Microcytic anaemia - vWD Flashcards

1
Q

Define microcytic anaemia

A

Anaemia associated with a low MCV (< 80 fl).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 main mechanisms devolving into microcytic anaemia

A

Defects in either haem or globin synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Causes of microcytic anaemia (4)

A

• Defects in haem synthesis
 Iron deficiency – most common
Can be caused by blood loss (e.g. GI – in Tropics, hookworm is the most common cause of GI blood loss), reduced absorption (e.g. small bowel disease), increased demands (e.g. growth/pregnancy), reduced intakes (e.g. vegans)
 Anaemia of Chronic Disease – 2nd most common
Due to poor use of iron in erythropoiesis, cytokine-induced shortening of RBC survival, and reduced production of and response to erythropoietin.
Hepcidin plays a key role
Can occur in many chronic diseases e.g. chronic infection, vasculitis, rheumatoid arthritis, malignancy, renal failure
 Sideroblastic Anaemia
Abnormality of haem synthesis
Can be inherited or secondary (e.g. to alcohol/drugs)
• Defects in globin synthesis
o Thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain anaemia of chronic disease

A

Due to poor use of iron in erythropoiesis, cytokine-induced shortening of RBC survival, and reduced production of and response to erythropoietin.
Hepcidin plays a key role
Can occur in many chronic diseases e.g. chronic infection, vasculitis, rheumatoid arthritis, malignancy, renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

S/s of microcytic anaemia (14)

A
•	Non-Specific
o	Tiredness
o	Lethargy 
o	Malaise 
o	Dyspnoea
o	Pallor
o	Palpitations 
o	Exacerbation of ischaemic conditions (e.g. angina, intermittent claudication)
•	Signs of anaemia
o	Pallor 
o	Brittle nails and hair 
o	Koilonychia (if severe)
•	Glossitis 
•	Angular stomatitis 
•	Signs of thalassemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What can lead poisoning cause and what are the s/s 9`10)

A
•	Lead Poisoning - can cause microcytic anaemia
Symptoms of lead poisoning
o	Anorexia
o	Nausea/Vomiting 
o	Abdominal pain 
o	Constipation 
o	Blue gumline 
o	Peripheral nerve lesions (causing wrist or foot drop) 
o	Encephalopathy
o	Convulsions 
o	Reduced consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ix for microcytic anaemia (9)

A

Bloods
• FBC: decreased Hb, decreased MCV, Reticulocytes
• Serum iron and serum ferritin (decreases in iron deficiency)
• Total iron binding capacity (increases in iron deficiency)

Blood Film
• Iron deficiency anaemia: Microcytic, Hypochromic (central pallor <1/3 cell size), Anisocytosis (variable cell size), Poikilocytosis (variable cell shape)
• Sideroblastic anaemia: Dimorphic blood film, Hypochromic microcytic cells
• Lead poisoning: Basophilic stippling (coarse dots represent condensed RNA in cytoplasm)

Hb Electrophoresis
• Checking for Hb variants and thalassemia

  • Special investigations for iron deficiency anaemia if > 40 years and post-menopausal
  • These are considered if no obvious cause of blood loss is identified: Upper GI endoscopy, Colonoscopy, investigations for haematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mx for microcytic anaemia (think 3 main causes)

A
•	Iron Deficiency - oral iron supplements – ferrous fumerate, IV iron can be used if oral ineffective or SEs too much
•	Sideroblastic Anaemia
o	Treat the cause 
o	Pyridoxine used in inherited forms 
o	Blood transfusion and iron chelation can be considered if there is no response to other treatments 
•	Lead Poisoning
o	Remove the source 
o	Dimercaprol 
o	D-penicillinamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Complications of microcytic anaemia

A

High output cardiac failure and other complications related to the cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define myelodysplasia

A

A series of haematological conditions characterised by chronic pancytopenia (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopaenia) and abnormal cellular maturation.

There are FIVE subgroups:

  1. Refractory anaemia (RA)
  2. RA with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)
  3. RA with excess blasts (RAEB)
  4. Chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia (CMML)
  5. RAEB in transformation (RAEB-t)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the five subgroups of myelodysplasia

A

A series of haematological conditions characterised by chronic pancytopenia (anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopaenia) and abnormal cellular maturation.

