Microeconomics Definitions Flashcards

Paper 1

1
Q

Market

A

The ‘place’ in which goods are bought and sold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Normative statement

A

a statement that includes a value judgement and cannot be refuted just by looking at the evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Positive statement

A

A statement of fact that can be scientifically tested to see if it is correct or incorrect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Value judgement

A

an opinion about whether something is desirable or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

need

A

something that is necessary for survival e.g. food, shelter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

want

A

something that is desirable, but is not necessary for human survival e.g. fashionable clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

economic welfare

A

the economic well-being of an individual, a group within a society, or an economy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

economic system

A

the set of instructions within which a community decides what, how and for whom to produce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

market economy

A

an economy in which goods and services are purchased through the price mechanism in a system of markets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

command economy

A

(also known as a planned economy) an economy in which government officials or planners allocate economic resources to firms and other productive enterprises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

mixed economy

A

an economy that contains both a large market sector and a large non-market sector in which the planning mechanism operates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

production

A

a process, or set of processes, that converts inputs into output of goods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

capital good

A

a good which is used in the production of other goods and services (producer good)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

consumer good

A

A good which is consumed by individuals or households to satisfy their needs or wants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

factors of production

A

inputs into the production process, such as land, labour, capital and enterprise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

finite resource

A

a resource, such as oil, which is scarce and runs out as it is used. also known as a non-renewable resource

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

renewable resource

A

a resource, such as timber, that with careful management can be renewed as it is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

economic good

A

has an opportunity cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

free good

A

has no opportunity cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

fundamental economic good

A

how best to make decisions about the allocation of scarce resources among competing uses so as to improve and maximise human happiness and welfare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Scarcity

A

results from the fact that people have unlimited wants but resources to meet these wants are limited. In essence, people would like to consume more goods and services than the economy is able to produce with its limited resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

opportunity cost

A

the cost of giving up the next best alternative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

economic growth

A

The increase in the potential level of real output the economy can produce over a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

technical progress

A

new and better ways of making goods and new techniques for producing more output from scarce resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

full employment

A

When all who are able and willing to work are employed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Unemployment

A

When not all of those who are able and willing to work are employed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

choice

A

Choosing between alternatives when making a decision on how to use scarce resources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

resource allocation

A

The process through which the available factors of production are assigned to produce different goods and services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

productive efficiency

A

For the economy as a whole occurs when it is impossible to produce more of one good without producing less of another. For a firm it occurs when the average total cost of production is minimised.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

allocative efficiency

A

occurs when the available economic resources are used to produce the combination of goods and services that best matches people’s tastes and preferences (producing the things people most want)// occurs when it is impossible to improve overall economic welfare by reallocating resources between markets. In the whole economy, price must equal marginal cost (P=MC) in every market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

competitive market

A

A market in which the large number of buyers and sellers possess good market information and can easily enter or leave the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

equilibrium market

A

the price at which planned demand for a good or service exactly equals planned supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

supply

A

the quantity of a good or service that businesses are willing and able to sell at given prices in a given period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

demand

A

the quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to buy at given prices in a given period of time. For economists, demand is always effective demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

effective demand

A

the desire for a good or service backed by an ability to pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

market demand

A

the quantity of a good or service that all the consumers in a market are willing and able to buy at different market prices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

condition of demand

A

a determinant of demand, other than the good’s own price, that fixes the position of the demand curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

increase in demand

A

a rightward shift of the demand curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

decrease in demand

A

leftward shift of the demand curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

normal good

A

a good for which demand increases as income increases and demand decreases as income falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

inferior good

A

a good for which demand decreases as income increases and demand increases as income falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

elasticity

A

the proportionate responsiveness of a second variable to an initial change in the first variable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

price elasticity of demand

A

measures the extent to which the demand for a good changes in response to a change in the price of that good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

income elasticity of demand

A

measures the extent to which the demand for a good changes in response to a change in income; it is calculated by dividing the percentage change in quantity demanded by the percentage change in income

