Microparasitology and Public Health Flashcards

1
Q

Recurrent fever/ Borreliorosis

A

Borrelia recurentis

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2
Q

Sector of B. Recurentis

A

Body louse

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3
Q

CA of Lyme disease

A

burgdorferi

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4
Q

Polt’s disease

A

Spinal TB

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5
Q

Ghon complex

A

Primary PTB

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6
Q

Balanced growth

A

Stationary phase

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7
Q

Target of Bacterioidal

A

Log phase/ exponential

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8
Q

Penicillium notatum

A

Penicillin

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9
Q

Penicillium griseofulvin

A

Griseofulvin

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10
Q

Streptomyces noursei

A

Nystatin

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11
Q

Streptomyces orientalis

A

Vancomycin

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12
Q

Animalcules

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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13
Q

Streptomyces griseus

A

Streptomycin

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14
Q

Streptomyces erythreus

A

Erythromycin

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15
Q

Bacillus subtilis

A

Bacitracin

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16
Q

Cold loving

A

Psychro/cryophile

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17
Q

Cell theory

A

Robert Hooke

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18
Q

Moderate temp

A

Mesophile

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19
Q

Swan neck/ Goose neck flask experiment

A

Louis Pasteur

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20
Q

Home pasteurization

A

60°C for 30 minutes

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21
Q

High temp, short temp pasteurization

A

72°C x 15 mins

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22
Q

Ultra high temp pasteurization

A

140°C x 4 seconds

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23
Q

Milk borne pathogens

A

Mycobacterium bovis
Salmonella spp
Streptococcus spp

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24
Q

Heterolactic

A

Lactic acid
CO2
Ethanol

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25
Q

Father of Modern Micro

A

Paul Erlich

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26
Q

Antibacterial Chemotherapy

A

Paul Erlich

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27
Q

Magic bullet

A

606/Arsphenamine/Salvarsan

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28
Q

Treponema pallidum is causative agent of

A

Syphilis

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29
Q

Discovery of Penicillin

A

Alexander Fleming

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30
Q

Isolation of Penicillin

A

Florey and Chain

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31
Q

Discovered Bacillus anthracis

A

Robert Koch

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32
Q

Normal flora in Mouth

A

Viridans streptococcus

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33
Q

Normal flora in Colon/large intestines

A

BBELS
Bifidobacterium spp.
Bacteriodes spp.
E. Coli
Lactobacillus spp.

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34
Q

pH of fungi

A

5.5 to 6.5 (acidic)

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35
Q

Normal flora in urethra

A

Lactobacillus spp.

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36
Q

Normal flora in skin

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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37
Q

Circular genetics

A

Prokaryote

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38
Q

Single chromosome

A

Prokaryote

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39
Q

No organelle

A

Prokaryote

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40
Q

Ribosome subunit 70s, 50s, 30s

A

Prokaryote

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41
Q

Binary fission

A

Prokaryote

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42
Q

Arachebacteria

A

Prokaryote

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43
Q

True nucleus

A

Eukaryotes

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44
Q

Enzymes to fight free radicals

A

Superoxide dismutase
Peroxidase
Catalase

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45
Q

Obligated aerobe examples

A

PMNL
Pseudomonas
Mycobacterium
No adiabatic
Leostipira

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46
Q

Linear

A

Eukaryotes

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47
Q

Multiple chromosome

A

Eukaryotes

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48
Q

Membrane-bound organelles

A

Eukaryotes

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49
Q

Ribosome 80s, 60s, 40s

A

Eukaryotes

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50
Q

Mitosis

A

Eukaryotes

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51
Q

Red tide poisoning

A

Dinoflagellates

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52
Q

Obligated anaerobe

A

ABC
Actinomyces
Bacteriodes
Clostridium

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53
Q

High temp

A

Thermophile

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54
Q

Salt loving organism

A

Halophile

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55
Q

✅️ Superoxide dismutase
✅️ Peroxidase
❌️ Catalase

A

Aerotolerant anaerobe

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56
Q

⬇️ Superoxide dismutase
⬇️ Peroxidase
⬇️ Catalase

A

Microaerophile

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57
Q

✅️ Superoxide dismutase
✅️ Peroxidase
✅️ Catalase

A

Obligated aerobe

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58
Q

❌️ Superoxide dismutase
❌️ Peroxidase
❌️ Catalase

A

Obligated anaerobe

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59
Q

✅️Superoxide dismutase
❌️Peroxidase
✅️Catalase

A

Facultative anaerobe

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60
Q

Facultative anaerobe

A

E. Coli

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61
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobe

