MICROPARA PT 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

19 y/o female presents to the clinic with difficulty of initiating urination. She complains of a profuse and purulent vulvar discharge. Gram stain of the discharge reveals gram negative diplococci within neutrophils. Which of the following is true regarding the causative organism?

A. It is least likely sexually transmitted
B. Contains Lipopolysaccharide as its toxin
C. Opa proteins leads to destruction of mucosal immunoglobulins
D. Common site of asymptomatic infection is the endocervical tissue

A

D. Common site of asymptomatic infection is the endocervical tissue

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2
Q

What will be the most probable consequence for a female with pelvic inflammatory disease from gonorrhea?

A. Uterine degeneration
B. Endometrial CA
C. Infertility
D. Glomerulonephritis

A

C. Infertility

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3
Q

A patient infected with which of the ff microorganisms will present with Abnormal ECG changes (RBBB/LBBB), Seizures, “pins and needles” symptoms, formation of pseudomembrane?

A. Clostridium spp
B. Corynebacterium
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Actinomyces israelli

A

B. Corynebacterium

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3
Q

What is the major target cell for Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)?

A. Macrophages
B. T lymphocytes
C. B lymphocytes
D. Polymorphonuclear cell (PMN)

A

C. B lymphocytes

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4
Q

Which of the following most aptly describes the disease process of Diphtheria?

A. Involvement of the heart, kidney, adrenals and other organs results from miliary spread
B. The clinical manifestations result from the inflammatory response to the organism
C. The corynebacterium diphtheria invades deep tissue and enter the bloodstream
D. The corynebacterium produce toxin that can be absorbed and result in distant toxic damage

A

D. The corynebacterium produce toxin that can be absorbed and result in distant toxic damage

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following possesses direct cytotoxic activity with the ability to kill infected cells?

A. Cytokines
B. CD8T-lymphocytes
C. B-lymphocytes
D. CD4T-lymphocytes

A

B. CD8T-lymphocytes

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6
Q

A negative-sense RNA virus has the following distinctive property, which one?

A. Its molecule functions has an mRNA within the infected cell
B. The virions carry an RNA polymerase
C. The genome is single stranded
D. The isolated RNA is infectious

A

B. The virions carry an RNA polymerase

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6
Q

What is the MOST PREVALENT organism in infected cat bites?

A. Bacteroides
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus viridans

A

B. Pasteurella multocida

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6
Q

4 year old Boy presents in the ER with scarlatiniform rash, red eyes, strawberry-tongue, painless lymphadenopathy, high-grade fever with no relief when given Paracetamol 12- mg/kg/dose. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Scalded Skin Syndrome
B. Scarlet fever
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Measles

A

C. Kawasaki disease

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7
Q

What sequela is most important to watch out for?

[4 year old Boy presents in the ER with scarlatiniform rash, red eyes, strawberry-tongue, painless lymphadenopathy, high-grade fever with no relief when given Paracetamol 12- mg/kg/dose. What is the most likely diagnosis? KAWASAKI DISEASE]

A. Guillain barre syndrome
B. RHD
C. Glomerulonephritis
D. Coronary aneurysm

A

D. Coronary aneurysm

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8
Q

44/M from Marinduque, an IV heroin user, presents with 3 day history fever T>39, chest pain, “pinching” in character, nausea, vomiting. Troponins are low. CKMB negative. ECG shows Sinus tachycardia. Blood culture on 2 sites were positive. Past History: Tricuspid valve repair in 2003. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Acute endocarditis
B. Subacute endocarditis
C. Myocarditis
D. Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

A

A. Acute endocarditis

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9
Q

In relation to the case above, which is true regarding the causative agent [44/M from Marinduque, an IV heroin user, presents with 3 day history fever T>39, chest pain, “pinching” in character, nausea, vomiting. Troponins are low. CKMB negative. ECG shows Sinus tachycardia. Blood culture on 2 sites were positive. Past History: Tricuspid valve repair in 2003. - ACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS caused by Staph epidermidis]?

A. Gram negative bacilli
B. Coagulase positive
C. Optochin resistant
D. inhibited by Novobiocin

A

D. inhibited by Novobiocin

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10
Q

In the above case, What in the cardiac physical examination is MOST LIKELY noted?

[44/M from Marinduque, an IV heroin user, presents with 3 day history fever T>39, chest pain, “pinching” in character, nausea, vomiting. Troponins are low. CKMB negative. ECG shows Sinus tachycardia. Blood culture on 2 sites were positive. Past History: Tricuspid valve repair in 2003. - ACUTE BACTERIAL ENDOCARDITIS caused by Staph epidermidis; inhibited by Novobiocin]

A. Systolic murmur, louder then faint
B. Late Diastolic murmur, crescendo type
C. Early Diastolic murmur
D. Holosystolic murmur

A

D. Holosystolic murmur

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11
Q

Which of the following fungi causing brain abscess is an important pathogen in AIDS?

