MicROBIOLOGY UNIT EXAM 3 Pt. 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Normal Flora

Discuss the amount of bacteria, the ratio of types, whether they are harmful/not?

A

Microorganisms found on or within healthy people
Mostly bacteria & fungi - 10^2-10^3:1 anaerobes to aerobes

Healthy human body has 10 - 100 X more bacterial cells than human cells

Some found only in association with the body; others can be free-living

Majority are commensals (coexist without harm), but some are transient

Some found in a fraction of the human population

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2
Q

Numbers of Bacteria:

Where are the largest, average, small number of bacteria found?

A

Large numbers: gingival pockets, feces
(10^11 organisms/gm)

Small numbers: skin, mouth, vagina
(10^6-10^7/ml or gm)
- skin is dry and salty

even smaller numbers: stomach
(10^3-10^5/gm)

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3
Q

What Body Parts Are Sterile

A
Sterile: presence of microbes suggestive of disease/infection. Very small transient presence may be ok.
• Blood
• CSF
• Body fluids
• Deep tissues
 Nearly sterile: Presence of microbes fairly normal. Transiently maybe not so bad.
• Bronchi, alveloli
• Esophagus
• Urinary bladder
• Uterus

Note: often where issues arises when bacteria get to places that are sterile –> may be suggestive of disease / infection

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4
Q

Roles of Normal Flora (5)

A
  1. Human nutrition and metabolism (malnourished individuals affected more by these two roles)

Vitamin K, biotin, short chain fatty acids, folate, iron absorption
Deconjugation of hormones
Breakdown of complex carbohydrates

  1. Protection

Previous occupancy (competition for receptors)
Competition for nutrients
Production of antimicrobial factors (bactericins, lactic acid)

  1. Priming of immune system

Induce secretion of IgA
Influence development of humoral immune system
Modulate local T-cell responses and cytokine profiles
Low antibody titers to normal flora are beneficial

  1. Destruction or formation of carcinogens

Metabolize dietary carcinogens
Can produce carcinogens via bacterial enzymes
e.g cyclamate cyclohexamuine

  1. Opportunistic infections - normal flora can get to the wrong place, over grow –> creates a problem now.

Periodontitis - overgrowth in gingival crevices
Aspiration pneumonia- lowered resp. defenses
poor cough reflex due to a stroke
smoking-induced paralysis of ciliary clearance mechanisms
fibronectin/Gram positives
Anaerobic abscesses - colon, pelvis, brain
Growth on catheters and stents - S. epidermidis
Urinary tract infections - E. coli

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5
Q

What parameters are set to studying normal flora : conditions and characteristics of those organisms that are studied.

A
  • Conditions

Sterile animals, breeder colonies
Germ-free living conditions

  • Characteristics of Germ-free animals (e.g. may be more susceptible to infection due to lack of normal flora)
Vitamins required
Faster weight gain than normal animals
Decreased immunoglobulins
Altered histology of intestine
absence of low level inflammation observed in normal animals
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6
Q

What Happens When the Balance of Normal Flora is Shifted? Discuss the shifted balance of Clostridium difficile and the consequences to host, and what does it produce.

A

Clostridium difficile: A Shifting Balance

  • Clostridium difficile (strict anaerobe found in GI, and is a bacillus), Gram +, anaerobe, bacillus
  • We only know 10% of the normal flora of large intestine
  • Outgrowth when competition is eliminated by broad spectrum antibiotic use. A decrease of % of several bacteria but if not doing well health wise the C. difficile can outgrow other bacteria types.
  • Symptoms include: fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain → pseudomembranous colitis
  • Bacterium produces 2 toxins, toxins are only toxigenic if they reach a large amount.
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7
Q

Pathogenesis of Colitis Polymicrobial colonization via antibiotic treatment

A

Polymicrobial colonization of gut (normal flora) is treated with antibiotic and leads to the overgrowth of Overgrowth of Clostridium difficile. C. difficile INCREASES the production a toxin kills epithelial lining and produces a pseudomembrane resulting in colitis

Note: C. difficile is a Gram-positive OBLIGATE anaerobe that is ~3-10% of the normal flora of the large intestine in some individuals

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8
Q

Define what makes up the pseudomembrane.

How can Clostridium difficile spread via consumption? How does the uprising of Clostridium occur once in the GI tract?

A

Pseudomembrane - essentially just dead and dieing epithelial cells, bacterial, WBCs

Clostridium difficile is spread via the fecal-oral
route. The organism is ingested as hardy spores, which can
survive for long periods in the environment and
can traverse the acidic stomach.

In the small intestine, spores germinate into the vegetative form.

In the large intestine, C difficile-associated disease can arise if the normal flora has been disrupted by antibiotic therapy

C difficile reproduces in the intestinal
crypts, releasing toxins A and B, causing
severe inflammation. Mucous and
cellular debris are expelled, leading to
the formation of pseudomembranes.
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9
Q

Discuss the advent of nosocomial infections and hand washing.

Discuss the environment of the skin, how should hands be washed, and 3 examples of bacteria found on skin.

A

5% of people admitted (1.8 million) to hospital will pick up an infection; 20,000 will die

Vigorous soaping (10-15 sec), thorough rinse

Skin is dry, and slightly acid; relatively hostile environment (not a hospitable environment)

  1. Staphylococcus epidermidi
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Corynebacteriae sp
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10
Q

Key concepts of normal flora:

Microorganisms frequently found on or within the healthy human body

  • Skin, respiratory, digestive, urinary and genital tracts contain large numbers of microorganisms
  • Sterile sites include blood, CSF, synovial fluid and deep tissues; the urinary bladder and uterus can be transiently occupied
  • They are a common source of infection, provide immune stimulation, keep out invaders, play a role in human nutrition and metabolism, and may be a source of carcinogens
  • Alterations in the balance of normal flora can have serious consequences on human health
A

Informational

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11
Q

List the different types of oxygen growth conditions for bacteria. Periodontal pocket, dental plaque, colon,
crushing injuries that lead to impaired blood supply drops does what to the oxygen supply and its affect on certain bacteria

A
Growth Conditions for Anaerobes
Oxygen concentration in air
•obligate aerobes 20%
•facultative anaerobes 20% to 0% (can use or not use oxygen for growth)
•aerotolerant - prefer
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12
Q

Why can’t obligate anaerobes grow in oxygen?

A

Lack enzymes that protect against oxygen toxicity

  1. superoxide and H2O2 are toxic:

superoxide dismutase (superoxide to hydrogen peroxide) and catalase (hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen)

  1. Inability to regenerate essential sulfhydryls in enzymes
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13
Q

Anaerobic Metabolism: how is ATP produced

A

Glycolysis, Fermentation, and Kreb cycle

ATP is produced largely by anaerobic respiration
Reduced coenzymes produced are oxidized by reactions that produce H2, methane, and organic acids (butyrate, propionate, lactate). MOST anaerobe infections are fowl smelling gas.

Note: Polymicrobial environment; strict anaerobe can be helped by a facultative anaerobe e.g. by using up oxygen.

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14
Q

Anaerobic Infections

Characteristics
Predisposing Conditions

A

Characteristics

  • Caused by NORMAL FLORA, which invade normally sterile regions of the body
  • Characterized by mixture of species: “polymicrobial”
  • Species present reflect source of infection
  • Result from trauma, disease, isolated events
  • Frequently are abscesses

Predisposing Conditions

• Any condition that lowers redox potential of tissues
–Growth of facultative or aerobic bacteria
–Tissue necrosis
–Impaired blood supply

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15
Q

Classes of Anaerobes: Rods (Bacilli) (2)

A

Clostridium

Bacteroides

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16
Q

Discuss Inta-abdominal Sepsis. What needs to be initiated and what are the causes? What cavity is prone to contamination and the acute inflammation can lead to ____?

What is the most pathogenic anaerobe. Discuss the characteristics making this guy so BAD! and where is it found?

A

Intra-abdominal Sepsis:

Colon wall breached via blunt trauma, ruptured bowel, penetrating wound or abdominal surgery
–Peritoneal cavity-prone to contamination
–Acute inflammation leads to localized abscesses

Bactericides fragilis: Most common pathogenic anaerobe!

  • most common cause of anaerobic abdominal infections
  • found below the diaphragm- resident in colon
  • capsule: major virulence factor, inhibits phagocytosis
  • resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics
  • always mixed with other bacteria
  • Gram-negative rod
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17
Q

Brain Abscesses: what type of bacteria are the most common perpetrators? The abscesses can arise from complications of what (4)? What are the symptoms (9)

A
Brain Abscesses
Most are due to anaerobes
Complications of
– otitis media (middle ear)
– sinusitis
– sepsis from tooth extraction
– endocarditis

Symptoms
low grade fever, headaches, drowsiness, confusion, nausea and vomiting, motor, sensory or speech disorders

Note: the area that normally contained the bacteria was not dangerous but once it gets access to sterile sites e.g. the blood of CNS (game over). Formation of abscesses helps to barricade these guys from oxygen.

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18
Q

Anaerobic Infections: Head, Neck, Mouth

Discuss Acute necrotizing ulcerating gingivitis (ANUG). What occurs?

A

Acute necrotizing ulcerating gingivitis (ANUG): E.g. by improper brushing

  • Normal flora in gingival sulcus, tonsillar pouches, dental plaque can progress to Vincent’s angina: ulcerative infection of oral and throat mucosa. Fusobacteria and spirochetes in necrotic lesions; may spread to the deep tissues and cause tissue destruction.
  • Fusobacterium spp., Gram-negative rod, Spindle shaped (fusoform)
  • Treponema denticola, Gram-negative, spirochete

**Other Examples of Anaerobic Infections: The anaerobes can be gram +/- ***

  • Cutaneous: 1. Necrotizing fasciitis (gas producing anaerobe vs non gas producing aerobe/fac. anaerobe), 2. Post-surgical cellulitis. 3. Infections of prosthetic devices (heart valves, artificial joints, catheters, shunts)
  • Pulmonary: Mixed infection from pleural empyema (pus forming): both Gram + and - bacteria. Death of the lung- cell lining can lead to the anaerobic infection. Causes: malignancy in lung or elsewhere, oral disease or tooth extraction, altered consciousness (from alcoholism, anesthesia, narcotics, etc.), foreign body in the lung, immunosuppressive therapy.

