

A

Only if the F is integrated into the chromosome.

202
Q

What is a cell called with a F plasmid that has integrated into the chromosome?

A

Hfr cell.

203
Q

In order to transfer DNA a Hfr cell must do what?

A

excise(cut out) the F plasmid.

204
Q

The excised F plasmid is called what?

A

F prime.

205
Q

How is transduction done?

A

Transfer of DNA from cell to cell via bacteriophage.

206
Q

What 2 ways can bacteriophages interact with cells?

A
  1. Lytic. 2. Lysogenic.
207
Q

What will lytic be like?

A

Phage overtakes the cell.

208
Q

With lytic once the phage overtakes the cell what happens?

A

Assembly of new phages occurs and the bacterial chromosomal DNA may be incorporated.

209
Q

Eventually with lytic the cell will lyses and expel the new phages that contain the bacterail chromosomal DNA and then what could happen?

A

The phage is capable of transduction.

210
Q

What is lysogenic transduction like?

A

Phage (viral) DNA integrates into host DNA (called temperate phase).

211
Q

With lysogenic transduction how long will the phage DNA remain in the cell?

A

For a few to many generations.

212
Q

Cells with the Phage DNA inside will eventually do what?

A

become lytic.

213
Q

What happens if a viral gene is permanetly incorporated into bacterial DNA called lysogenic conversion?

A

This results in new bacterial strain.

214
Q

What are the 2 types of transduction?

A

Generalized and specialized.

215
Q

What is generalized transduction?

A

During production some phages accidentally package only bacterial chromosomal DNA not viral DNA in capsid.

216
Q

What happens to phages that accidentally package only bacterial chromosmal DNA not viral DNA in capsid?

A

They can still infect cells, but injects bacterial chromosomal DNA into host.

217
Q

What is specialized transduction?

A

The Phage packages both viral DNA and Bacterial chromosomal DNA.

218
Q

With specialized transduciton phages package specific chromosomal DNA found where?

A

Near where viral DNA integrated during lysogenic phase.

219
Q

What is biotechnology?

A

Use of biological techniques to solve practical problems and produce more useful products.

220
Q

What has made it possible to genetically alter organisms to give them more useful traits?

A

Rapid development of DNA techniques.

221
Q

What lead to the discovery of restricition endonucleases in bacteria?

A

recombinant DNA technology.

222
Q

What is a common approach used to clone a specific gene?

A

Insert a set of DNA framents that together make up the entire genome of the organism being studied into a population of E. Coli cells. Then find the gene you want to clone.

223
Q

What is a DNA library?

A

All genes of an organism being studied in a population of E. Coli.

224
Q

What is an application of genetic engineering for biotechnology?

A

Stimulate bacterial cells to produce protein products not normally produced.

225
Q

What is now available through bitechnology being mass produced in E. coli cells?

A

Insulin, human growth hormone, interferon, and factor VIII.

226
Q

What is a subunit vaccine and where do they come from?

A

A purifed antigenic determinant that is separted from the disese-causing organism. They come from biotechnology.

227
Q

What is replacement therapy?

A

Substituting less virulent microbes for virulent strains.

228
Q

What is an Iatrogenic infection?

A

Brought forth by a healer. An infection that happens as a result from medical treatment.

229
Q

What is a Nosocomial infection?

A

An infection from treatment in a hospital or hospital-like setting, but secondary to patients original condition.

230
Q

Can iatrogenic and nosocomial infections be airborne transmissions?

A

Yes.

231
Q

What is sterilization?

A

Absence of all life.

232
Q

What is disinfection?

A

Killing/removing pathogens.

233
Q

What is antiseptic?

A

Disinfectant applied to tissue.

234
Q

What is bactericide?

A

Substance that kills/removes only bacteria.

235
Q

What is sepsis?

A

Severe infection leading to systemic immune response.

236
Q

What is asepsis?

A

Using aseptic technique.

237
Q

What is microbiostasis?

A

Inhibition of microbe growth.

238
Q

What is spectrum?

A

Range of activity against microbes.

239
Q

What is activity?

A

Drugs tested to determine the lowest concentration that inhibits microbe called minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).

240
Q

What is combination therapy?

A

use of more than 1 antibiotic to increase spectrum or killing effect.