A

Lactobacillus
Propionic bacterium

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62
Q

Microaerophile

A

Leptospira (Obligated aerobe)
Treponema
Borellia

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63
Q

Savior of all mothers

A

Ignaz Semmelweiss

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64
Q

Removal of all forms of organisms

A

Sterilization

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65
Q

Alive spores/kill vegetative

A

Disinfection

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66
Q

Animate objects

A

Antiseptic

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67
Q

Inanimate object

A

Disinfectant

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68
Q

Moist heat

A

Autoclave - coagulation (MOA)

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69
Q

Ok for autoclave

A

Water
Glasses
Culture medium

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70
Q

Limit for autoclave

A

Olive oil
Solvents

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71
Q

Bacterial indicator for dry heat

A

Bacillus subtilis

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72
Q

Pore size for Membrane filter

A

0.2 mcm

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73
Q

ok for Membrane filter

A

Penicillin
vaccine
enzymes

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74
Q

Limit for membrane filter

A

Spirochetes
(LTB)
Leptospira
Treponema
Borellia
Mycoplasma (smallest free living bacteria)

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75
Q

HEPA filter (High efficacy particulate air)

A

removes >0.3 mcm

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76
Q

Canning process - envirronment

A

No O2 - no aerobes (PMNL)

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77
Q

Canning process - heating step

A

No aerobes - Kill ABC

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78
Q

Ionizing

A

x-ray and gamma

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79
Q

Ionizing - wavelength

A

shorter wavelength

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80
Q

Ionizing MOA

A

split molecules drives e- away

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81
Q

Non-ionizing

A

UV

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82
Q

Non-ionizing - wavelength

A

Loger wavelength

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83
Q

Non-ionizing MOA

A

Leads to thymine dimer

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84
Q

CC: Alcohol MOA

A

Denaturation

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85
Q

CC: Alcohol examples

A

Ethanol - 70%
ispropyl alcohol

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86
Q

CC: Alcohol - Limits

A

Spores
Clostridium dificille
Naked virus

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87
Q

CC: Aldehyde - MOA

A

Akylation

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88
Q

CC: Aldehyde - examples

A

Formaldehyde and Glutaraldehyde

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89
Q

CC: Biguanide - example

A

Chlorhexidine

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90
Q

CC: Biguanide - uses

A
  • for pre-op bath
  • for MRSA decolonization
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91
Q

CC: Chemical Preservative - examples

A

Methylparaben, Propylparaben, and Nitrates/Nitrites

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92
Q

Methylparaben

A

Prevent molds

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93
Q

Propylparaben

A

prevent yeast

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94
Q

Nitrates/Nitrites

A
  • for preservation
  • red color
  • prevent grwoth of Clostridium botulinum
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95
Q

Nitrates/Nitrites reacts with amine

A

becomes Nitrosamines (Stomach/esophagus CA)

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96
Q

CC: Detergent/soap - MOA

A

Reduce surface tension

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97
Q

CC: Detergent/soap - examples

A

Quaternary NH4+ salts
Benzalkonium chloride
Cetylpyridium chloride

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98
Q

Benzalkonium chloride

A

Prevent gram+ bacteria

99
Q

CC: Ethylene oxide - MOA

A

Alylation (e.g. aldehyde)

100
Q

CC: Ethylene oxide - Uses

A

for gas sterilization
for heat sensitive

101
Q

CC: Heavy metals - MOA

A

binds sulfhydryl enzymes

102
Q

Has the strongest oligodynamic activity

103
Q

CC: Hydrogen peroxide - other name

A

Agua oxinada

104
Q

CC: Hydrogen peroxide - use

A

for dental instruments to prevent HIV infection

105
Q

Prions: WOF

A

Creutzfeldt - Jakob
Bovine spongiform encelopathy - Mad Cow disease

106
Q

Used to visualize Syphylis

A

Darkfield using scrapings

107
Q

Acid - fast stain with heat

A

Ziehl Neelsen (Ziehl - sizzling)

108
Q

Acid - fast stain without heat

A

Kinyoun - cold

109
Q

Steps for Ziehl Neelsen

A

CHAMBA
Carbolfuschin
Heat
Alcohol
Methylene Blue
= Acid fast (Red)