Note: pulmonary infections of anaerobes are largely overlooked because of difficulty in obtaining diagnostic specimens-sputum is not suitable and blood cultures are rarely positive.

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19
Q

Diagnosis of Anaerobic Infections

Clinical Findings (6)

Lab Findings (4)

A
Clinical Findings
–Foul-smelling discharge
–Necrotic tissue
–Gas in tissue
–Infection associated with malignancy
–Black discoloration of exudates
–Predisposing conditions (e.g., septic abortion, G.I. surgery)
Lab Findings
–Unique morphology on Gram stain
–Failure to grow aerobically
–Growth in anaerobic zone of liquid medium
–Gas, foul odor in specimen on culture
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20
Q

Treatment of Anaerobic Infections

Discuss options (2).

A
  • Surgical drainage often important
  • Antibiotics

–Penicillin G is good for control of anaerobes other than Bacteroides—infections below the waist almost always involve Bacteroides

–Clindamycin is drug of choice, but does not cross blood-brain barrier

–Chloramphenicol crosses barrier, but is toxic

–Metronidazole (flagyl) also good for anaerobes

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21
Q

Key Concepts-Anaerobes

  • Most pathogenic anaerobes are in the genera Bacteroides
  • Obligate anaerobes lack superoxide dismutase and catalase and are sensitive to the presence of hydrogen peroxide and superoxide
  • Anaerobes use compounds other than oxygen as final electron acceptors
  • Anaerobic infections are usually caused by mixed infections of facultative and strict anaerobes that are part of the normal flora and gain access to tissue sites that are normally sterile
  • Specimen collection and transport are critical for accurate diagnosis and treatment
A

Informational

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22
Q

Tetracycline prevent _______. Is derived from ______. Comment of structure and as a result has certain physical/chemical qualities. MOA. What contributes to its partial selective toxicity and has a greater affinity for host or non-host; why can we infer this?

A

prevent access of new amino acyl tRNA to mRNA-ribosome complex.

Derived from Streptomycin aureofaciens

•Composed of 4 fused six-membered unsaturated rings
- amphipathic, have color and respond to UV light

Mechanism of Action

  • Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 30s subunit and blocking access of the amino acyl-t-RNA to mRNA-ribosome complex at the acceptor site
  • Active uptake mechanisms by susceptible organisms imparts some selective toxicity
  • Greater affinity of non-host ribosomes since intracellular rickettsiae and chlamydiae are treatable.

Note: Rickettsia is a genus of nonmotile, Gram-negative, nonspore-forming, highly pleomorphic bacteria that can present as cocci (0.1 μm in diameter), rods (1–4 μm long), or thread-like (10 μm long).

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23
Q

Tetracycline Spectrum

Similar spectrum to what? Type of agent. Treatment can be for (7) examples.

A
  • Broad spectrum because both bacteria and Rickettsia are susceptible
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Similar spectrum to erythromycin particularly intracellular organisms such as Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia spp, Legionella spp, Ureaplasma, Rickettsiae
  • Treatment of acne vulgaris and rosacea. Chlamydial infections, mycoplasma pneumonia, lyme disease, rocky mountain spotted fever (Rickettsiae), cholera.

Note: Tetracycline is rather limited and many strains are now resistant.

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24
Q

Tetracycline Resistance: What is the most important means of resistance, discuss the spread of resistance, and two other means of resistance.

A
  • Resistance is widespread, transposable and commonly permanent because exists as multi-drug resistance gene cassettes
  • Most important is active efflux
  • Enzymatic inactivation
  • Decreased affinity of target
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25
Q

Pharmacokinetics of Tetracycline

Bioavailability range, route, avoid, binds to tissues undergoing ____, penetrates _____ well,

A

•Orally active: range from 30% bioavailability for chlortetracycline to 95% for doxycycline.
- Dairy products, Mg++, Ca++and Al+++ions chelate tetracyclines and produce a non-absorbable complex

  • Bound to tissues undergoing calcification (teeth and bones
  • Penetrate tissues well –high concentrations in liver and kidney
  • Cross the placenta
  • Minocycline has high concentration in tears & saliva and can be used to treat meningococcal carrier state (not active)

Note: Effect of milk on tetracycline absorption is more inhibitory than Al(OH3) “antacid”

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26
Q

Host elimination of Tetracycline

How is it eliminated, what modification does it undergo, and what Rx plays an exception to elimination of Tetracyclines?

A
  • Metabolized to varying extents, especially glucuronide formation which is very polar and ends up in kidney and biliary excretion.
  • All undergo enterohepatic circulation except for doxycycline glucuronide
  • Renal excretion is important for all except doxycycline which is excreted in the feces
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27
Q

Adverse Effects of Tetracycline

A
  • Irritation of gastric mucosa –GI distress
  • Deposition in bone and primary dentition (permanent teeth) during calcification (contraindicated in children sunburn
  • Vestibular disturbance with minocycline
  • Azotemia, Fanconi-like syndrome with outdated preparations
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28
Q

Drug Interactions of Tetracycline (3)

A
  • Antacids
  • Increased digoxin toxicity in 10% of patients
  • Increased warfarin activity due in part to decreased intestinal flora which produce vitamin K

Note: TETRACYCLINE limits the growth of normal flora (organisms) that normally metabolize digoxin. Thus need to change the dose of digoxin e.g. decrease the dose b/c more digoxin will be absorbed than normally.

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29
Q

Avoid use of Chloramphenicols because of increased risk of toxicities due to what functional group?

  1. Antibacterial action
  2. Resistance (2)
  3. Spectrum (4)
A
  • greater risk of toxicities with nitro group on a benzene ring.
  1. Antibacterial action: Binds to 50s to a site very similar to
    to macrolides and clindamycin- interfering with both peptidyl transferase (make peptide bond) and translocation.
  2. Resistance:
    –Enzymatic conversion to an inactive product by bacteria (acetyl CoA transferase)
    –Decreased affinity
3. Spectrum
–H. influenzae
–Acute typhoid fever
–Rickettsial infections (Rocky Mountain Spotted fever)
–Anaerobic infections
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30
Q

Chloramphenicol Pharmacokinetics

route 
distribution
specialty penetration
metabolism
excretion

Chloramphenicol Blood Levels in Two Different Age-groups of Children- compare rate of excretion

A

Chloramphenicol Pharmacokinetics:

  • Orally active; parenteral preparations also
  • Well distributed; even enters CNS in absence of inflammation
  • Crosses placenta
  • Extensive metabolism by host. Ultimate product is a glucuronide
  • Excreted in urine

Chloramphenicol Blood Levels in Two Different Age-groups of Children:
3-5 days old vs 1-5 year olds: Older children have a much higher rate of excretion.

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31
Q

Define glucuronide. Like it to the jaundice of neonates.

A

A glucuronide, also known as glucuronoside, is any substance produced by linking glucuronic acid to another substance via a glycosidic bond.

This links back to the competition aspect of HbF bursting and heme is now competing to get glucuronosylated.

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32
Q

Adverse Effects of Chloramphenicol (3)

What are the cautions when giving the Rx?

A

•Hematological
–Hemolytic anemia in G-6-P DH deficiency
–Reversible anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia –dose related; occurs during therapy
–Idiosyncratic (dependent on the number of COURSES of CHLORAMPHENICOL Rx Treatments!!!) aplastic anemia –probably allergic in origin

•Gray baby syndrome - at high enough doses will affect host mitochondria of these growing infants and thus cannot use oxygen —> gray color. Fail to thrive.

Adjust dose to weight as opposed to surface area.

•Drug interactions because of CYP 450 inhibition: caution in patients on warfarin, phenytoin, etc.

Note of caution: Easier to reverse adverse effects of penicilin compared to chloramphenicol –> aplastic anemia. Thus more cautious when administer this Rx.

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33
Q

Therapeutic Uses of Chloramphenicol (4)

A
  • Anaerobic infections due to Bacteroides fragilis
  • Typhoid fever and H. influenzaemeningitis when first line therapy fails or cannot be employed
  • Pneumococcal or meningococcal meningitis in penicillin-allergic patients
  • Rickettsial diseases as a substitute for tetracycline( Sensitivity, ESRD, pregnancy, particularly children
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34
Q

MOA of Aminoglycosides and downstream effects of that. What type of agent and effective against what bacteria? How does it get into bacterial cell and why?

A

Rx is effective against Gram negative aerobes and are bacteriocidal.

  • Binding to 30s subunit prevents initiation of protein synthesis
  • Blocks further translation & causes premature termination
  • Causes misreading of mRNA codon by binding to the 3rd codon.
  • Entry across bacterial cell membrane occurs via an active transport system that REQUIRES OXYGEN because Rx is polar.

Note: Aminglycosides are bacteriocidal as opposed to most of the protein synthesis inhibitors that are bacteriostatic.

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35
Q

Mechanisms of Resistance of Aminoglycosides (3)

A
  • Absence of the oxygen-dependent transport system (ACTIVE TRANSPORT TO GET AMINOGLYCOSIDE INSIDE) –obligatory anaerobes are resistant
  • Decreased affinity at the 30s subunit binding site
  • Plasmid associated inactivating enzymes that can acetylate, adenylate or phosphorylate the aminoglycoside
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36
Q

Comparison of Resistance Enzyme Activity on Kanamycin vs. Amikacin

A
AC = acetylation
AD =  adenylation
P = phosphorylation
Bar = bacterial plasmid enzymes will be likely to alter the fxnal group and render it ineffective.