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

market supply

A

the quantity of a good or service that all firms plan to sell at given prices in a given period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

cross- elasticity of demand

A

measures the extent to which the demand for a good changes in response to a change in the price of another good; it is calculated by dividing the percentage change in quantity demanded of one good by the percentage change in the price of the other good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Profit

A

the difference between total sales revenue and total costs of production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

total revenue

A

the money a firm receives from selling its output, calculated by multiplying the price by the quantity sold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

conditions of supply

A

determinants of supply, other than the good’s own price, that fix the position of the supply curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

increase in supply

A

a rightward shift of the supply curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

decrease in supply

A

a leftward shift of the supply curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

price elasticity of supply

A

measures the extent of which the supply of a good changes in response to a change in the price of that good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

equilibrium

A

a state of rest or balance between opposing forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

disequilibrium

A

a situation in a market when there is excess supply or excess demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

market equilibrium

A

a market is in equilibrium when planned demand equals planned supply and the demand curve crosses the supply curve. In this situation there is no excess demand or excess supply in the market. Unless some event disturbs the equilibrium, there is no reason for the price to change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

market disequilibruim

A

exists at any other price other than the equilibrium price. When the market is in disequilibrium, either excess demand or excess supply exists in the market. Excess demand causes the price to rise until a new equilibrium is established. Conversely, excess supply causes the market price to fall until equilibrium is achieved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

excess supply

A

when firms wish to sell more than consumers wish to buy, with the price above the equilibrium price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

excess demand

A

when consumers wish to buy more than firms wish to sell, with the price below the equilibrium price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

joint supply

A

when one good is produced, another good is also produced from the same raw materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

competing supply

A

when raw materials are used to produce one good they cannot be used to produce another good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

complementary good

A

a good in joint demand, or a good which is demanded at the same time as the other good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

substitute good

A

a good in competing demand, namely a good which can be used in place of the other good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

composite demand

A

demand for a good which has more than one use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

derived demand

A

demand for a good which is an input into the production of another good// demand for a good or factor of production, wanted not for its own sake, but as a consequence of the demand for something else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

merit good

A

a good which when consumed leads to benefits which other people enjoy, or a good for which the long-term benefit of consumption exceeds the short-term benefit enjoyed by the person consuming the merit good. Whether a good should be regarded as a merit good, depends on the value judgements being made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

short-run production

A

occurs when a firm adds variable factors of production to fixed factors of production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

long-run production

A

occurs when a firm changes the scale of all the factors of production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

productivity

A

output per unit of input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

labour productivity

A

output per worker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Capital productivity

A

Output per unit of capital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Productivity growth

A

the difference between labour productivity in the UK and in other developed economies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

specialisation

A

a worker only performing one task or a narrow range of tasks. Also, different firms specialising in producing different goods or services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

division of labour

A

this concept goes hand in hand with specialisation. different workers perform different tasks in the course of producing a good or service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

trade

A

the buying and selling of goods and services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

exchange

A

to give something in return for something else received. money is a medium of exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

short run

A

the time period in which at least one factor of production is fixed and cannot be varied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

long run

A

the time period in which no factors of production are fixed and in which all the factors of production can be varied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

fixed cost

A

cost of production which, in the short run, does not change with output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

variable cost

A

cost of production which changes with the amount that is produced, even in the short run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

total cost

A

the whole cost (fixed cost plus variable cost) of producing a particular level of output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

average cost

A

total cost of production divided by output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

long-run average cost

A

long-run total cost divided by output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

economy of scale

A

as output increases, long-run average cost falls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

diseconomy of scale

A

as output increases, long-run average cost rises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

technical economy of scale

A

a cost saving generated through changes to the ‘productive process’ as the scale of production and level of output increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

internal economy of scale

A

cost saving resulting from the growth of the firm itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

external economy of scale

A

cost saving resulting from the growth of the industry or market of which the firm is a part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