A. Candida
B. Coccidiodoiodes immitis
C. Aspergillus sp
D. Cyptococcus neoformans

A

D. Cyptococcus neoformans

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12
Q

A 45 yr old man consulted at the OPD for sudden painful swelling of his left knee. On examination, the left knee was swollen but the overlying skin was not warm to touch and non-tender; (+) ballotment indicating presence of fluid. X-ray was normal. 30cc of clear yellowish non-purulent fluid was aspirated and microscopic examination of the fluid showed no WBC or RBC. The most useful diagnostic examination to identify the organism involved would be

A. Tuberculin test
B. Gram stain
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Culture

A

D. Culture

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13
Q

In the case above, if gram-staining was done and revealed no identifiable organism, which empiric treatment should be initiated?

[A 45 yr old man consulted at the OPD for sudden painful swelling of his left knee. On examination, the left knee was swollen but the overlying skin was not warm to touch and non-tender; (+) ballotment indicating presence of fluid. X-ray was normal. 30cc of clear yellowish non-purulent fluid was aspirated and microscopic examination of the fluid showed no WBC or RBC - . ]

A. Cefotaxime + Ceftriaxone
B. Cefuroxime + Tazobactam
C. Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin
D. Vancomycin + Cefoperazone

A

C. Ceftriaxone + Vancomycin

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14
Q

Which of the following will most likely cause disease among those who are fond of eating dog meat?

A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Hymenolepsis nana
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Echinococcus granulosus

A

D. Echinococcus granulosus

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15
Q

Which of the following best defines transposons?

A. Mobile and transferrable segments of bacterial DNA
B. Proteins expressed by the chromosomal genes of the bacteria
C. Viruses that have infected a bacteria
D. Enzymatic products of bacterial genetic expression

A
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16
Q

In an experiment, a bacterial chromosome, coming from an unknown organism with gene-coded fertility factor, was transferred to another prokaryotic cell observing a rolling circle method. This describes

A. Transposition
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. Conjugation

A

D. Conjugation

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17
Q

In bacterial conjugation, the recipient bacteria at the termination of bacterial recombination, becomes ______

A. F-
B. F+
C. Gram negative
D. Phage-infected

A

B. F+

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18
Q

It’s the rainy season again. From the newspaper, TV and radio, you will hear the advice of cleaning up water-holding receptacles and plant containers close to our homes. Why is this so?

A. Mosquito breeds in domestic water-holding receptacles and can easily travel to homes and buildings
B. Stagnant water becomes foul smelling and murky, good breeding places for insects
C. Plants will die easily in dirty receptacles
D. Moist plants are homes to mosquitoes, which can easily travel to nearby homes and schools

A

B. Stagnant water becomes foul smelling and murky, good breeding places for insects

19
Q

Which of the following is a MAJOR virulence factor or toxin of streptococcus pyogenes?

A. M protein
B. T substance
C. Streptolysin O
D. P substance

A

A. M protein

20
Q

Which of the following infects human by penetration of the larvae through the skin?

A. Necator americanus
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Taenia solium
D. Ascaris lumbricoides

A

A. Necator americanus

21
Q

For the past few days, a 40 yr old lady had dry coughs associated with low-grade afternoon fever. Physical examinations revealed an emaciated patient with harsh breath sounds on auscultation of the lungs. No enlarged lymph node was observed or palpated. X-ray showed increased density of both upper lung fields.

In which of the following can the Ghon lesion be found?

A. Primary tuberculosis
B. Reactivation TB
C. Both A and B
D. Secondary Syphilis

A

C. Both A and B

22
Q

In which layer of a tubercle (TB granuloma) can T-lymphocytes be appreciated?

a. Central zone
b. Peripheral zone
c. Mid-zone of pale epithelioid cells
d. fibrous tissue layer

A

b. Peripheral zone

23
Q

A 29 yr old male developed fever, malaise, headache, fatigue, and sore throat. Physical examination revealed lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Blood examination showed elevated SGOT, SGPT, alkaline phosphatase and direct/indirect bilirubin. CBC showed elevated while blood cell count with predominance of lymphocytes, many of which were large, atypical T-lymphocytes. Patient recovered fully after 5 weeks of combined hospital and home treatment. The attending physician’s diagnosis was infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following is considered the etiologic agent of the disease?

A. Epstein-barr virus
B. Hepatitis virus
C. Human herpes virus-5
D. Cytomegalovirus

A

A. Epstein-barr virus

24
Q

In the above case, Which of the following properties is the hallmark for infection with this virus?