Natural Resistance!

Amikacin - Most of the fxnal groups are resistant to the modification by the bacterial plasmid enzymes as opposed to Kanamycin- more sensitive to modification.

Amikacin due to the resistance of being modified by plasmid enzymes DOES NOT lend itself to cross resistance by all members of the bacterial class. CROSS RESISTANCE DOES NOT OCCUR!

E.g. gave a pt Kanamycin and they became resistant during Tx. The bacteria will not have a cross resistance to Amikacin thus it will be effective.

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37
Q

Spectrum of Activity of Aminoglycoside

Streptomycin

Gentamicin, Tobramycin, Amikacin

What is a frequent combination with Aminogylcosides?

A

•Streptomycin –Mycobacterium tuberculosis

•Gentamicin, tobramycin, amikacin
–Gram negative aerobic bacteria Pseudomonas aeruginosa

•NOTE: aminoglycosides are frequently combined with ß-lactams to treat serious, life-threatening infections because of synergy between the groups.

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38
Q

Aminoglycoside spectrum of action

A

Tularemia
Infections due to Enterococci
Infections due to Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

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39
Q

Pharmacokinetics of Aminoglycoside

Route
Dosing interval
Distribution
Specialty penetration
What organs does it get concentrated in?
Elimination
What else is required when administering this drug over a week or so?
A
  • Must be given parenterally
  • Once a day dosing because exhibit dose-dependent killing

•Distribution -extracellular fluid; do not enter CSF
- Dissolve well but don’t cross membranes well. Are highly polar

  • Cross the placenta
  • Concentrated in renal cortex and endolymph (vestibular and cochlear apparatus.)
  • Dependent on glomerular filtration (as opposed to beta-lactams which are also actively secreted into kidney tubules) for elimination
  • Therapeutic monitoring (because have a narrow therapeutic range thus have to routinely monitored esp. when getting infusion over a week or so.)
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40
Q

Aminoglycoside

Once a day vs 3 times a day dosing

Done 3 times a day why?

Killing of bacteria vs adverse effects (dose dependent/time dependent)

What are the advantages of one over the other?

A

3 times a day because of the dependency of glomerular filtration rate.

Once a day give the same of cumulative dose with the 3 times a day. We get 50 % of the time (12 hrs) exposed to concentrations of adverse effects. With 3 times a day (18 hrs) exposed to concentration of adverse effects.

Killing of bacteria - dose dependent (more the dose the more the killing)
Adverse effects - longer the time exposed to drug the increase in severity of adverse effects.

Note: concentrations of adverse effects are above the threshold - - - -. No sig difference between the adverse effects of once a day vs 3 times a day and clinical difference not really apparent. Cheaper and less likely to miss a dose with once a day administration.

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41
Q

Patient factors affecting dosing of aminoglycosides (5)

Measurement of plasma creatinine is a quick way to measure GFR.

A

Patient factors affecting dosing of aminoglycosides

  • Age - increase in age proportional to decrease of GFR. Starting at age 50 every decade decrease of about 15% GFR
  • Obesity - Not as much fluid in higher fat content thus will end up with higher [ ] in extracellular fluid
  • Renal function - This goes for any antibiotic…. best way is to change length of time between time if there is impaired GFR.
  • Pregnancy
  • Hepatic function- this factor does not have a significant role for amino glycoside administration
  • If there is muscle wasting (as in the elderly) you have normal creatinine levels but decreased GFR
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42
Q

Toxicity (4) related to Aminoglycosides

A
  • Ototoxicity - Either vestibular or cochlear function. Cause loss of hearing or be dizzy.
  • Fetal auditory toxicity - reason why it is not given during pregnancy.
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Neuromuscular paralysis
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43
Q

Establishment of Infection (7)

A

Encounter

Entry

Spread - Agent spreads from site of entry; this step doesn’t always have to occur. Can remain localized.

Multiplication/Colonization

Damage - Agent or host response causes damage

Outcome - Agent wins, host wins, coexistence

Note: Defenses at each step!!!

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44
Q

First Encounters of bacteria

Prebirth
Birth

Types of Encounter

Define colonization, carrier, and resolution of colonization

A

Prebirth - uterine environment normally sterile, but congenital infections possible (transplacental)
- E.g. rubella, syphilis, HIV, cytomegalovirus

Birth - microorganisms in vaginal canal (mother’s antibodies sometimes protect); skin contact

Types of Encounter:

  • Exogenous- some pathogens never establish normal flora

agents in the environment - food, insect bites, etc.

exchange of bodily fluids - sneezing, sex

  • Endogenous

agents in or on the body
normal flora in the wrong place

Colonization- implies that the patient has a sufficiently high concentration of organisms at a site that they can be detected, yet the organism is causing no signs or symptoms.

A carrier is a person who is colonized with an organism and may transmit the organism to other people. Colonization can persist for days to years, with resolution influenced by the immune response to the organism, competition at the site from other organisms and, sometimes, use of antimicrobials.

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45
Q

Establishment of Infection

Entry (4)

A
Without crossing epithelial barriers
• Inhalation via aerosol droplets, dust
• Ingestion of food or water
• No entry or penetration into tissues -
toxins (cholera, whooping cough, cystitis)

Crossing epithelial barriers
• Pass through epithelia directly - bind to receptors
• Insect bite or break in skin
• Burrowing worms

Organ transplants
• Kidney transplants (CMV)

Blood transfusions
• HIV, Hepatitis B Virus

Note: with infants and children a normal floral lacks thus a colonization that normally would not be an infection to adults may be so along with the toxification.

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46
Q

Spread & Multiplication with the establishment of an Infection

Spread - Ways to spread (3)

Factors influencing Multiplication

A

Spread

  • Lateral propagation (to contiguous tissues)- may be done so by enzymes that can break down muscle, tissue and lead to dissemination
  • Dissemination to distant sites
  • Microbial motility- e.g. vibrio cholera, bacteria in liquid areas.
**Enzyme action
• hydrolases, elastases
• collagenases, proteases
• hyaluronidases, DNases
• keratinases

Multiplication

Depends on environment

Incubation period
- Early defenses, Growth

Nutrition
Antimicrobial substances
Iron limitation

Temperature optimum

pH
- Stomach acid

Population density
- quorum sensing: colony will get a sense of their density and with the favorable conditions decide how much more to grow. can occur within a single bacterial species as well as between disparate species, and can regulate a host of different processes, essentially serving as a simple communication network.

Adherence

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47
Q

Possible Damage from the point of Infection (4)

A

Mechanical obstruction- rare for bacteria, more common for parasites to do this. E.g the parasite that cause elephantiasis. Hookworms or helminths are large enough to block normal function

Cell death
- cytolytic toxins, activation of cell-killing WBCs

Toxins botulinum, tetanus

Inflammation and immunoprotective mechanisms
Ag-Ab complexes (glomerulonephritis)
Cell-mediated immunity-activation of macrophages (TB)

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48
Q

Possible Outcome due to Infection (3)

A

Depends on complicated interplay between human host and microbe

Agent wins and host dies
Host wins and disease is cleared
Coexistence as with the normal flora

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49
Q

Steps in Ingestion and Killing by Phagocytes

A

Opsonization of bacteria
engulfment by PMN/macrophage
phagosome fuses with lysosomes ==> phagolysosome
Exocytosis of bacterial fragments

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50
Q

What are ways to avoid phagocytosis and can an example of a bacterium that does so?

A
  1. Capsule: Streptococcus pneumonia
  2. Important Surface Components: protein A performs an extremely tight interaction to IgG thus blocks the Fc portion and now not available for Fc receptor to bind.
    - Staphylococcus aureus: protein A binds Fc portion of IgG molecules; prevents opsonization
    - Streptococcus pyogenes: M protein protects from phagocytosis
  3. Killing Phagocytes
    Bacterial enzymes that lyse phagocytes
    Streptococcus pyogenes—> Streptolysin Clostridium perfringens —> Alpha-toxin
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51
Q

During phagocytosis how can bacteria avoid from being killed (3)

A
  1. Escape the phagosome before fusion of lysosome
Rickettsia
Trypanosoma
Shigella
Listeria
Francisella
  1. Tolerance of being inside phagolysosome- a. Catalase, superoxide dismutase detoxify oxygen intermediates
    b. Some cell walls are refractory to destruction by lysosomal proteases
Coxiella 
Ehrlichia 
Leishmania 
Mycobacterium leprae 
Salmonella typhi
  1. Avoidance can remain in phagosome for a period of time. Can block the fusion with lysosome and may continue to divide although slowly.

Chlamydia
Mycobacterium tb
Legionella Brucella
Toxoplasma

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52
Q

Intracellular Growth: what does that allow the bacteria to do?

A

Intracellular Growth- permits bacteria to use the cell as a place to grow and hide from the immune responses. Intracellular replication gives cells a place to grow and protects from antibodies of the immune system.

Mycobacterium sp.
Rickettsiae
Francisellae
Brucellae
Chlamydiae
Listeria monocytogenes
Salmonella typhi
Shigella dysenteriae
Yersinia pestis
Legionella pneumophila
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53
Q

Antigenic variation: How does this play a role with the immune response. Give two examples.