total revenue

A

all the money received by a firm from selling its total output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

average revenue

A

total revenue divided by output; in a single-product firm, average revenue equals the price of the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

profit

A

the difference between total sales revenue and total cost of production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

market structure

A

the organisation of a market in terms of the number of firms in the market and the ways in which they behave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

price taker

A

a firm which passively accepts the ruling market price set by market conditions outside its control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

price maker

A

a firm possessing the power to set the price within the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

perfect competition

A

a market that displays the six conditions of: a large number of buyers and sellers; perfect market information; the ability to buy or sell as much as is desired at the ruling market price; the inability of an individual buyer or seller to influence the market price; a uniform or homogeneous product; and no barriers to entry or exit in the long run

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

competitive market

A

a market in which firms strive to outdo their rivals, but it does not necessarily meet all the conditions of perfect competition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

concentrated market

A

a market containing very few firms, in the extreme only one firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

pure monopoly

A

when there is only one firm in the market

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

monopoly power

A

the power of a firm to act as a price maker rather than as a price taker// the ability of a monopoly to raise and maintain price above the level that would prevail under perfect competition. Market power can also be exercised, usually to a lesser degree, by firms in oligopoly and monopolistic competition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

imperfect competition

A

any market structure lying between the extremes of perfect competition and pure monopoly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

profit maximisation

A

occurs when a firm’s total sales revenue is furthest above total cost of production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

sales maximisation

A

occurs when sales revenue is maximised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

market share maximisation

A

occurs when a firm maximises its percentage share of the market in which it sells its product

103
Q

normal profit

A

minimum profit necessary for a firm to stay in an industry

104
Q

abnormal profit

A

The profit over and above normal profit

105
Q

consumer sovereignty

A

Through exercising their spending power, consumers collectively determine what is produced in a market. Consumer sovereignty is strongest in a perfectly competitive market

106
Q

producer sovereignty

A

producers or firms in a market determine what is produced and what prices are charged

107
Q

entry barrier

A

makes it difficult or impossible for new firms to enter a market

108
Q

exit barrier

A

makes it difficult or impossible for firms to leave a market

109
Q

natural monopoly

A

the term has two meanings, first when a country or firm has complete control of a natural resource, and second when there is only room in a market for one firm benefiting from economies of scale to the full

110
Q

patent

A

a strategic or man-made barrier to entry caused by government legislation protecting the right of a firm to be the sole producer of a patented good, unless the firm grants royalties for other firms to produce the good

111
Q

natural barrier to entry

A

a barrier to market entry which is not man-made// barriers to market entry caused by geography. For example, if one firm has control of a resource essential for a certain industry, other firms are unable to compete in a industry

112
Q

artificial barrier to entry

A

a barrier to market entry which is man-made

113
Q

informative advertising

A

provides consumers and producers with useful information about goods or services

114
Q

persuasive advertising

A

attempts to persuade potential customers that a good or service possesses desirable characteristics that make it worth buying

115
Q

saturation advertising

A

through flooding the market with information and persuasion about a firm’s product, this functions as a man-made barrier to market entry by making it difficult for smaller firms to compete.

116
Q

product differentiation

A

making a product different from other products through product design, the method of producing the product, or through its functionality// the marketing of generally similar products with minor variations or the marketing of a range of different products

117
Q

quantity setter

A

a firm chooses the quantity of a good to sell, rather than its price. In monopoly, the market demand curve then dictates the maximum price that can be charged if the firm is to successfully sell its chosen quantity.