110
Q

Special stains: Nuclei

A

Feulgen stain

111
Q

Special stains: Capsule

A

India ink/nigrosin

112
Q

Special stains: Pption using glacial acetic acid

A

Welch method

113
Q

Special stains: spores

A

SM BC
Schaeffer - fulton
Malachite green

Bacillus
Clostridium

114
Q

Special stains: Flagella

A

Carbolfuchsin

115
Q

Gold std. in diagnosis of most bacterial infections

A

Culture studies

116
Q

CM: Simplest

117
Q

CM: added nutrient

118
Q

CM: prevent growth of undesired organism

119
Q

CM: classify organisms

A

Indicator/Differential

120
Q

Reducing medium for anaerobes

A

Thioglycolate

121
Q

CM: Enriched - example

A

Lowenstein - Jensen for TB

122
Q

Ferment lactose

A

Mac Conkey Agar
Eosin Methylene Blue

123
Q

Hemolytic pattern

A

Blood Agar Plate

124
Q

Symbiosis: both benefited each other

125
Q

Symbiosis: 1 organism benefited while the other does not

A

Commensalism

126
Q

Symbiosis: 1 organism benefited while the other is harmed

A

Parasitism

127
Q

Symbiosis: 1 organism benefited while the other dies

128
Q

Symbiosis: example for Predation

A

Bdellovibrio bacteriovoms and gram- bacteria

129
Q

Ability to cause disease

A

Pathogenicity

130
Q

Quantitative ability to cause disease

131
Q

Ability to spread

A

Invasiveness

132
Q

Ability to produce toxin

A

Toxigenicity

133
Q

Hospital acquired disease (gram-)

A

Nosocomial

134
Q

Nosocomial infections

A

ESKAPE
Enterococcus faeciun
Staphylococcus aureus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Acinetobacter baumanii
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
Enterobacter spp

135
Q

Horizontal contact transmission

A

-via sexual contact
e.g. Syphilis (Treponema pallidum)
LTB

136
Q

Transplacental spread

137
Q

Vertical contact transmission

A

TORCHES
Toxoplasmosis
Other: varicella
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes, Hep B, HIV
Syphilis

138
Q

Vehicle-borne
Airborne = via respiratory

A

MTV
Measles
Tuberculosis
Varicella

139
Q

Water borne

140
Q

Food borne

A

Salmonellosis

141
Q

Causative agent of Dengue fever

A

Dengue virus

142
Q

Vector of Dengue fever

A

Aedes aegypti

143
Q

CA of Malaria

A

Plasmodium spp

144
Q

Vector of Malaria

145
Q

w/ symptoms

146
Q

without symptoms

A

Quarantine

147
Q

Early s/sx

148
Q

peak, w/ disease

149
Q

decreased symptoms

150
Q

Recovery

A

Covalenscent

151
Q

Old + new cases

A

prevalence

152
Q

New cases

153
Q

Patterns of occurence: particular place or group of people

154
Q

Patterns of occurence: number of cases is greater than expected frequency

155
Q

Patterns of occurence: small area

156
Q

Patterns of occurence: scattered irregular

157
Q

Increased WBC

A

Leukocytosis

158
Q

Decreased WBC

A

Leukopenia

159
Q

Granulocyte

A

BENg
Basophil
Eosinophil (parasitic)
Neutrophil (bacterial infection)
(Granulocyte)

160
Q

Agranulocyte

A

LaM
Lymphocyte (viral infection)
(agranulocyte)
Monocyte

161
Q

Antigenic determinant

162
Q

Incomplete antigen

163
Q

Vaccine that can be given for <6 mos, if Outbreak

A

Measles vaccine

164
Q

1st recombinant vaccine
1st anticancer vaccine

165
Q

Not be given for those who are allergic in eggs

166
Q

Inactived toxin

A

Toxoid - Diphtheria
- Tetanus

167
Q

Contains H antigen

168
Q

Atrichous

169
Q

no flagella

170
Q

1 flagella

A

Monotrichous

171
Q

Monotrichous

A

Vibrio cholerae

172
Q

Comma-shaped bacteria

A

Vibrio cholerae

173
Q

Many flagella at one side

A

Lophotrichous

174
Q

Lophotrichous

A

Helicobacter pylori

175
Q

One flagella at both sides

A

Amphitrichous

176
Q

Amphitrichous

A

Campylobacter jejuni

177
Q

Gullwing shaped

A

Amphitrichous

178
Q

Many flagella

A

Peritrichous

179
Q

Peritrichous

180
Q

Examples of Capsules

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae
E. coli
Neisseria spp
Streptococcus pneumoniae

181
Q

Spores examples

A

Bacillus spp
Clostridium spp

182
Q

Jumping genes
antibiotic resistance

A

transposns

183
Q

negative for catalase test

A

No bubbles
STREPTOCOCCUS
Blood agar plate

184
Q

Positive for catalase test

A

Presence of bubbles
STAPHYLOCOCCUS

185
Q

Appear - green

A

Alpha hemolytic

186
Q

Optochin: R

A

Viridans strep.