A

Immune response must elicit new attack upon antigenic variation. E.g when the bacteria count is low as a result of an effective immune response the bacteria can undergo antigenic variation

Neisseria gonorrheae pilin protein
Trypanosoma surface glycoproteins
Borrelia (Lyme disease), Neisseria (gonorrhea), Plasmodia (malaria)Polysaccharide capsule buries C3b component of complement and prevents opsonization

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54
Q

List virulence factors (8)

A
Capsules/slime layers 
Pili/Adhesins 
Biofilm formation 
Invasins 
Type III secretion systems
sIgA proteases
Fe binding proteins
Toxins
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55
Q

Capsules: List its varied functions (4)

A

Capsules: Most common bacterial mechanism to avoid phagocytosis

  • Prevent phagocytosis – prevent binding of opsonins to bacteria AND interaction between opsonins and their phagocyte receptors on Adhesion of phagocytes and binding of opsonins
  • Complement-mediated bacterial cell lysis
  • Enhance adhesion to the host cell
  • Prevent bacterial desiccation - e.g. coughing up a bacterium onto a surface it may survive longer.
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56
Q

Adherence Factors

Adhesins are advantageous for what reason? Give some examples (3).

A

Adhesins:

  • Protein or carbohydrate molecules bind tightly to sugars on target tissue
  • Prevent washing away - bladder, intestine, blood vessels
    1. Pili
    2. Afimbrial adhesins- Afimbrial adhesins refer to proteins that serve as adherence factors, but do not form the long, polymeric fimbrial structure. Afimbrial adhesins generally mediate more intimate contact with the host cell that occurs over a shorter range than with fimbriae.
    3. Techoic acids from the gram positive bacteria
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57
Q

Biofilms: what are its advantages?

A

Bacterial adaptation that facilitates colonization

•a sticky web of polysaccharides (slime) anchors cells
e.g. dental plaque, indwelling catheters, valves

•protects from host defenses and antibiotics

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58
Q

Invasion Factors

Define invasins. Discuss which bacteria have invasins and the mechanism of action. How are invasions present within the genome of bacteria? How are invasions regulated?

A

Invasins - Proteins that help bacteria cross mucosal membranes

Shigella, Salmonella, Yersinia - invasin protein allows binding of bacteria to M cells of colon and encourage uptake, or go from one cell to another

Genes for invasion machinery encoded on a Pathogenicity Island

PAI - very large, unstable chromosomal regions
Sets of genes encoding numerous virulence factors

  • Regulated by a single stimulus

Mobile genetic element transferrable as a unit to other bacteria (TGEs)

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59
Q

Type III Secretion Systems - what is the advantage to this?

A

Type III Secretion Systems- more effective to get enzymes/toxins directly into a host cell via connection than just secreting enzymes/toxins extracellularly.

Export system - delivers proteins through both inner and outer membranes of Gram negative pathogens

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60
Q

Secretory IgA Proteases: Describe this defense mechanism and what is it against.

A

Mucin: proteoglycan mucin protects mucosal cells, contains secretory IgA

Host defense - sIgA binds to glycoprotein in mucin layer and traps bacteria; prevents bacteria from reaching mucosa

Bacterial offense - sIgA protease -cleaves hinge region (much more likely to cause bacterial infection in mucosal regions) of sIgA, releasing bacteria

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61
Q

Iron Acquisition

What’s so important about Iron and how does host respond in defense and how does bacteria counteract the host response?

A

Iron is critical for humans and most pathogens - required for cytochromes, cofactor for enzymes, etc

  • Iron limitation restricts bacterial growth
  • Low free [Fe] in humans

***To compete with lactoferrin/transferrin for iron, bacteria contain Siderophores- Fe chelators

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62
Q

Define Toxins.

What cell envelope components may be toxic? Describe the effects on the host.

Define exotoxins. Describe their effects on the host and what it targets.

A

Toxins are bacterial products that directly harm tissue or trigger destructive biologic activities

Cell envelope components: Endotoxin, teichoic acid, etc.

Alarm signals to immune system –>
release acute phase cytokines, fever, vasodilation, shock!

Exotoxins: cytolytic enzymes/hemolysins or receptor binding proteins

  • Damage cell membranes (phospholipases or lecithinases)
  • Pore forming proteins
  • Targets: ribosomes, transport mechanisms, intracellular signaling

Note : Exotoxins are more limited to certain species or even only certain subspecies (strains)

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63
Q

Range of Choices

Different genera/species/subspecies of bacteria can have a different range of attacks.

Discuss Corynebacterium diphtheria, Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria- non invasive, toxin does the damage.
- Single virulence factor: Diphtheria toxin

Staphylococcus aureus
- Many virulence factors: adhesins, degradative enzymes, toxins, catalase, coagulase

Escherichia coli
- Different strains of one species have different virulence factors: urinary tract infections v. diarrhea v. meningitis

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64
Q

Define symbiotic and commensal relationship. Microbe causing disease is dependent on two factors

A

Cooperation between microorganisms and humans is the rule, disease is the exception. The majority of these relationships are symbiotic (mutual benefit)

Commensal (co-existence, no harm).

1) the virulence of the microorganism
2) the response of the host.

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65
Q

Infection in the microbiologic sense is not synonymous with infectious disease in the clinical sense.

What is defining of an infectious disease?

A

Infectious disease occurs when there is tissue injury (leading to inflammation) or altered host physiology.

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66
Q

Typically, most bacterial diseases are acute clinical diseases which are characterized by an acute inflammatory reaction regardless of the organ involved

Discuss the reactions and what molecules are involved.

What are some exceptions?

A

Acute inflammation: redness, swelling, increase of temperature

  1. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (aka PMNs, neutrophils) (e.g., acute pneumococcal or Klebsiella pneumonitis, acute bacterial colitis, acute staphylococcal osteomyelitis, Acute laryngotracheitis).
    a. Pyogenic (suppuration) when there is significant necrosis —> abscesses (pyogenic cocci, some gram (-) bacilli)  —————> furuncles (Staph.) or —-> cellulitis (Strep.) or necrotizing pneumonia
    b. Adhesins, fimbriae, bacterial peptides/proteins, lipopolysaccharides (LPS), cytokines, C5a.
  2. Exceptions: clinically acute disease (e.g.Typhoid fever, S. typhosa) but with a mononuclear cell response associated with reactive hyperplasia of the intestinal and systemic lymphoid cell population; Bordetella pertussis.
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67
Q

Granulomatous: certain bacteria (many slow-growing organisms) elicit a chronic inflammatory, cell-mediated immune response, usually associated with a clinically chronic disease that is granulomatous in character and includes: (4)

-Generality about a certain bacteria (location) that causes chronic inflammatory (immune reactions)

A

Chronic- lymphocytes, neutrophiles, monocytes

  1. Tuberculosis: necrotizing (caseating) granulomata
  2. Brucellosis and tuberculoid type Leprosy: non-necrotizing granulomata
  3. Plasma cell infiltrates and granulomata: Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
  4. Chronic, non-granulomatous but with aggregation of macrophages: Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAC), lepromatoid Leprosy.

C. As a generality, intracellular bacteria induce chronic inflammatory (immune) reactions.

Note: Mixed acute and chronic inflammation can exist, and Cytologic changes +/- inflammation (viruses are responsible for this one)

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68
Q

Pyogenic cocci

Which is the main perpetrator type and give 3 examples that fall under this type and their associated host harm.

A

mainly Gram + cocci that evoke a neutrophilic exudation and account for most of the suppurative lesions in medical practice including:

  1. Staphylococcus aureus- furuncle/carbuncle, bronchopneumonia, impetigo, osteomyelitis, toxic shock
  2. Streptococcus pyogenes and pneumoniae: pharyngitis,URTI, lobar and bronchopneumonia; scarlet fever, cellulitis, necrotizing fasciitis, glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever
  3. Neisseria (Gram -) -meningitis, gonorrhea, arthritis
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69
Q

Pyogenic bacilli

Which is the main perpetrator type and give 3 examples that fall under this type and their associated host harm.

A

mainly Gram-negative bacilli

  1. E.coli (UTI, Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome, severe colitis/peritonitis), pyelonephritis.
  2. Klebsiella pneumoniae (bronchopneumonia with abscess and pleural involvement)
  3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa (burns): bronchopneumonia.
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70
Q

Childhood infections

Give 3 examples of prevalent childhood infections

A
  1. Hemophilus influenzae type B: encapsulated, particularly young children affected, (meningitis, bronchiolitis, epiglottis)
  2. Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)
  3. Cornyebacterium diphtheriae: (exotoxin  local necrosis- e.g. laryngeal pseudomembrane formation - and systemic effects - e.g. myocardial necrosis)
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71
Q

Enteropathogenic bacteria cause (3) and examples of the species.

A

Enteropathogenic bacteria- cause GI disturbances by toxins (Vibrio cholerae, Clostridium difficile, E.coli O157:H7), invasion (Salmonella typhi), or both (dysentery-Shigella sp.)

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72
Q

Gram pos rods (toxin producers)

Discuss two manner of which host is exposed to toxins and their ultimate effects on host.

A

Gram pos rods (toxin producers)

  1. Clostridium tetani and C. perfringens (spore contamination of wounds —>  toxin)
  2. C. botulinum (ingest preformed toxin), Septic clostridial infection. Cause rapid and severe tissue damage, sometimes without inflammation, that frequently —> death.
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73
Q

Spirochetes

A
  1. Treponema pallidum: Syphilis: primary (chancre most commonly on either penis or vulva), secondary (rash, condyloma lata), tertiary (gumma, CNS, CV, congenital). Plasma cells are characteristic and distinctive inflammatory cell reaction. Occasionally also granulomas in secondary and tertiary stages.
  2. Borrelia burgdorferi-Lyme Disease-primary, secondary, tertiary. Chronic inflammatory reactions, may lead to fibrosis and tissue destruction.
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74
Q

Chlamydia (C. trachomatis and psittaci)

A
  1. Intracellular bacteria
  2. More common than Neisseria as a sexually transmitted disease organism causing cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, urethritis, epididymitis. In impoverished countries a leading cause of blindness (trachoma). Chronic inflammatory reactions, sometimes with immunoblast clusters. C. psittaci: pneumonia.
  3. More recently are being implicated in pathogenesis of atherosclerosis! (persistent low grade intravascular infections  mild inflammation fibrosis)
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75
Q

Rickettsia (transmitted by arthropod vectors) (includes Ehrlichiosis)

Where can it be found, what kind of host reaction does it cause, and what may it be associated with?