118
Q

concentration ratio

A

A ratio which indicates the total market share of a number of leading firms in a market, or the output of these firms as a percentage of total market output

119
Q

Oligopoly

A

A ratio which indicates the total market share of a number of leading firms in a market, or the output of these firms as a percentage of total market output

120
Q

Oligopoly

A

a market dominated by a few firms

121
Q

resource misallocation

A

when resources are allocated in a way which does not maximise economic welfare

122
Q

collusion

A

co-operation between firms, for example to fix prices. Some forms of collusion may be in the public interest, for example joint research and labour training schemes

123
Q

invention

A

creates new ideas for products or processes // making something entirely new; something that did not exist before at all

124
Q

innovation

A

converts the results of invention into marketable products or services// improves on or makes a significant contribution that has already been invented, thereby turning the results of invention into a product

125
Q

price competition

A

reducing the price of a good or service to gain sales by making it more attractive for consumers

126
Q

limit pricing

A

reducing the price of a good to just above average cost to deter the entry of new firms into the market. Prices are set at levels which are likely to make it unprofitable for potential entrants who might consider coming into the market

127
Q

predatory pricing

A

Temporarily reducing the price of a good to below average cost to drive smaller firms or new market entrants out of the market.

128
Q

signalling function of prices

A

prices provide information to buyers and sellers

129
Q

incentive function of prices

A

Prices create incentives for people to alter their economic behaviour; for example, a higher price creates an incentive for firms to supply more of a good or service.

130
Q

rationing function of prices

A

rising prices ration demand for a product

131
Q

Allocative function of prices

A

changing relative prices allocate scarce resources away from markets exhibiting excess supply and into markets in which there is excess demand

132
Q

market failure

A

when the market mechanism leads to a misallocation of resources in the economy, either completely failing to provide a good or service or providing the wrong quantity

133
Q

missing market

A

a situation in which there is no market because the functions of prices have broken down

134
Q

private good

A

a good that is excludable and rival

135
Q

public good

A

a good that is non-excludable and non-rival

136
Q

quasi-public good

A

a good which is not fully non-rival and/or where it is possible to exclude people from consuming the product

137
Q

externality

A

a public good, in the case of an external benefit, or a public bad, in the case of an external cost, that is ‘dumped’ on third parties outside the market

138
Q

positive externality

A

which is the same as an external benefit, occurs when the consumption or production of a good causes a benefit to a third party, where the social benefit is greater than the private benefit

139
Q

negative externality

A

which is the same as an external cost, occurs when the consumption or production of a good causes costs to a third party, where the social cost is greater than the private cost.

140
Q

production externality

A

an externality (which may be positive or negative) generated in the course of producing a good or service

141
Q

consumption externality

A

An externality (which may be positive or negative) generated in the course of consuming a good or service

142
Q

Social benefit

A

the total benefit of an activity, including the external benefit as well as the private benefit. Expressed as an equation: social benefit = private benefit + external benefit

143
Q

subsidy

A

a payment made by the government or other authority, usually to producers, for each unit of the subsidised good they produce. Consumers can also be subsidised

144
Q

demerit good

A

a good, such as tobacco, for which the social costs of consumption exceed the private costs. Value judgements are involved in deciding that a good is a demerit good.

145
Q

social cost

A

the total cost of an activity, including the external cost as well as the private cost. Expressed as an equation: social cost = private cost + external cost

146
Q

information problem

A

Occurs when people make wrong decisions because they don’t possess or they ignore relevant information. Very often they are myopic (short-sighted) about the future

147
Q

immobility of labour

A

the inability of labour to move from one job to another, either for occupational reasons or for geographical reasons

148
Q

geographical immobility of labour

A

occurs when workers find it difficult or impossible to move to jobs in other parts of the country or in other countries for reasons such as higher housing costs in locations where the jobs exist

149
Q

Occupational immobility of labour

A

occurs when workers find it difficult or impossible to move between jobs because they lack or cannot develop the skills required for new jobs

150
Q

equity

A

fairness or justness// when everyone is treated fairly

151
Q

inequity

A

unfairness or unjustness

152
Q

distribution of income and wealth

A

the way in which income and wealth are divided among the population

153
Q

regulation

A

involves the imposition of rules, controls and constraints, which restrict freedom of economic action in the market place

154
Q

tax

A

a compulsory levy imposed by the government to pay for its activities. Taxes can also be used to achieve other objectives, such as reduced consumption of demerit goods