187
Q

Optochin: S

A

Strep. pneumoniae

188
Q

Complete/clear

A

Beta-hemolytic

189
Q

Bacitracin: R

A

Group B strep.

190
Q

Bacitracin: S

A

Group A strep.

191
Q

No growth: Non Enterococcus

A

Gamma hemolytic/ non hemolytic
6.5% NaCl

192
Q

Presence of bubbles in catalase test

A

Staphylococcus

193
Q

(+) clumps in coagulase test

A

Saphylococcus aureus

194
Q

(-) clumps: coagulase test

A

“CONS”
COagulative
Negative
Staphylococcus

195
Q

Novobiocin: R

A

S. saphrophyticus

196
Q

Novobiocin: S

A

S. epidermidis

197
Q

White colonies

A

Negative: “CONS”
COagulative
Negative
Staphylococcus

198
Q

(+) clumps: Coagulase test

A

Staphylococcus aureus

199
Q

Golden yellow colonies

A

(+) clumps: Coagulase test

200
Q

Staphylococcus aureus: reservoir

A

Nose (nares)

201
Q

Staphylococcus aureus: VF

A

PTC
Protein A
Teichoic A (seen in gram+)
Capsule (prevents phagocytosis)

202
Q

Disease seen among IV drug users

A

Acute endocarditis - tricuspid valve

203
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning

A

Salad mayo - s.a.- heat stable - diarrhea (after 4-6 hours)

204
Q

Staphylococcal food poisoning: WTD?

A

No antibiotic
- Hydration ORS 1:1

205
Q

(+) pneumatocle

A

S. aureus - Pneumonia

206
Q

Fourth disease

A

Scalded skin disease

207
Q

STSS

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

208
Q

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

A

(+) tampon - contaminate by S. aureus - TSST1 (toxic shock sydrome toxin 1) - (+) t cells (cell mediated) - increase cytokines

209
Q

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome symptoms

A

(+) hypotension
(+) rashes
(-) blood culture

210
Q

MSSA

A

Anti-staph penicillin
Methicilin
Oxacillin
Nafcillin (x) rashes

211
Q

MRSA

A

Vancomycin (get sample from nose)

212
Q

Vancomycin decolonizes…

A

Mupirocin
Chlorhexidine

213
Q

VRSA

214
Q

1 normal skin flora

A

S. epidermidis

215
Q

forms biofilms = prefers foreign bodies in the body

A

S. epidermidis

216
Q

Causes stitch abcess (surgical site infection)

A

S. epidermidis

217
Q

2 UTI in sexually active young women

A

S. saphrophyticus

218
Q

1 cause of UTI

219
Q

S. saphrophyticus: sakit mag ihi

220
Q

S. saphrophyticus: sakit mag ihi and may fever

A

Pyelonephritis

222
Q

subacute endocarditis after dental surgery

A

S. sanguis

223
Q

dental carries

224
Q

brain abcess

A

S. intermedius

225
Q

Lancet-shaped diplococci

A

Streptococcus pnuemoniae

226
Q

Streptococcus pnuemoniae: WTD?

A

B-lactam and Macrolide

227
Q

Streptococcus pnuemoniae prevention

A

PCV - pneumococcal conjugated vaccine
PPV - pneumococcal polysaccharide

228
Q

Otitis: WTD?

A

Amoxicillin

229
Q

Strepthroat

A

Strep. pharyngitis

230
Q

Second disease

A

Scarlet fever

231
Q

Scarlet fever

A

(+) sore throat
(+) sandpaper rash
(+) strawberry tongue

232
Q

Rheumatic Heart disease: WOF

A

JONES CRITERIA
Joint - arthritis
Obviously - heart - carditis
Nodules (SQ)
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham chorea

234
Q

Rheumatic Heart disease: WTD?

A

Penicillin G

235
Q

Rheumatic Heart disease: caused by?

A

Strep. pyogenes

236
Q

ROT: passage in the vagina

A

S. agalactiae

237
Q

Gamma/non hemolytic reservoir

A

Colon/large intestine

238
Q

S. agalactiae: WTD?

A

GBS (35-37 weeks)

239
Q

If (+) GBS, WTD?

A

Penicillin

240
Q

WOF in penicillin regarding S. agalactiae

A

Neonatal sepsis + meningitis
DOC: Ampicillin + Gentamicin

241
Q

Group d streptococcus

A

Gamma/non hemolytic

242
Q

Endocarditis after abdominal surgery

A

Enterococcus faecalis

243
Q

Marantic endocarditis

A

Non-enterococcus (e.g., S. bovis)