A
  1. Intracellular bacteria
  2. Cause chronic inflammatory reactions
  3. Some rickettsia are associated with vasculitis due to injury to endothelial cells.
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76
Q

Mycoplasma (atypical pneumonia)

Briefly list where it can be found and what type of host response does it cause?

A
  1. Free-living bacteria

2. Cause inflammatory reactions

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77
Q

What’s the Tx against some bacteria have a large influential tropism (peculiar affinity for certain tissue types).

A

Tx: adhesin molecules against the surface molecules of bacteria that interact with host surface.

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78
Q

Define Abscess.

A

area of millions of neutrophils and liquefied tissue debris. The lysosome connects and secretes into not completely closed phagosome. Now all these enzymes get into host tissues —> abscess.

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79
Q

Burn victim are prone to what type of infection?

A

Pseudomonas infection which leads to pus (BLUE/GREEN). This leaves behind a cavity from the suppurative inflammation.

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80
Q

Necrotizing Bronchopneumonia

Septicemic abscesses in kidney. What is the hallmark of septicemia?

A

Pus has destroyed the wall of the bronchiole and thus the acute inflammatory because to spread to peribronchial tissue.

Septicemic abscesses in kidney break down tissue, disseminate –> metastatic abscesses.

  • multiple foci of infection in an organ is indicative of septicemia
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81
Q

Acute endocarditis

A

Bacteria disseminate and leads to acute cardiac insufficiency where pus formed in the valve and left a huge gaping hole.

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82
Q

spreading infections (cellulitis) look for what as culprit?

A

Seeing a spreading inflammatory process will see diffuse swelling “Cellulitis” —> most likely Streptococcal

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83
Q

Bordetella pneumonia leads to what type of inflammatory state?

A

Bordetella pneumonia (mononuclear and interstitial) : intracellular in nature —> chronic inflammatory

Mononuclear cells respond to the intracellular bacteria.

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84
Q

TB describe how granulomas are formed? What’s a Ghon complex?

A

A necrotizing granuloma with giant cells. Survive phagocyte, outlive phagocyte, induction of CMI. CMI doesn’t kill TB thus becomes granuloma.

Ghon complex (Primary Tuberculosis)

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85
Q

Secondary Tuberculosis (cavitary)

A

Occurs in upper apical lobe.

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86
Q

Mycobacterial infections - immunodeficiency pt exposed to microbe. Similar to how lepromatous leprosy looks like.

A

Informational

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87
Q

Intracellular organism to cause non-necrotizing granulomas

A

Brucella hepatitis (non-necrotizing granulomas)

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88
Q

influx of B cells that mature into plasma cells : a distinct mononuclear response.

A

Plasmacellular inflammation (Syphilis)

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89
Q

Food poisoning is usually caused how and by what bacteria genus?

A

Staphylococcal infections

  • usually caused by the ingestion of the toxin present in the food
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90
Q

Types of Exotoxins

Discuss the three types

A

Three basic types:
1.A-B Type (A is enzymatic, B is binding) - B brings the A subunit to the cell.
•Simple (A & B subunits, connected by S-S)
•Complex (A & 5B subunits)

2.Membrane disrupting
•Passive channel - membrane complex protein that may erupt holes into the membrane.
•Phospholipase - cleaves the phosphate head groups off the outer leaflet of the membrane

  1. Superantigens (mimic MHC ClassII/CD4+TH interaction)
    - much more likely to produce the various cytokines.
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91
Q

Describe the cascade of AB-type extoxins produced by bacterium

A

Bacterium adheres to mucosal surface. Bacterium synthesizes toxinogen. Cleavage –> active toxin. AB subunits held together by disulfide bonds. Toxin moves to target cell. B binds to cell surface receptor. Subunit A enters by: 1. Endocytosis, or 2. Translocation. Inside subunit A catalyzes enzymatic activity and exert toxic effects.

Note: bacterium does not get into cell, the toxin produced is what transverses the cell and get into blood. In most cases the bacterium does not even cross the epithelial layer.

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92
Q

A Subunit of A-B Type Exotoxins

Discuss two features of A subunit.

A
  1. Some (not all) have NADase activity
  2. NADase effects:

a. stimulate adenylate cyclase (Increase cAMP)
b. inactivate elongation factor 2 (block translation) ADP ribosylation

Note: NADase an enzyme that catalyes hydrolysis of NAD+ to nicotinamide and adenosine diphosphoribose.

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93
Q

How does an exotoxin accomplish membrane disruption (2) and what is the result?

A

The exotoxin creates a non selective pore. H20 rushes in and cell swell and lysis

The exotoxin is a phospholipase cleaving the phospho groups of the outer leaflet —-> unstable membrane

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94
Q

Compare the effects of antigen and super antigen. Give ratios of activation.

A

Antigen presenting cell with antigen stimulates T cells receptors 1 in 10^4 resulting in IL-2, T cell proliferation, T- B interaction, B cell proliferation, and Antibody production

Superantigens:

  • Many (1 in 5) T-cells stimulated!
  • Excess IL-1, IL-2, IL-6, TNF-a, IFN-g —> SHOCK!
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95
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria. It is common in the US?

Provide describing features, where it colonizes, clinical effects, how it’s selected for in culture, and particular effect with children.

A

Not common because of vaccine.

K+ Tellurite selection- Potassium tellurite (K2TeO3) is used together with agar as part of a selective medium for growth of some bacteria (Clauberg medium). Corynebacteria and some other species reduce TeO32− to elemental Te, which stains the bacteria black. (SMALL, BLACK COLONIES)

  1. Gm pos, clubbed ends, pleomorphic bacillus
  2. Aerobic
  3. Colonizes throat & nasopharynx, non invasive, thick, grey mucoid coat (pseudomembrane) that leaves bloody patches when removed
  4. Clinical effects - heart and peripheral nerves

Note : pseudomembrane formation particularly in the young covers the throat —-> suffocation (Death)

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96
Q

Diphtheria ExoToxin (top):

How is toxin expression regulate? What are it’s effects, what does it bind to, and what kind of toxin is it?

A
  1. Iron regulated (low iron = high tox expression); DtxR repressor
  2. Binds to heparin-binding EGF precursor (most cells of body)
  3. ADP-ribosylates Elongation Factor-2 (EF2)
  4. Simple A-B

Note: Toxin is phage encoded; transcription is repressed by iron + DtxR repressor

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97
Q

Treatment and Prevention of Corynebacterium diphtheriae (2). What causes the deaths of one of the Txs?

A
  1. Antitoxin & antibiotics (Penicillin or erythromycin)
  2. “D” of DPT vaccine (toxin)

2004 - 5,000 deaths worldwide, largely due to incomplete vaccination

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98
Q

Bordetella pertussis

  • type of bacteria
  • growth
  • disease characteristics
  • Can it be eradicated?
A
  1. Small, Gm negative coccobacillus
  2. Fastidious, slow growing
  3. Colonizes region between airway and lungs
  4. Disease:
    - cold symptoms, with paroxysmal coughing interrupted by whooping
    - extremely contagious, significant cause of morbidity worldwide (39,000,000 cases & 300,000 deaths!)
    - low incidence in USA (vaccination – P of DPT)
  • no known other carrier. Thus it is possible to eradicate. Vaccine is against the protein extract of pertussis. Long term death due to pneumonia. It can be invasive –> becomes intracellular (e.g. in macrophages)

Note: may produce a fever but difficult to differentiate from a cold.

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99
Q

Bordetella pertussis

Virulence factors (3)

A

Virulence factors

  1. Adhesins: attach to ciliated cells
    (esp. FHA = filamentous hemagglutinin)
  2. Adenylate cyclase toxin: bacterial AC (which has no host intracellular regulation) translocates to cytoplasm of mammalian cell and increases intracellular cAMP.
  3. Pertussis toxin: complex A/B toxin, stimulates host AC by inhibiting Gi via ADP ribosylation thus Gs is left unbalanced and increasing intracellular cAMP production

Note: the high increase of cAMP is ultimately the cause of death –> e.g. leading to fluid in alveolar space (pneumonia)

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100
Q

Bordetella pertussis Tx. Discuss the effects of time when giving Rx Tx. What other Tx is used and what prevention is used?

A

Treatment
1. Antibiotics – (changes course only if early, but blocks spread)

  1. Adequate oxygen support

Prevention
1. Vaccine – P of DPT

Note : Bordetella pertussis is a disease more likely to result in death in children 5 yo or less.

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101
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Type
Color/smell characteristics
nutritional requirement
virulence effectiveness

Pathogenesis

  • what population
  • where in the body
  • gives names for the sites of infections and areas.
A
  1. Gm neg rod; found in soil, water, animals
  2. Colonies fruity odor and blue-green pigment
  3. Minimal nutritional requirements
  4. Obligate aerobe

Pathogenesis:

  1. Opportunistic infections (esp. immunocompromised and patients with catheters)
  2. Both localized (e.g. pneumonia) and systemic (e.g. gets into circulation –> sepsis) infections
  3. Infects lungs of CF patients, cancer, burns/wounds and catheter sites, ear (otitis externa – swimmer’s ear), eye (contact lenses are risk factor), pneumonia, endocarditis (esp. drug users)

Note : doesn’t require much thus we are exposed to it all the time but does not have very good virulence effectivness.