155
Q

price ceiling

A

a price above which it is illegal to trade. Price ceilings, or maximum legal prices, can distort markets by creating excess demand

156
Q

price floor

A

a price below which it is illegal to trade. Price floors, or minimum legal prices, can distort markets by creating excess supply

157
Q

government failure

A

occurs when government intervention reduces economic welfare, leading to an allocation of resources that is worse than the free-market outcome

158
Q

production possibility frontier

A

a curve depicting the various combinations of two products (or types of products) that can be produced when all the available resources are fully and efficiently employed

159
Q

rational behaviour

A

acting in pursuit of self-interest, which for a consumer means attempting to maximise the welfare, satisfaction or utility gained from the goods and services consumed

160
Q

utility

A

the satisfaction or economic welfare an individual gains from consuming a good or service

161
Q

marginal utility

A

the additional welfare, satisfaction or pleasure gained from consuming one extra unit of a good or service

162
Q

hypothesis of diminishing marginal utility

A

for a single consumer, the marginal utility derived from a good or service diminishes for each additional unit consumed

163
Q

asymmetric information

A

when one party to a market transaction possesses less information relevant to the exchange than the other

164
Q

Behavioural economics

A

a method of economic analysis that applies psychological insights into human behaviour to explain how individuals make choices and decisions

165
Q

bounded rationality

A

when making decisions, individuals’ rationality is limited by the information they have, the limitations of their minds and the finite amount of time available in which to make decisions

166
Q

bounded self-control

A

limited self-control in which individuals lack the self-control to act in what they see as their self-interest

167
Q

cognitive bias

A

is a systematic error in thinking that affects the decisions and judgements that people make

168
Q

availability bias

A

Occurs when individuals make judgements about the likelihood of future events according to how easy it is to recall examples of similar events

169
Q

anchoring

A

a cognitive bias describing the human tendency when making decisions to rely too heavily on the first piece of information offered (the so-called ‘anchor’). Individuals use an initial piece of information when making subsequent judgements

170
Q

social norms

A

forms or patterns of behaviour considered acceptable by a society or group within that society

171
Q

nudges

A

factors which encourage people to think and act in particular ways. Nudges try to shift group and individual behaviour in ways which comply with desirable social norms

172
Q

altruism

A

concern for the welfare of others

173
Q

Fairness

A

the quality of being impartial, just, or free of favouritism. It can mean treating everyone the same. Fairness involves treating people equally, sharing with others, giving others respect and time, and not taking advantage of them

174
Q

Choice architecture

A

a framework setting out different ways in which choices can be presented to consumers, and the impact of that presentation on consumer decision making

175
Q

default choice

A

an option that is selected automatically unless an alternative is specified

176
Q

framing

A

how something is presented (the ‘frame’) influences the choices people make

177
Q

mandated choice

A

people are required, often by law, to make a decision

178
Q

restricted choice

A

offering people a limited number of options so that they are not overwhelmed by the complexity of the situation. If there are too many choices, people may make a poorly thought-out decision or not make any decision

179
Q

effective demand

A

The desire for a good or service backed by an ability to pay

180
Q

market demand

A

the quantity of a good or service that all the consumers in a market are willing and able to buy at different market prices

181
Q

individual demand

A

the quantity of a good or service that a particular customer or individual is willing and able to buy at different market prices

182
Q

condition of demand

A

a determinant of demand, other than the good’s own price, that fixes the position of the demand curve

183
Q

substitute goods

A

alternative goods that could be used for the same purpose

184
Q

Complementary goods

A

when two goods are complements, they experience joint demand

185
Q

productivity gap

A

the difference between labour productivity in the UK and in other developed economies

186
Q

firm

A

a productive organisation which sells its output of goods and/or services commercially

187
Q

marginal returns of labour

A

the change in the quantity of total output resulting from the employment of one more worker, holding all the other factors of production fixed

188
Q

law of diminishing marginal returns

A

a short-term law which states that as a variable factor of production is added to a fixed factor of production, both the marginal and eventually the average returns to the variable factor will begin to fall