There are FIVE subgroups:

  1. Refractory anaemia (RA)
  2. RA with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)
  3. RA with excess blasts (RAEB)
  4. Chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia (CMML)
  5. RAEB in transformation (RAEB-t)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain the pathophysiology of myelodysplasia

A
  • It may be PRIMARY (intrinsic bone marrow problem)
  • Or it may arise in patients who have received chemotherapy or radiotherapy for previous malignancies
  • Patients may have chromosomal abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

RF of myelodysplasia (5)

A
  • Age > 70 years
  • Alkylating Agents
  • Topoisomerase Inhibitors
  • Prior Haematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation
  • DNA Repair Deficiency Syndromes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Epidemiology of myelodysplasia

A
  • Mean age of diagnosis: 65-75 years old
  • More common in MALES
  • Twice as common as AML
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

S/s of myelodysplasia (15)

A
  • Anaemia (fatigue, dizziness)
  • Neutropoenia (recurrent infections)
  • Thrombocytopaenia (easy bruising, epistaxis)
  • Anaemia (pallor, cardiac flow murmur)
  • Neutropoenia (infections)
  • Thrombocytopaenia (purpura or ecchymoses)
  • Gum hypertrophy
  • Splenomegaly, Hepatomegaly, Lymphadenopathy (RARE except in chronic myelomonocytic leukaemia CMML)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ix for myelodysplasia (3)

A

Bloods
• FBC: pancytopenia

Blood Film
•	Normocytic or macrocytic Red Cells 
•	Variable microcytic Red Cells in RARS
•	Low granulocytes
•	Granulocytes are not granulated 
•	High monocytes in CMML
Bone Marrow aspiration or biopsy
•	Hypercellularity
•	Ringed siderblasts
•	Abnormal granulocyte precursors 
•	10% show marrow fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define myelofibrosis

A

• Disorder of haematopoietic stem cells characterised by progressive bone marrow fibrosis associated with extramedullary haematopoiesis and splenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of myelofibrosis

A

o There is hyperplasia of megakaryocytes
o Abnormal megakaryocytes release cytokines, like platelet-derived growth factor, that stimulate fibroblast proliferation and collagen deposition in bone marrow
o This results in extramedullary haematopoiesis in the spleen and liver – causing massive hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Epidemiology of myelofibrosis

A
  • RARE

* Peak onset: 50-70 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Associations with what other disease does myelofibrosis have

A

30% have previous Hx with polycythaemia rubra vera or essential thrombocytopaenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

RF of myelofibrosis (3)

A
  • Radiation Exposure
  • Industrial Solvents Exposure
  • Age > 65 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

S/s of myelofibrosis (18)

A
o	COMMON:
•	Weight loss 
•	Anorexia
•	Fever 
•	Night sweats 
•	Pruritis 
•	Abdominal discomfort 
o	UNCOMMON:
•	LUQ pain 
•	Indigestion (due to massive splenomegaly) 
•	Bleeding 
•	Bone pain 
•	Gout 
•	Infections 
  • SPLENOMEGALY
  • Hepatomegaly (present in 50-60%)
  • Pallor, petechiae, haemarthrosis, blood on PR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ix for myelofibrosis (5)

A

Bloods
• FBC: Initially variable Hb, WCC and platelets.
• Later stage FBC: Anaemia, Leukopaenia, thrombocytopaenia
• LFTs - abnormal

Blood Film
• Leucoerythroblastic changes (red and white cell precursors in the peripheral blood)
• ‘Tear drop’ poikilocyte red cells

Bone Marrow Aspirate or Biopsy
• Aspiration usually unsuccessful - ‘dry tap’ (due to fibrosis)
• Trephine biopsy shows fibrotic hypercellular marrow, (dense reticulin fibres on silver staining)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define normocytic anaemia

A

Anaemia with a normal MCV (80-100fl).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

5 general causes of normocytic anaemia

A
  • Acute blood loss
  • Failure of RBC production
  • Haemolysis (can be macrocytic)3
  • Uncompensated increase in plasma volume
  • Pooling of red cells in the spleen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Causes of decreased RBC production leading to normocytic anaemia (7)

A

 Bone marrow failure or suppression e.g. aplastic anaemia, chemotherapy
 Bone marrow infiltration e.g. malignancy
 Renal failure – abnormal erythropoietic drive
 Early stages of iron deficiency or anaemia of chronic disease
 Hypothyroidism (can be macrocytic)
 Vitamin B2 deficiency
 Vitamin B6 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

S/s of normocytic anaemia (8)

A

Typical signs and symptoms of anaemia (depends on severity)