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102
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Virulence factors

A
  1. Alginate – thick gel, slime layer (antiphagocytic)
  2. Pili – required for initial colonization (replaced by
    mucoid slime layer)
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103
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa Treatment and Prevention

A

Aggressive use of 2 antibiotics because:

  • resistance mechanisms
  • opportunistic infection

Prevention
Strict attention to control measures

Note: aggressive use because it’s a soil bacteria and will have resistance mechanisms. Especially in the case of immunocompromised patients. drug resistance common and P. aeruginosa is opportunistic

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104
Q

Clostridium species

  • Type
  • Three major clinical species
A

Gm positive, obligate anaerobes
Spore forming

Three major clinical species:

  1. Clostridium tetani - tetanus
  2. Clostridium botulinum - botulism
  3. Clostridium perfringens - gas gangrene
  4. Clostridium difficile

-obligate anaerobes but as spores can survive to exposure of oxygen. with favorable conditions will begin to grow vegitatively.

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105
Q

Clostridium tetani

  • type
  • found in nature
  • infectious form
  • affects physiology of host how
  • death rate us vs worldwide
  • comment on the infection
A

Clostridium tetani

A. Gm + slender rods, terminal spores

B. Feces and contaminated soil (high density)

C. Infectious form - spore in anaerobic environment

D. Tetanus - spastic paralysis
- localized (lock jaw)

E. 50 – 70 deaths/yr in USA,
almost 1 million worldwide

F. Diagnosis – clinical (infection is
often minor). Vaccinate against toxin. Little toxin is lethal!

Note: often introduced as a polymicrobial solution. Very little growth of bacteria because the toxin is so toxic. Vaccination is against the toxin

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106
Q

Clostridium tetani

Toxin type and effect.

A

Toxin:
1. Simple A-B type toxin

  1. A subunit – endopeptidase, blocks release of inhibitory neurotransmitters
    - Results in the continuous stimulation → spastic paralysis

tetanus toxin go up motor neuron and passes transsynaptically to the inhibitory synapse. If we block the inhibitory synapse thus we can’t release the vesicles to inhibit the excitatory synapse vesicles.

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107
Q

Clostridium tetani Tx (3) and prevention (1)

Prevention discuss the time intervals of prevention.

A

Treatment:

  1. Isolation (decrease stimulii)
  2. Anti-tetanus Ig
  3. Debride wound & antibiotic

Prevention:
T of DPT (inactive toxin)
- inactive toxin every 10 years
- previous exposure not protective because little infection

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108
Q

Clostridium botulinum

Why called the "sausage" disease?
how many cases a year
discuss the three types of botulism
type of toxin
End result of toxin
A

A.botulus - “sausage” disease- the bacteria would grow in sausages and thus consumption would lead to infection.

B.40-80 cases/yr

C.Three types of botulism:

i. classic (food borne) – intoxication (the toxin is what gets ingested. No bacterial growth, no bacteria to treat.)
ii. wound – bacterial growth (rare). Spores in wound, bacteria grow, toxins produced
iii. infant – bacterial growth (HONEY!). Spores ingested, bacteria grow in GI, toxin produced

D.Simple A-B type toxin, cleaved in GI

E.flaccid paralysis: Initial slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, visual disturbance, progressive flaccid paralysis results in respiratory paralysis or cardiac arrest

Note: Honey can be home to the C. botulinum spores. Spores that are ingested exist in the intestine. Spores in the GI would not do well and eventually will be done away. Infants don’t have normal flora thus we don’t give honey because the spores can be in the honey.

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109
Q

Botulinum Toxin Action

Describe the cascade of action

A

Affect peripheral cholinergic synapses (NOT CNS), block release of acetylcholine and cause FLACCID paralysis

Botulinum toxin, subunit B binds to the gangliosides of motor end plate. Subunit A blocks the release of ACh at the motor end plate —> lack of excitation leads to flaccid paralysis

works on the motor neuron. Blocks the release of vesicles containing acetylcholine

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110
Q

Difference between Clostridium tetani/botulinum toxin

A

Symptoms reflect where toxin acts, which is thought to reflect action of B SUBUNIT!

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111
Q

Clostridium botulinum Tx (2) and prevention.

A

Treatment:

  1. Anti-botulinum Ig (it is an intoxication)
  2. Antibiotic for infant and wound botulism

Prevention:
Proper food handling

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112
Q

Clostridium perfringens

Type of bacteria
Location to be found
Pathogenicity: What can it cause?
Virulence (3)

A

A.Gram positive, stout, truncated, spores

B.Obligate anaerobe

C.Vertebrate GI, spores in soil

D.Pathogenicity

  • gas gangrene (myonecrosis)
  • food poisoning (7% USA) - self limiting
E. Virulence:
- alpha Toxin (phospholipase)
- enterotoxin
- degradative enzymes (proteinases,
DNAses, hyluronidase, collagenase)

Note: In GI can grow not well but if grows enough can make enough enterotoxin to be virulent.

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113
Q

Clostridium perfringens

Discuss alpha toxin and gas gangrene

A

Alpha-toxin

  • Lecithinase C (phospholipase)
  • Membrane disruption

Gas gangrene
- spores into severe, open wound with other bacteria
- germinate & grow rapidly in anaerobic condition
- rapid spread and necrosis, gas (CO2 & H2) formed from
fermentation of tissue carbohydrates, copious pus, foul smell
- uniformly fatal without intervention

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114
Q

Clostridium perfringens

Dx criteria (10)
Tx (3)
A

Diagnosis

  • clinical grounds
  • disproportionate local pain; tachycardia; tachypnea; fever; delirium; skin becomes stretched, necrotic, blisters and then malodorous discharge (similar to nectrotizing fasciitis)

Treatment

  • surgical debridement (from 100% to 30%)
  • penicillin IV (another 5%)
  • hyperbaric oxygen
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115
Q

A 2-year-old male child experienced an upper respiratory infection 2 weeks prior to hospital admission. Four days prior to admission, anorexia and lethargy were noted. The patient was seen in the emergency room 3 days prior to admission. At that time he had a fever of 39.9 oC. Physical examination revealed a clear chest, exudative pharyngitis, and bilaterally enlarged cervical lymph nodes. A throat culture was taken, and a course of penicillin was begun. The child’s course worsened, and he became increasingly lethargic; he developed respiratory distress on the day of admission. It was noted that the throat culture from 3 days prior top admission had not grown any group A streptococci. On examination, the patient was febrile to 38.9oC and had an exudate in the posterior pharynx that was described as a yellowish thick membrane that bled when scraped and removed. The patient’s medical history revealed that he had received no immunizations.

  1. The patient was admitted to the hospital and treatment was begun. Special cultures of the pharynx were requested that subsequently grew the suspected pathogen. What was the pathogen? Which types of media are used to isolate this pathogen?
  2. Does this organism invade the bloodstream? If not, how does it cause disease?
  3. How can this disease be prevented?
  4. How is this disease treated?
A

Answer

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116
Q

A 48-year-old man had a long history of alcoholism and was admitted to the intensive care unit with profound hypotension and gastrointestinal bleeding. He was intubated and given intravenous fluids and transfused with packed red blood cells. He remained intubated and ventilator dependent for several weeks. He developed fevers and was treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics. After further antibiotic therapy, Gram stain of his tracheal aspirate showed polymorphonuclear leukocytes and Gram-negative rods. Culture of the tracheal apsirate yielded a heavy growth of an oxidase-positive, Gram-negative, lactose non-fermenting rod that produced a greenish hue on the culture plates.

  1. What is the likely agent of infection? Is this organism part of the normal oral flora? Where is it found in the hospital environment? Does it commonly cause pulmonary infections in healthy individuals?
  2. This organism produces an exotoxin that is similar to the exotoxin of which other bacteria? How do they act on cells?
  3. This organism was isolated after the patient received a prolonged course of broad-spectrum antibiotics. Is this organism normally sensitive or resistant to many of the commonly used antibiotics?
  4. Bacterial genes may code for a variety of proteins that inactivate antibiotics. In addition to the bacterial chromosome, where can these genes be found?
A

Answer

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117
Q

Pyogenic Gram + Bacteria

Two examples, where are they found, and structure of bacteria.

A

Staphylococci

  • Gram + cocci
  • clusters
  • Nasopharynx, skin, GI

Streptococci

  • Gram + cocci
  • pairs/chains
  • Nasopharynx, skin, GI
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118
Q

Differentiating Staph and Strep

What test do we run?

A

CATALASE TEST

Staphylococci; YES catalase

Streptococci; NO catalase

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119
Q

Staphylococcal Species Common Properties (5)

A
• Gm + cocci
• Grow in high salt (7.5% NaCl)
• Standard growth medium
• Normal Flora
• Resistant to drying/heat, many antibiotics
 MAJOR problem in hospitals
(spread by nasal & skin carriage)

Note: doesn’t mean they like salt, and the drying and heat resistance not to the extent of spores.

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120
Q

Staphylococcal Species (3) and list their infections or harmful effects.

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus (most common)
    - skin infections, osteomyelitis, toxic shock syndrome,
    food poisoning, large number types of infections. Including unrelated diseases due to the toxin carried in the bloodstream.
  2. Staphylococcus epidermis
    - septicemia and endocarditis (implanted device). can colonize catheters & indwelling shunts.
  3. Staphylococcus saprophytic
    - urinary tract infections, urinary tract infections. Can colonize catheters and shunts.
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121
Q

Differentiating Staphylococci

What test to use and which one is differentiating with a positive result?