189
Q

total returns

A

the whole output produced by all the factors of production, including labour, employed by a firm

190
Q

average returns of labour

A

Total output divided by the total number of workers employed

191
Q

returns to scale

A

The rate by which output changes if the scale of all the factors of production is changed

192
Q

plant

A

an establishment, such as a factory, a workshop or a retail outlet, owned and operated by a firm

193
Q

increasing returns to scale

A

when the scale of all the factors of production employed increases, output increases at a faster rate

194
Q

constant returns to scale

A

when the scale of all the factors of production employed increases, output increases at the same rate

195
Q

decreasing returns to scale

A

when the scale of all the factors of production employed increases, output increases at a slower rate

196
Q

marginal cost

A

addition to total cost resulting from producing one additional unit of output

197
Q

marginal revenue

A

addition to total revenue resulting from the sale of one more unit of the product

198
Q

price-maker

A

when a firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve for its product, it possesses the market power to set the price at which it sells the product

199
Q

quantity- setter

A

when a firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve for its product, it possesses the market power to set the quantity of the good it wishes to sell

200
Q

technological change

A

A term used to describe the overall effect of invention, innovation and diffusion or spread of technology in the economy

201
Q

dynamic efficiency

A

measures improvements in productive efficiency that occur in the long run over time

202
Q

monopolistic competition

A

a market structure in which firms have many competitors, but each one sells a slightly different product

203
Q

creative destruction

A

capitalism evolving and renewing itself over time through new technologies and innovations replacing older technologies and innovations

204
Q

entry barriers

A

obstacles that make it difficult for a new firm to enter a market

205
Q

exit barriers

A

obstacles that make it difficult for an established firm to leave a market

206
Q

divorce of ownership from control

A

the owners and those who control the firm (managers) are different groups with different objectives

207
Q

satisficing

A

achieving a satisfactory outcome rather than the best possible outcome

208
Q

allocative inefficiency

A

occurs when P>MC, in which case too little of a good is produced and consumed, and when P<MC, in which case too much of a good is produced and consumed

209
Q

sunk costs

A

costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered

210
Q

market conduct

A

the pricing and marketing policies pursued by firms. This is also known as market behaviour, but is not to be confused with market performance, which refers to the end results of these policies

211
Q

cartel

A

a collusive agreement by firms, usually to fix prices. Sometimes there is also an agreement to restrict output and to deter the entry of new firms

212
Q

price leadership

A

the setting of prices in a market, usually by a dominant firm, which is then followed by other firms in the same market.

213
Q

price agreement

A

an agreement between a firm, similar firms, suppliers or customers regarding the pricing of a good or service

214
Q

price war

A

occurs when rival firms continuously lower prices to undercut each other

215
Q

price discrimination

A

charging different prices to different customers for the same product or service, with the prices based on different willingness to pay

216
Q

contestable markets

A

a market in which the potential exists for new firms to enter the market. A perfectly contestable market has no entry or exit barriers and no sunk costs, and both incumbent firms and new entrants have access to the same level of technology

217
Q

hit-and-run competition

A

occurs when a new entrant can ‘hit’ the market, make profits and then ‘run’, given that there are no or low barriers to exit

218
Q

static efficiency

A

efficiency at a particular point in time

219
Q

consumer surplus

A

a measure of the economic welfare enjoyed by consumers: surplus utility received over and above the price paid for a good

220
Q

producer surplus

A

a measure of the economic welfare enjoyed by firms or producers: the difference between the price a firm succeeds in charging and the minimum price it would be prepared to accept

221
Q

deadweight loss

A

the loss of economic welfare when the maximum attainable level of total welfare fails to be achieved

222
Q

marginal physical product of labour

A

the addition to a firm’s total output brought about by employing one more worker

223
Q

marginal revenue product of labour

A

the money value of the addition to a firm’s total output brought about by employing one more worker