[A 29 yr old male developed fever, malaise, headache, fatigue, and sore throat. Physical examination revealed lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Blood examination showed elevated SGOT, SGPT, alkaline phosphatase and direct/indirect bilirubin. CBC showed elevated while blood cell count with predominance of lymphocytes, many of which were large, atypical T-lymphocytes. Patient recovered fully after 5 weeks of combined hospital and home treatment. The attending physician’s diagnosis was infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following is considered the etiologic agent of the disease? - EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS]

A. Transient aplasia
B. Cell immortalization
C. Massive cytolysis
D. Malignant transformation

A

D. Malignant transformation

25
Q

In the above case, Which of the following can also be caused by this virus?

A 29 yr old male developed fever, malaise, headache, fatigue, and sore throat. Physical examination revealed lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Blood examination showed elevated SGOT, SGPT, alkaline phosphatase and direct/indirect bilirubin. CBC showed elevated while blood cell count with predominance of lymphocytes, many of which were large, atypical T-lymphocytes. Patient recovered fully after 5 weeks of combined hospital and home treatment. The attending physician’s diagnosis was infectious mononucleosis. Which of the following is considered the etiologic agent of the disease? - EPSTEIN-BARR VIRUS –> MALIGNANT TRANSFORMATION]

A. Burkitt lymphoma
B. Hepatoma
C. Kaposis’ sarcoma
D. Congenital anomalies

A

A. Burkitt lymphoma

26
Q

A 32 yr old male office worker consulted the clinic because of the appearance of multiple painful grouped vesicles on his right suprapubic area. This problem had been recurring 3-4x since a yr ago. What infectious disease did this patient most likely have?

A. Folliculitis
B. Herpes progenitalis
C. Scabies
D. Syphilis

A

B. Herpes progenitalis
(HSV2)

27
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission of this disease (HERPES PROGENITALIS?

A. Through pediculosis pubic lice
B. Sexually transmitted
C. Thru insects: ant bites
D. Prolonged contact with moldy moist area

A

B. Sexually transmitted

28
Q

Which of the following laboratory procedures can be used to document the causative organism of HSV 2?

A. Gram-stain
B. Burrow’s test
C. Tzanck smear
D. 10% KOH

A

C. Tzanck smear (multinucleated giant cells)

29
Q

The site of latency of the causative agent of the above case (HSV 2)?

A. Trigeminal ganglia
B. Otic ganglia
C. Lumbosacral ganglia
D. All of the above

A

C. Lumbosacral ganglia

30
Q

In the above case, the following results can be achieved by giving oral acyclovir (HSV 2)

A. decrease severity of recurrent infection
B. no effect on number of lesions of initial infection
C. decrease frequency of recurrent infection
D. reduce pain felt by the patient

A

C. decrease frequency of recurrent infection

31
Q

After about fever, muscle and bone pain, a 14 yr old boy developed bleeding, shock and eventually died. He was diagnosed to have had hemorrhagic dengue. What could be the reason why this patient developed severe dengue?

a. He had completed dengue vaccination previously.
b. He had a secondary dengue with the same serotype as the primary
c. He had secondary dengue with a different serotype as previous
d. He had concurrent dengue and malaria infection

A

c. He had secondary dengue with a different serotype as previous

32
Q

What is the KEY pathologic feature of Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever?

A. Cytotoxicity against erythrocytes
B. Diminished platelet count
C. Increased vascular permeability
D. Depletion of clotting factors

A

C. Increased vascular permeability

33
Q

A number of adult patients in a certain community hospital manifested with similar clinical symptoms. The illness starts with malaise, fever, headache, sore throat and non-productive cough. Later, cough became productive with sputum, sometimes blood-streaked. Blood examination showed mild leukocytosis. While chest radiographs showed pulmonary consolidation, the patients were up and about, and appeared physically well. Treatment with penicillin, cephalosporin, and vancomycin failed but treatment with tetracycline and erythromycin were effective. The usual bacteriologic method failed to isolate the organism which of the following is the most likely bacterial agent?

a. Haemophilus influenza
b. Chlamydia pneumonia
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Mycoplasma pneumonia

A

d. Mycoplasma pneumonia

34
Q

What is the plausible reason for therapeutic failure with penicillin, et. al., and success with Tetracycline, et. al.?

A. Plasmin mediated resistance to penicillin, et. al
B. Beta-lactamase production
C. Bacteria is cell wall defective
D. Chromosomal generation of resistance protein

A

C. Bacteria is cell wall defective

35
Q

Following a worldwide campaign to eradicate smallpox in 1967, the disease was declared eliminated in 1908. However, since the vaccination was stopped, those born later are not protected against it. In a hypothetical case, where a 5 yr old boy was brought to Children’s Medical Center because of homogenous vesicular eruptions most abundant on the face and extremities and less on the trunk, which of the following procedures would most specifically confirm that the patient has smallpox?