A

Coagulase

Staphylococcus aureus + (causes clotting)
Staphylococcus epidermidis -
Staphylococcus saprophytic -

fibrinogen — coagulase binds to prothrombin —> fibrin (clot)

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122
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

Discuss the properties (colonies and pathogenic capacity) and a diagnostic tool used to detect them

A

Properties
• Pathogenic strains often b-hemolytic, yellow pigmented colonies
• Pathogenic capacity = surface molecules, extracellular factors + toxins

blood agar plate- bacteria are lysing the blood cells and we get a zone of clearing - beta-hemolysis. There are lysing that exists with other blood cells but we use this for diagnostic purposes.

Note: it has not been possible to develop a serologic assay.

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123
Q

Surface Components & Virulence of S. aureus (2.1)

A

• Fibronectin binding protein
- adhesion

• Clumping factor
– binds fibrinogen (aggregates Staph)
– prevent phagocytosis

• Protein A (only S. aureus)
– linked to peptidoglycan
– bind Fc of IgG1, IgG2, IgG4 –> no phagocytosis since phagocyte Fc receptor can’t bind
– prevent phagocytosis

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124
Q

Extracellular Factors & Virulence of Staphylococci (5)

A
  1. Catalase – counteract PMN’s
  2. Coagulase – clotting
    (poor penetration by WBC’s)
  3. Hemolysins
    - a (“a toxin”): transmembrane channels; cytolytic exotoxins attack mammalian cell membranes —> hemolysis. transmembrane channel, dermatonecrosis, and lethality; 3 other hemolysins - may be cytotoxic for a variety of cells
  4. b-lactamase – narrow spectrum (90% of strains)
  5. Leukocidin – K+ channel, products capable of killing granulocytes and macrophages

Note: With clotting have to debri the wound because the coagulse can form a “boil” and prevent WBCs from getting to the site

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125
Q

Exotoxins; Staph aureus exotoxins and Enterotoxins

Discuss them and precautions to take.

A

Exotoxins:

Staph exotoxins
- Exfoliative toxins – Scalded skin syndrome
– desmosomal protease: cleaves the proteins the hold parts of the epithelial layer together. In this manner the toxin can be spread throughout the body with the need for bacterial penetration.

Toxic shock syndrome
– superantigen (exotoxin)
– 20% S. aureus

Enterotoxins( no infection. The effect is the toxin being ingested) – Food poisoning
– superantigen (heating of food does not help. Have to make sure it is not present before ingestion. Unlike C. Botullium can be killed by heating food.

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126
Q

Staph Infections types (5). Just list.

A
Skin & soft tissue
Musculoskeletal
Endocarditis
Genitourinary
Toxin based
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127
Q

Staph Suppurative (formation of pus) Infections; Skin infections

Discuss the signs (5) and an assoc. to another bacteria.

A

Skin infections:

  • Folicullitis- infection starts at break of at hair follicle
  • Furuncles (boil) - often start at the break of hair follicle but can be in other areas; hot, tender, low fever
  • Carbuncle
    confluence of boils
  • Impetigo – epidermal lesion
  • Thick yellowish crust (children)- easily transmittable and kids are gross, they wipe on anything
  • Often mixed with S. pyogenes

Note: careful with fever because then Tx would be systemic antibiotics

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128
Q

Suppurative Infections of Staph

Discuss surgical/burn wound infections, pneumonia, and osteomyelitis

A

• Surgical/burn wound infections
- Bacteremia & endocarditis

• Pneumonia (1-5%)

  • Sequela of influenza
  • Fever, cough, purulent sputum

• Osteomyelitis (bone necrosis)

Note: Strep. pyogenes is the more common cause of pneumonia but Staph. aureus can cause pneumonia

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129
Q

Toxic Infections of Staph

Discuss Scalded Skin Syndrome

Who gets it, what toxin involved of MOA, what can rule that the skin is not infected, and diagnosis.

A

Scalded Skin Syndrome

  • Children
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130
Q

Toxic Infections of Staph aureus

• Toxic shock syndrome

  • toxin, chemokines, symptoms (7)
  • Tx, mortality %, who is affected
A

• Toxic shock syndrome

  • TSST-1 (20% S. aureus)
  • Elevated IL-2 & TNF levels lead to shock
  • Fever, macropapular rash, hypotension, vomiting, respiratory distress, irrational behaviour, multi-organ
  • 3% mortality
  • Supportative measures & antibiotics
  • Women and men (originally associated with super absorbent tampons)

Note: Streph pyogenis 30% death - Toxic shock like syndrome toxin

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131
Q

Staph Food Poisoning

Common cause
properties of toxins
length of time to feel the effects - why?
Tx

A

Common cause

S. aureus is responsible for 5 to 25% of all reported cases of food poisoning.

Intoxication - Staphylococcal enterotoxin
- Enterotoxins are heat stable!

  • 1- 6 hr post ingestion exhibit severe
    vomiting and diarrhea (up to 48 hrs)

Toxins have superantigen activity and act directly on neural receptors that stimulate the vomiting center in the brain.

Diagnosis: Clinical presentation (no infection)

Treatment: - Hydration
- Monitor/correct electrolytes

Note: occurs pretty quickly because the toxins are preformed. Is self limiting because the toxin you ingested - that’s it. No ingestion of bacteria will not have increasing amounts of toxin produced.

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132
Q

Diagnosis of Staph for Localized & Systemic Infection (4)

A
  • Culture from abscess, lesion, sputum, blood sample
  • Growth on salt agar (7.5% NaCl)
  • Coagulase, catalase tests
  • Antibiotic sensitivity: esp. Methicillin Resistance! Methicillin resistance due to presence of a mutant PBP in a pathogenicity island
  • Hospital Acquired Methicillin Resistant S. aureus (HA-MRSA) is associated with multi-drug resistance
  • Community Acquired Methicillin Resistant S. aureus (CA-MRSA) is not associated with multi-drug resistance

** both were derived from different lineages.**

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133
Q

Tx of Staph aureus

Skin Infection (2)

Focal & Systemic Infection (2)

Vaccine

A

Skin Infection
• Drainage, topical treatment with mupirocin
- bacitracin rarely effective!!
• Chronic – systemic antibiotic

Focal & Systemic Infection
• Methicillin sensitive – several antibiotics effective
• Methicillin resistant (HA-MRSA): vancomycin (esp. TSS; some transposons can confer vancomycin resistance)

Vaccine
• None available

134
Q

Coagulase Negative Staph

Test to distinguish S. epidermis/saprophyticus

A

(only coagulase – strains)

NOVOBIOCIN RESISTANCE

Staphylococcus epidermidis sensitive
Staphylococcus saprophyticus resistant

135
Q

Coagulase Negative Staph
Where can it occur and Tx

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

  • Implanted device & urinary tract, endocarditis in intravenous drug addicts
  • Treatment difficult esp. with endocarditis (poor circulation, drug resistance)

Staphylococcus saprophytic (found in GI)

• Urinary tract (women; rare in men

136
Q

Gram-Positive Pyogenic Cocci: Streptococci

Common Properties: Streptococci and Enterococci (4) and what diagnostic criteria can we use to differentiate the two?

A

Common Properties

  • Gm + cocci
  • Normal flora: nasopharynx, skin, GI, GU
  • Pairs or chains
  • Catalase -
  • Blood agar

Note: Blood agar can be used to differentiate once we know gm + and catalase - as opposed to the staphylococci

137
Q

Streptococci and Enterococci

Blood agar diagnostic:

Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus bovis 
Enterococcus faecalis 
Streptococcus pneumoniae 
Viridans Streptococci
A
  1. a hemolytic – green “halos” ; causes a change in the Hb in RBC –> alpha hemolysis, doesn’t lyse heme
  2. b hemolytic – clear zone; hemolysis
  3. Non hemolytic – no effect
BLOOD AGAR HEMOLYSIS
Streptococcus pyogenes b
Streptococcus agalactiae b
Streptococcus bovis (a/Non)
Enterococcus faecalis (a/Non)
Streptococcus pneumoniae a
Viridans Streptococci a
138
Q

Streptococci and Enterococci
Give their Lancefield Group ID

Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus bovis 
Enterococcus faecalis 
Streptococcus pneumoniae 
Viridans Streptococci
A

Streptococcus pyogenes A Strep throat, fasciitis, …
Streptococcus agalactiae B Neonatal sepsis, meningitis
Streptococcus bovis D Endocarditis
Enterococcus faecalis D Urinary, endocarditis
Streptococcus pneumoniae - Pneumonia, meningitis, OM
Viridian’s Streptococci - Endocarditis, caries

Note: Cell wall carbohydrates were grouped by specific antibodies.

139
Q

b-Hemolytic Streptococci

What diagnostic test do we use to differentiate?

A

BACITRACIN SENSITIVITY* PYR TEST

Streptococcus pyogenes Sensitive +
Streptococcus agalactiae Resistant -

*(Sensitivity presumptive) if they have PYR
PYR – L-pyrrolidonyl-b-napthalamide amino peptidase

140
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

list group, hemolytic pattern, found where, and cause what diseases?

A

Group A, b-hemolytic (GABHS)

  • Normal flora: Nasopharynx (5-20%), skin
  • Many, varied diseases
141
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

Discuss Antigenic/ Virulence Factors (3)

Other virulence factors * May contribute to bacterial spread & invasion

A

Antigenic/ Virulence Factors

  1. M protein - dimer forming coiled coiled protein. Extends from membrane all the way out. Each monomer have multiple repeats to form the coiled regions. Very similar repeats not identical.
  • Antiphagocytic (binds factor H, blocks alternative complement pathway)
  • Elicits immune response (antigenic)
  1. IgAase – destroys sIgA (adhesion)
  2. C5a peptidase – blocks complement activation

Note: M protein –> coiled elicits weak immune response, the opsonic Ab epitope elicits a very strong immune response is a variable region thus we can be affected more than once.