  • Breathlessness
  • Fatigue
  • Dizziness
  • Conjunctival Pallor and pallor
  • Heart Palpitations
  • Tachycardia
  • Heart Murmur
  • Signs of heart failure i.e. oedema and pleural effusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Ix for normocytic anaemia (7)

A

Bloods
• FBC: Normal MCV, decreased Hb, decreased Haematocrit
• TFTs: decreased T3/T4 (if hypothyroidism is a cause of anaemia)

Peripheral Blood Smear:
• Target Cells
• Spherocytes
• Elliptocytes

Others include screening for:
• Renal Insufficiency (U&Es)
• Subclinical Infections
• Autoimmune diseases and neoplasias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define polycythaemia and the difference between relative and absolute (true) polycythaemia

A

An increase in haemoglobin concentration above the upper limit of normal for a person’s age/sex.

  • Relative Polycythaemia = normal red cell mass but low plasma volume
  • Absolute (True) Polycythaemia = increased red cell mass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is primary polycythaemia vera known as

A

• Polycythaemia Rubra Vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define the characteristics of polycythaemia rubra vera and the mutation involved

A

o Characterised by clonal proliferation of myeloid cells
o They have varied morphologic maturity and haematopoietic efficiency
o Mutations in JAK2 tyrosine kinase are involved

32
Q

What is secondary polycythaemia

A

increase in EPO

33
Q

What can cause appropriate secondary polycythaemia vera (2)

A
  • Due to chronic hypoxia (e.g. chronic lung disease, living at high altitude)
  • This leads to upregulation of erythropoiesis
34
Q

What can cause inappropriate secondary polycythaemia vera (7)

A
  • Renal (carcinoma, cysts, hydronephrosis)
  • Hepatocellular carcinoma
  • Fibroids
  • Cerebellar haemangioblastoma
  • Secondary polycythaemia may be due to erythropoietin abuse by athletes
35
Q

Causes of relative polycythaemia (4 acute, 5 chronic)

A

o May be acute – due to dehydration (e.g. diuretics, burns, enteropathy, alcohol)
o Chronic form associated with obesity, hypertension, high alcohol and tobacco intake
o Gaisbock’s syndrome
• Occurs in young male smokers with hypertension, which results in a decrease in plasma volume and an apparent increase in red cell count

36
Q

Epidemiology of polycythaemia vera (age)

A
  • Annual UK incidence: 1.5/100,000

* Peak age: 45-60 yrs

37
Q

S/s of polycythaemia vera (16)

A
  • CNS: Headaches, blurred vision
  • Dyspnoea
  • Tinnitus (ringing or buzzing in the ears)
  • Night Sweats
  • Tenderness & Redness of fingers, palms, heels or toes
  • Pain from Peptic Ulcer Disease
  • Angina
  • Gout
  • Plethoric Complexion: facial redness
  • Scratch marks as a result of itching
  • Conjunctival suffusion (redness of the conjunctiva)
  • Retinal venous engorgement
  • Hypertension
  • Splenomegaly
  • Signs of Underlying causes in 2o Polycythaemia
38
Q

RF of polycythaemia vera

A
  • Age > 40 years
  • Bud-Chiari Syndrome
  • Family history
39
Q

Ix for polycythaemia vera (specific to polycythaemia rubra vera and secondary)

A

FBC: Required for Diagnosis
• High Hb
• High haematocrit
• Low MCV

Isotope Dilution Techniques
• Allows confirmation of plasma volume and red cell mass
• Distinguishes between relative and absolute polycythaemia

Polycythaemia Rubra Vera
•	High WCC 
•	High platelets 
•	Low serum EPO
•	JAK2 mutation 
•	Bone marrow trephine and biopsy shows erythroid hyperplasia and raised megakaryocytes 

Secondary Polycythaemia
• High serum EPO
• Exclude Chronic Lung Disease/Hypoxia
• Check for EPO-secreting Tumours (CT Abdo, Brain MRI)

40
Q

Define sickle cell disease

A

• A chronic autosomal recessive condition with sickling of red blood cells caused by inheritance of haemoglobin S (HbS)
o Sickle Cell Anaemia = Homozygous HbSS
o Sickle Cell Trait = Carrier of one copy of HbS
Causes no disability (except in hypoxia e.g. anaesthesia – may cause vaso-occlusive event) and protects from falciparum malaria
o Sickle Cell Disease = includes compound heterozygosity for HbS and:
• HbC (abnormal haemoglobin in which glutamic acid is replaced by lysine at the 6th position in the beta-globin chain) - HbSC
• Beta-thalassemia – HbS/Bthal