224
Q

elasticity of demand for labour

A

proportionate change in demand for labour following a change in the wage rate. The elasticity can be calculated by using the following formula: proportionate change in quantity of labour demanded/ proportionate change in the wage rate

225
Q

elasticity of supply of labour

A

proportionate change in the supply of labour following a change in the wage rate. The elasticity can be calculated by using the following formula: proportionate change in quantity of labour supplied/ proportionate change in the wage rate

226
Q

average cost of labour

A

total wage costs divided by the number of workers employed

227
Q

marginal cost of labour

A

the addition to a firm’s total cost of production resulting from employing one more worker

228
Q

monopsony

A

there is only one buyer in a market

229
Q

monopsony power

A

the market power exercised in a market by the buyer of a good or the services of a factor production such as labour, even though the firm is not a pure monopsonist

230
Q

trade union

A

a group of workers who join together to maintain and improve their conditions of unemployment, including their pay

231
Q

collective bargaining

A

a process by which wage rates and other conditions of work are negotiated and agreed upon by a union or unions with an employer or employers

232
Q

national minimum wage

A

a minimum wage or wage rate that must by law be paid to employees, though in many labour markets the wage rate paid by employers is above the national minimum wage

233
Q

wage discrimination

A

paying different workers different wage rates for doing the same job

234
Q

distribution of income

A

how income is divided between rich and poor, or between different groups in society, e.g. on a regional, age or gender basis

235
Q

distribution of wealth

A

how wealth is divided between rich and poor, or between different groups in society, e.g. on a regional, age or gender basis

236
Q

income

A

personal or household income is the flow of money a person or household receives in a particular time period

237
Q

wealth

A

personal wealth is the stock of everything that a person or household owns at a particular point in time which has value

238
Q

equality

A

when everyone is treated exactly the same. A completely equal distribution of income means that everybody has the same income

239
Q

Lorenz curve

A

a graph on which the cumulative percentage of total national income or wealth is plotted against the cumulative percentage of population (ranked in increasing size of share). The extent to which the curve dips below a straight diagonal line indicates the degree of inequality of distribution

240
Q

Gini coefficient

A

measures the extent to which the distribution of income or wealth among individuals or households within an economy deviates from a perfectly equal distribution

241
Q

progressive taxation

A

a tax is progressive when, as income rises, a greater proportion of income is paid in taxation. The term can be applied to a particular tax such as income tax or to taxation in general

242
Q

poverty

A

the state of being extremely poor and not having enough money or income to meet basic needs

243
Q

absolute poverty

A

a condition characterised by severe deprivation of basic human needs, including food, safe drinking water, sanitation facilities, health, shelter, education and information. It depends not only on income but also on access to services.

244
Q

relative poverty

A

occurs when income is below a specified proportion of average income, e.g. below 60% of median income

245
Q

marginal tax rate

A

the tax rate levied on the last pound of income received. The term can be applied solely to income taxes or to all the taxes that a person or business pays

246
Q

free-rider problem

A

a free rider is someone who benefits without paying as a result of non-excludability. Customers may choose not to pay for a good, preferring instead to free ride, with the result that the incentive to provide the good through the market disappears.

247
Q

moral hazard

A

The tendency of individuals and firms, once insured against some contingency, to behave so as to make that contingency more likely.

248
Q

competition policy

A

the part of the government’s microeconomic policy and industrial policy which aims to make goods markets more competitive. It comprises policy toward monopoly, mergers and restrictive trading practices.

249
Q

competition and markets authority

A

government agency responsible for advising on and implementing UK competition policy

250
Q

public ownership

A

ownership of industries, firms and other assets such as social housing by central government or local government. The state’s acquisition of such assets is called nationalisation.

251
Q

privatisation

A

The transfer of assets from the public sector to the private sector

252
Q

deregulation

A

the removal of previously imposed regulations

253
Q

regulatory capture

A

occurs when regulatory agencies act in the interest of regulated firms rather on behalf of the consumers they are supposed to protect.