241
Q

What is synergism?

A

increased killing effect by using multiple antibiotics.

242
Q

What is antagonism?

A

1 antibiotic interferes with the action of another.

243
Q

What is an autoclave?

A

A method of sterilization that uses steam with pressure.

244
Q

What is moist heat?

A

A method of sterilization that uses steam, boiling water.

245
Q

What is dry heat?

A

A method of sterilization that uses flame, oven.

246
Q

How will antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Prevent cross-linking of peptidoglycan by binding to enzyme receptor sites.

247
Q

What type of antibiotics are inhibitors of cell wall synthesis?

A

Penicillin and derivatives (ampicillin and amoxicillin), cephalosporins, bacitracin, vancomycin, isoniazid.

248
Q

What is the chemical structure of penicillin?

A

beta-lactam.

249
Q

What type of bacteria is resistant to penicillin?

A

Those that produce Beta-lactamase.

250
Q

What is the chemical structure of cephalosporins?

A

beta-lactam.

251
Q

How are cephalosporin derivatives grouped?

A

Into generations by their antibicrobial properties.

252
Q

What type of bacteria are resistant to Cephalosporins?

A

Those that produce Beta-lactamase.

253
Q

Bacitracin is used how and why?

A

Only topically because it is toxic to the kidneys.

254
Q

Vancomycin was initially used for what?

A

Fighting staphylococcus aureus.

255
Q

Vancomycin is primarily used to treat what?

A

Systemic infections.

256
Q

What is the reason vancomycin WAS used to fight staph?

A

It is quite toxic to kidney, nerve deafness, skin rashes, throbophlebitis.

257
Q

What will Isoniazid inhibit?

A

Synthesis of mycolic acids in cell walls of mycobacteria.

258
Q

Isoniazid is active against what?

A

Mycobacteria only.

259
Q

What antibiotics are inhibitors of the cell membrane?

A

Polymyxin B and E.

260
Q

How will polymyxin B and E work?

A

They replace Mg2+ and Ca2+ from membrane lipids disrupting the structure of the bacterial cell membrane.

261
Q

Where and why will polymyxin B and E be used?

A

Skin because they are Toxic.

262
Q

Name the antibiotics that are inhibitors of protein synthesis?

A

Streptomycin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and erythromycin.

263
Q

Which of the antibiotics that are inhibitors of protein synthesis are broad spectrum?

A

All 4 of them.

264
Q

How is streptomycin often used?

A

In conjunction with penicillin-related antibiotics in strepotoccal infection for synergistic effects.

265
Q

Derivatives of streptomyocin are?

A

Kanamycin and gentamycin.

266
Q

What can tetracycline cause?

A

Photosensitivity, renal toxicity, and stains teeth in young children.

267
Q

What will chloramphenicol do?

A

Toxic and can cause aplastic anemia.

268
Q

What is erythromycins role?

A

Given to those allergic to penicilline and has a mild toxicity.

269
Q

Name 2 antibiotics that are inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis?

A

Rifampin, quinolones.

270
Q

What are Rifampin’s usage?

A

To treat TB in combination with other antibitotics.

271
Q

Is Rifampin toxic?

A

No.

272
Q

How will quinolones work?

A

They are inhibitors of nucleic acid synthesis and this inhibits DNA replication, and this makes them bacteriocidal.

273
Q

Give a common example of quinolones?

A

Ciprofloxacin.

274
Q

What type of drugs are the antimetabolites?

A

Sulfonamides (sulfa drugs).

275
Q

Are sulfonamides antibiotics?

A

No they are precursors to antibiotics.

276
Q

How are sulfonamides derived?

A

From sulfonic acid.

277
Q

Sulfonamides are inhibitors of what?

A

Folic acid synthesis.

278
Q

What type of spectrum will sulfonamides have?

A

Wide spectrum.

279
Q

Will sulfonamides be able to fight protozoa infections?

A

Yes.

280
Q

Give an example of a sulfonamide?

A

Dapsone- used to treat mycobacterium leprae (leprosy).

281
Q

Will toxicity always be seen with toxic antibiotic use?

A

No.

282
Q

What is sensitization of antibiotics?

A

Develop a rash, fever, anaphylaxis.

Micro test 3 INTRANET (1 decks)

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