41
Q

What is the mutation in sickle cell anaemia

A
  • Autosomal Recessive Trait
  • Point mutation in the beta-globin gene (glutamic acid  valine)  abnormal HbS
  • Deoxygenation of HbS alters the conformation resulting in sickling of red cells
42
Q

What is the issue with sickle red blood cells

A

o Sequestration and destruction (reduced red cell survival ~ 20 days)
o Occlusion of small blood vessels causing hypoxia, which leads to further sickling and occlusion

43
Q

Factors that precipitate sickling (4)

A
I HAD
o	Infection 
o	Dehydration 
o	Hypoxia 
o	Acidosis
44
Q

Why does sickle cell rarely present before 4-6 months

A

• Rarely presents before 4-6 months (because HbF can compensate for the defect in adult haemoglobin)

45
Q

Epidemiology of sickle cell anaemia

A

• Common in Africa, Caribbean, Middle-East and other areas with a high prevalence of malaria

46
Q

S/s of sickle cell anaemia due to vaso-occlusion or infarction (13)

A
  • Auto splenectomy (splenic atrophy or infarction): Leads to increased risk of infections with encapsulated organisms (e.g. pneumococcus, meningococcus) Bones
  • Painful crises affect small bones of hand & feet – causing dactylitis in CHILDREN
  • Painful crises MAINLY affect the ribs, spine, pelvis & long bones in ADULTS
  • Abdominal Pain
  • Myalgia and Arthralgia
  • CNS - Fits and strokes (hemiplegia)
  • Retina - Visual loss (proliferative retinopathy)

o Bone - joint or muscle tenderness or swelling (due to avascular necrosis)
o Short digits - due to infarction in small bones of the hands

• Retina - cotton wool spots due to retinal ischaemia

47
Q

S/s of sickle cell anaemia due to sequestration crisis (9)

A
o	NOTE: sequestration crises occur due to pooling of red cells in various organs (mainly the spleen). Mainly affects children as spleen has not yet undergone atrophy.
o	Liver --> exacerbation of anaemia 
o	Lungs --> acute chest syndrome
•	Breathlessness 
•	Cough 
•	Pain 
•	Fever 
o	Corpora cavernosa
•	Persistent painful erection (priapism)
•	Impotence
•	Symptoms of APLASTIC ANAEMIA: due to parvovirus B19 with sudden reduction in marrow production, especially RBCs
Anaemia and infection

• Signs secondary to SEQUESTRATION CRISES
o Organomegaly
• The spleen is ENLARGED in early disease
• Later on, the spleen will reduce in size due to splenic atrophy
o Priapism
• Signs of anaemia

48
Q

Ix for sickle cell disease

A
•	Bloods
o	FBC
•	Low Hb 
•	Reticulocytes:
	HIGH - in haemolytic crises 
	LOW - in aplastic crises 
o	U&amp;Es
•	Blood Film
o	Sickle cells 

o Anisocytosis (variation in size of red cells)
o Features of Hyposplenism:
• Target cells
• Howell-Jolly bodies
• Sickle Solubility Test
o Dithionate is added to the blood
o In sickle cell disease you get increased turbidity
• Haemoglobin Electrophoresis
o Shows HbS
o Absence of HbA (if homozygous HbS)
o High HbF
• Hip X-Ray
o Femoral head is a common site of avascular necrosis
• MRI or CT Head
o If there are neurological complications

49
Q

When are reticulocytes high and when are they low in sickle cell anaemia

A

 HIGH - in haemolytic crises

 LOW - in aplastic crises

50
Q

How can an aplastic crisis occur in sickle cell anaemia

A

• Aplastic crises
o Infection with Parvovirus B19 can lead to a temporary cessation of erythropoiesis (which can cause red cell count to plummet in sickle cell patients because their red cells have a shortened life span and can’t tolerate a cessation of erythropoiesis)

51
Q

Sickle cell anaemia differentials

A

Gout
Septic arthritis
Connective tissue disease

52
Q

Mx for sickle cell disease acutely (6)

A
•	ACUTE (PAINFUL CRISES)
o	Oxygen
o	IV Fluids 
o	Strong analgesia (IV opiates)
o	Antibiotics
o	Cross match blood 
o	Give transfusion if Hb or reticulocytes fall sharply
53
Q