A. Antibody assay
B. Virus isolation by inoculation of vesicular fluid into chick embryo
C. Direct examination under electron microscopy
D. Immunohistochemistry of viral antigens in tissues/materials from skin lesions

A

B. Virus isolation by inoculation of vesicular fluid into chick embryo

36
Q

Which of the following statements regarding smallpox is true?

A. Majority of cases of smallpox were not clinically apparent (subclinical)
B. An infection gave complete protection against reinfection
C. The infectious virus had several serotypes
D. The virus had a broad range of animal hosts, aside from human

A

B. An infection gave complete protection against reinfection

37
Q

Which of the following aptly describes the vaccine used against smallpox?

A. It is the same cowpox virus used by Edward Jenner in 1798
B. It is a distinct species of the poxvirus
C. It is perfectly safe with no serious complication
D. It is an attenuated variola virus

A

A. It is the same cowpox virus used by Edward Jenner in 1798

38
Q

Interstitial myocarditis is the most common serious complication of a protozoal disease. Which of the following is this protozoal disease?

A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Chagas disease
D. Leishmaniasis

A

C. Chagas disease

39
Q

What is the etiologic agent of this disease (CHAGAS DISEASE)?

A. Leishmania
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Toxoplasma gondi
D. Trypanosome brucei gambiense

A

B. Trypanosoma cruzi

40
Q

In what form are they found in the heart muscle (Trypanosoma cruzi)?

A. Epimastigote
B. Amastigote
C. Trypomastigote
D. Promastigote

A

B. Amastigote

TRIPOMASTIGOTE - IN THE BLOOD SMEAR

41
Q

Mang Juan, 68 year old male, s/p AVF creation. If he is to receive a complete series of Hepatitis B vaccination, which of the following is the most appropriate schedule?

A. 20 mcg/IM 0-1-6 months
B. 20mcg/IM 0-1-2-6 months
C. 20mcg/IM 2 doses, 0-1-2-6 months
D. 20mcg/IM 2 doses, 0-1-6 months

A

C. 20mcg/IM 2 doses, 0-1-2-6 months

42
Q

A 50 yr old male patient complained of clawing deformity of both hands which was confirmed with physical examination. Further neurologic examination consisted of reduced sensation of the pulp of the small finger and the medial side of the ring finger and apparently enlarged and sensitive ulnar nerves on both postero-medial aspects of both elbows. Macular rashes were also noted on the volar side of both forearms. The skin lesions were anesthetic when pricked with a needle. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Hansen’s disease
B. Herpes zoster
C. Herpes simplex
D. Guillian-barre syndrome

A

A. Hansen’s disease (LEPROSY)

43
Q

Which of the following laboratory procedures is used to establish the diagnosis - Hansen’s disease (LEPROSY)?

A. Skin biopsy
B. Lepromin Skin test
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. In-vitro culture

A

A. Skin biopsy

Lepromin Skin test - ONLY FOR IMMUNE RESPONSE

44
Q

A 40 yr old gardener developed symptoms of cough, malaise and fever after making his own compost from dead leaves and decaying vegetation. Chest x-ray revealed sickle-shaped lucency partially surrounding a soft tissue mass in the pulmonary cavity. Sputum stain and culture was positive for Aspergillus.The chest x-ray finding is known as:

A. Silhouette sign
B. Crescent moon sign
C. Monroe’s sign
D. Monod sign

A

D. Monod sign (AN AIR AROUND ASPERGILLOMA)

Crescent moon sign - INVASIVE ASPERGILLOSIS - AN AIR SURROUNDING THE AREA OF CONSOLIDATED LUNG)

45
Q

Which of the following best describes the tissue mass seen in the patient’s chest x-ray (MONOD SIGN)?

A. Collection of fibrous mass with stromal fat tissue
B. Collection of vascular tissue and cellular debris
C. Collection of hyphae, muscus and cellular debris
D. Collection of cells with a center of caseous necrosis

A

C. Collection of hyphae, muscus and cellular debris (FUNGI)

46
Q

How will you manage this case (ASPERGILLOMA)?

A. Lobectomy to remove mass and surrounding tissues
B. Admit patient and start on IV antifungal medication
C. Start patient with oral antifungal medication
D. Conservative management such as increasing fluid intake

A

A. Lobectomy to remove mass and surrounding tissues - monod sign

IV steroids - allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
IV antifungal (Voriconazole; caspofungin- invasive aspergillosis; prophylaxis - posoconazole)

47
Q

Joey and friends were walking barefooted in the beach of Laguna a week before the appearance of a serpiginous pruritic eruption noted on his left leg. He consulted the clinic because he noticed the lesion extending upwards everyday as he observed it. What is joey having?

A. ‘Creeping eruptions’
B. Contact urticaria
C. Tinea corporis
D. Linear verruca vulgaris

A

A. ‘Creeping eruptions’ - cutaneous larva migrans; ground itch (hookworms)