Mx for sickle cell anaemia infection prophylaxis

A

• Infection Prophylaxis – as splenic infarction leads to hyposplenism
o Penicillin V
o Regular vaccinations (particularly against capsulated bacteria e.g. pneumococcus

54
Q

Mx for sickle cell anaemia frequent crises

A

• Hydroxyurea/Hydroxycarbamide – if frequent crises
o Increases HbF levels
o Reduces the frequency and duration of sickle cell crisis

55
Q

Mx for sickle cell anaemia surgical

A

• Surgical
o Bone marrow transplantation – may be curative
o Joint replacement in cases with avascular necrosis

56
Q

When is a red cell transfusion, hydroxyurea, or folic acid indicated in sickle cell anaemia

A

• Folic Acid
o If severe haemolysis or in pregnancy
• Hydroxyurea/Hydroxycarbamide – if frequent crises
o Increases HbF levels
o Reduces the frequency and duration of sickle cell crisis
• Red Cell Transfusion
o For SEVERE anaemia
o Repeated transfusions (with iron chelators) may be required in patients suffering from repeated crises

57
Q

Complications of sickle cell anaemia (13)

A
•	Aplastic crises 
o	Infection with Parvovirus B19 can lead to a temporary cessation of erythropoiesis (which can cause red cell count to plummet in sickle cell patients because their red cells have a shortened life span and can't tolerate a cessation of erythropoiesis)
•	Infection
•	Poor growth in children
•	Chronic renal failure
•	Haemolytic crises 
•	Pigment gallstones 
•	Retinal disease
•	Cholecystitis 
•	Renal papillary necrosis 
•	Leg ulcers 
•	Cardiomyopathy
•	Iron overload from repeated transfusion 
•	Lung damage
58
Q

Prognosis of sickle cell anaemia and usual reason for mortality

A

• Most patients with sickle cell disease who manage their disease well will survive until around the age of 50 yrs
• Mortality is usually the result of:
o Pulmonary or neurological complications in ADULTS
o Infection in CHILDREN

59
Q

Define thalassemia and what the problem is in it and mode of inheritance

A
  • A group of genetic disorders characterised by reduced globin chain synthesis
  • There is under or no production of one globin chain
  • Unmatched globins precipitate, damaging RBC membranes causing their haemolysis whilst still in the marrow
  • Autosomal recessive
60
Q

What does thalassemia result in

A

Result in an imbalance of globin chain production and deposition in erythroblasts and erythrocytes

61
Q

4 main things thalassemia leads to

A

o Ineffective erythropoiesis
o Haemolysis
o Anaemia
o Extramedullary haematopoiesis

62
Q

What are the 2 types of thalassemia and the 4 and 3 sub-types of each and what they result in

A

o ALPHA THALASSEMIA - reduction in alpha-globin chain synthesis. There are FOUR alpha-globin genes on the chromosome.
• 4 gene deletion = Haemoglobin Barts Hydrops Fetalis (intrauterine death)
• 3 gene deletion = Haemoglobin H  microcytic hypochromic anaemia and splenomegaly
• 2 gene deletion = Alpha 0 thalassemia  microcytic hypochromic red cells, NO ANAEMIA
• 1 gene deletion = Alpha+ thalassemia  microcytic hypochromic red cells, NO ANAEMIA
o BETA THALASSEMIA
• Beta Thalassemia Major (homozygous beta thalassemia)  little or no beta-chain synthesis
• Beta Thalassemia Intermedia - mild defect in beta-chain synthesis due to a variety of causes, e.g. co-inheritance of beta thalassemia trait with another haemoglobinopathy like HbC, leads to:
 Microcytic anaemia
 Reduced alpha-chain synthesis
 Increased gamma-chain synthesis
• Beta Thalassemia Trait (heterozygous carrier state)
 ASYMPTOMATIC
 Mild microcytic anaemia
 Increased red cell count

63
Q

Epidemiology of thalassemia

A
  • WORLDWIDE

* Most common in the MEDITERRANEAN and areas of the Middle-East

64
Q

S/s of thalassemia (10)

A
•	Beta Thalassemia Major
o	Severe anaemia 
o	Presenting at 3-6 months
•	This is when the change from HbF to HbA takes place 
•	Failure to thrive 
•	Prone to infection
•	Alpha or Beta Thalassemia Trait
o	May be ASYMPTOMATIC
o	Detected during routine blood tests or due to family history 

• Beta Thalassemia Major
o Pallor
o Malaise
o Dyspnoea
o Mild jaundice
o Extramedullary haematopoiesis occurs in response to anaemia causing frontal bossing and hepatosplenomegaly
o Thalassaemia facies (facial features caused by marrow hyperplasia)

o	Hepatosplenomegaly (due to erythrocyte pooling and extramedullary haematopoiesis)
o	Patients with beta-thalassemia intermedia may also have these signs
65
Q

Ix for thalassemia

A

Bloods
• FBC: Low Hb, low MCV (microcytic anaemia), low MCH

Blood Film
•	Hypochromic microcytic anaemia 
•	Target cells 
•	Nucleated red cells 
•	High reticulocyte count

Hb Electrophoresis
• Absent or reduced HbA
• High HbF

Bone Marrow
• Hypercellular
• Erythroid hyperplasia

Genetic Testing (rarely used)

Skull X-Ray
• ‘Hair on end’ appearance in beta thalassemia major
• This is caused by expansion of marrow into the cortex

66
Q

What is the mechanism and location of B12 absorption

A
  • B12 is found in meat and animal protein foods
  • Absorption occurs in the terminal ileum
  • Absorption requires intrinsic factor (produced by gastric parietal cells)
67
Q

What does IF do

A

Bind to vitamin B12 to allow it to be absorbed

68
Q

Causes of B12 deficiency (10)

A

Pernicious anaemia

  • Gastric: gastrectomy, atrophic gastritis
  • Inadequate intake (e.g. vegan)
  • Intestinal: malabsorption, ileal resection, Crohn’s affecting terminal ileum, tropical sprue
  • Drugs - colchicine, metformin
69
Q

Drugs that can cause B12 deficiency (2)

A

Metformin, colchicine

70
Q

What does pernicious anaemia involve (basic)

A

Pernicious anaemia is an AI condition involving:

  • Gastritis
  • Atrophy of all layers of the body and fundus of the stomach
  • Loss of normal gastric glands, parietal and chief cells
  • Lack of intrinsic factor
71
Q

RF of B12 deficiency (9)

A
  • Age > 65 years
  • Gastric Surgery
  • Chronic GI Disease
  • Vegan Diet
  • Metformin Use
  • PPI/H2 antagonist use or H. pylori infection
  • Anticonvulsant use
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Pregnancy
72
Q

S/s of B12 deficiency

A

Typical anaemia symptoms: Fatigue, Lethargy, SOB, Faintness, Palpitations, Headache
Neurological Symptoms
- Paraesthesia (may be an early & subtle symptom of neurological damage)
- Numbness
- Cognitive changes
- Visual disturbances
- Pallor (late sign)
- Heart failure (can occur with severe anaemia)
- Glossitis (late sign)
- Angular stomatitis
- Petechiae (late sign)
- Positive Romberg’s Test
- Decreased Vibration Sense
- Ataxia
- Neuropsychiatric: irritability, dementia, depression

73
Q

Define VWD and the types

A

• Von Willebrand’s disease is a bleeding disorder which may present with mucocutaneous bleeding (mouth, epistaxis, menorrhagia), increased bleeding after trauma and easy bruising

o Type 1 - the von Willebrand factor works well but there isn’t enough of it
60-80%, mild symptoms, autosomal dominant
o Type 2 - there are normal levels of von Willebrand factor but it is abnormal and doesn’t function correctly
20-30%, bleeding tendency varies amongst the 4 subtypes, usually autosomal dominant
o Type 3 - there is NO von Willebrand factor
1-5%, severe symptoms, autosomal recessive

74
Q

What are vWF’s 3 roles

A

 To bring platelets into contact with exposed subendothelium
 To make platelets bind to each other
 To bind to factor 8, protecting it from destruction in the circulation

75
Q

What inheritance pattern does vWD follow

A

Autosomal dominant

76
Q

S/s of vWD (7)

A
  • Easy bruising
  • Epistaxis - hard to stop
  • Prolonged bleeding from gums after dental procedures
  • Heavy or prolonged menstrual bleeding – menorrhagia
  • Blood in stools – haematochezia
  • Blood in urine – haematuria
  • Heavy bleeding from a cut or other accident
77
Q

Ix for vWD (6)

A

• Bleeding time - HIGH
• APTT - HIGH
Usually normal PT
• Factor VIII - LOW
• vWF Ag - LOW in type 1 and 3, normal in type 2
• INR and platelets – normal
• Ristocetin cofactor – normal in type 2, abnormal in type 1 and 3