142
Q

Streptococcal pyrogenic Exotoxins

List the exotoxins and what they can cause.

A

(SPEs) -most often because they have prophages.
• SPE’s (SPE-A, SPE-B, SPE-C)

Strains that carry SPE cause : Toxic Shock Like Syndrome and/or Scarlet Fever

143
Q

Streptococcal pyrogenic Localized Infections

Discuss. What are symptoms and signs, complications (2), usefulness of Tx.

A

Localized Infections

•Pharyngitis (Strep throat)

  • Sore throat, fever, nausea (varies), malaise,
  • Adenitis, yellowish exudate
  • Usually self-resolving
  • Complications: If left untreated we can get complication and mostly come from pharyngitis:
  • Scarlet fever, acute rheumatic fever (ARF),
  • Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)

Tx is useful because will usually shorten the length of time of infection and contain the infection

Note: viral strep is more common than bacterial, but if bacterial Streptococcal pyrogenes is most common.

144
Q

Skin Infections of Streptococcal pyrogenes

A
  • Impetigo ( often a mix Staph aureus and Streptococcal pyrogens)- Epidermal Layer
  • Cellulitis ** (Deeper than Erysipelas) / Erysipelas * (Dermis)
  • Local, rapidly spreading
  • Soft tissue & lymphatics
  • Children* & elderly
  • (Fever, headache, chills) ** –> immediate Tx
  • Complication: bacteremia ** (Because Cellulitis is in the subcutaneous fat and can spread into the fascia —> necrotizing fasciitis or get to blood stream.
  • Erysipelas (distinct lining and on edge is raised)
  • Cellulitis (entire area may be swollen but redness is more diffuse); Tx quickly
  • necrotizing fasciitis “hospital gangrene” does not include the strict anaerobes and production of gas as in Gas Gangrene.

Note: Sometimes cellulitis and Erysipelas may overlap. Even Gm + can cause sepsis or septic shock.

145
Q

Invasive & Focal Infection; Streptococcal pyrogens

Discuss Necrotizing fasciitis, Diagnosis, and what else can Streptococcal pyrogens cause?

A

• Necrotizing fasciitis “Hospital Gangrene”

  • Destroy underlying tissue “Flesh Eating Bacteria”
  • Swelling, heat, tenderness, fever, mental cloudiness, bacteremia, death (25-50%)
  • Diagnosis: Clinical presentation & pus/blood cultures
    (From Clinical presentation can lead quickly to death, may not look so bad from outside but can be much worse inside)
  • Treatment: Penicillin & surgery (debribe, allow immune system to help)

• Pneumonia

146
Q

Toxigenic Disease of Streptococcal pyrogens

Scarlet Fever
Toxic Streptococcal Syndrome (TSLS)

They are the complications of what, symptoms, signs, route of spread

A

• Scarlet Fever (rare)

  • Complication of pharyngitis (SPE-strains) mostly but can result as a result of infection anywhere.
  • Sore throat (variable), rash, red tongue
  • Local infection, toxin by blood

• Toxic Streptococcal Syndrome (TSLS)

  • Complication of erysipelas (SPE-strains)
  • Local infection (soft tissue), toxin by blood
  • Bacteremia (in some cases the bacteria may be invasive and travel in blood) , shock, multi-organ failure,
  • High fatality rate (30%)
147
Q

Streptococcal pyrogens: Post-Infection Sequela: Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

Sequela to what
Signs
issue with M protein
Tx

A

• Acute Rheumatic Fever (ARF)

  • Sequela of Strep throat (3%)
  • Inflammation of heart, joints, CNS
  • M proteins ~ cardiac myosins (Ag mimicry)
  • Repeat attacks common and get increasing severe because with an attack by another strain the coiled-coiled regions can stay the same with different N’ Ab epitope (boosting immune response everytime)
  • The coiled-coiled regions are weakly immunogenic but with enough Ab it can cross-react with cardiac myocyte because they also have coiled coiled regions.
  • N’ elicits a strong immunogenic response but is only specific for that epitope. Boosting of response: The other portion of M protein can be recognized in the future although the epitope changes but the Ab made can then attack the cardiomyocytes.

Tx: prophylaxis for rest of their lives b/c of coiled-coiled problem

148
Q

Streptococcal pyrogens: Post-Infection Sequela of what?

Acute Glomerulonephritis (AGN)
Issues are what and where. How? Frequency of recurrence?
A

• Acute Glomerulonephritis (AGN)

  • Sequela of Strep throat & impetigo
  • Inflammation & renal impairment, edema
  • Immune complex disease:
    Lattice Ab-Ag complex deposited on
    renal basement membrane interacting with Streptococcal pyrogens debris or material (has to be enough to make lattice) —-> renal edema
  • Recurrence rare
149
Q

Treatment & Prophylaxis of Streptococcal pyrogens

A

Treatment
• Immediate (Even pharyngitis)
• Penicillin

Chemoprophylaxis
• ARF – antibiotic (years)

150
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae

Type of hemolytic pattern, Group letter, found where, cause of what issues, Dx, Tx, Prevention during labor

A

Group B, b-hemolytic (GBS)

  • GU or lower GI flora (25-40% of females)
  • Neonatal sepsis/meningitis; post-partum sepsis
  • Diagnosis – Group B agglutination
  • Treatment – Penicillin
  • Prevention – Penicillin during labor (GBS +)

Note: S. agalactiae is the most common cause of Neonatal sepsis/meningitis

Group B Strep = GBS

151
Q

a/Non-hemolytic Streptococci

List the results and what is used to distinguish the (4)

A

NaCl Esculin
Enterococcus faecalis + +
Streptococcus bovis - +

                                                  NaCl      Esculin
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae - -
  • Viridans Streptococci - -
  • = alpha hemolysis
    (6. 5% NaCl)

Esculin hydrolysis - Complex carbohydrate and when hydrolyzed turns black

152
Q

Streptococcus bovis

Where its found normally, issues it can cause (2)

A

Group D, a/non-hemolytic

  • Normal flora - GI
  • Endocarditis (infection/inflamation of heart)
  • Bacteremias (esp. colon cancer); not commonly seen but immunocompromised pt.s can be affected more often
153
Q

Enterococcus still left with streptococcus because of similar properties

Name the two and their % towards infections, where are they found normally, what issues may they cause, and what’s special with them?

A

“Group D”, a/non-hemolytic

• E. faecalis (90%), E. faecium (10%)
- E. faecalis has TGE that confers Van r, higher percentage of causing infections b/c of the resistance

  • Normal flora – GI, GU
  • Endocarditis (10%), UTI (10%), meningitis, wound infections, abdominal abscesses
  • Drug resistance!!!!

Note: Not particularly virulent but has enhanced effects with immunocompromised patients.

154
Q

a/Non-Hemolytic Streptococci

What is a diagnostic tool to distinguish Streptococcus pneumonia?

A

OPTOCHIN SENSITIVITY
Streptococcus bovis Resistant
Enterococcus faecalis Resistant
Streptococcus pneumoniae Sensitive
Viridans Streptococci Resistant

Note: Viridans Streptococci is large group of commensal streptococcal bacteria species

155
Q

Viridian’s Streptococci- what pattern of hemolysis?

Which is the most important species of this group and it’s peculiar of its effect (think location)?

What are some considerations when going to the dentist? Tx includes?

A

a-hemolytic

• Normal flora: S. mutans oral (30-60%)

• Dental caries & endocarditis (ask if underlying heart
problem); prophylactically to pt.s who have a heart condition but endocarditis can occur to people who seem fine

  • Dental treatment, cleaning, vigorous brushing transient bacteremia endocarditis
  • Prophylaxis - antibiotics (dental treatment)
156
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Pattern of hemolysis, structure of bacteria, sensitive to what? Soluble where, makes up normal flora where. How can it avoid host response?

How is vaccine set up? And what’s the deal with the strains?

A

Streptococcus pneumonia is major cause of meningitis in children and adults; Streptococcus agalactiae is major cause of meningitis infants

a-hemolytic

  • Diplococcus
  • OptochinS; Bile soluble (activates autolysis in the cell envelop of Streptococcus pneumoniae )
  • Normal flora: nasopharynx (5-70%) goes up in winter
  • Antiphagocytic Capsule: 23/85 types virulent (responsible for ~ 85% of disease)

Note: 85 different strains with structural differences in capsules. 23 of them are responsible about about 85% of disease.

Note: purified capsule is the basis of a vaccination. Thus we have to isolate many variations of capsules.

157
Q

Pneumococcal Infection

Pneumonia (Lobar); sequela of what, signs, symptoms, frequency of cars and deaths
Otitis media; sequela to what, % acute, # visits/yr
Meningitis

A

• Pneumonia (Lobar)

  • Sequela of upper respiratory tract infection
  • Sudden shaking chill & rapid, high fever
  • Chest pain, cough, rusty-colored sputum
  • 500,000 cases/yr in US (40,000 deaths)

• Otitis media (mostly for kids less than 5)

  • Sequela of upper respiratory tract infection
  • > 50% of acute otitis media (>107 visits/yr)
  • Children (poor drainage)

• Meningitis (see Bacteria of CNS)

Note: After age of 5 we get a change in the size of the ear canal –> normally due to poor drainage.

158
Q

Pneumococcal Infections

Epidemiology: how does it spread, who is at risk?

Tx when, with what?

Prevention with what (2)

A

• Aerosol spread (droplet)

• Risk: Asplenic individuals, sickle cell
anemia, alcoholism, 65 yrs

• Congugate vaccine -

159
Q

(Staphylococci and Streptococci) of Gram-positive cocci. Species of both genera are Normal Flora of the nasopharynx and skin and cause a wide spectrum of diseases by a variety of mechanisms, including localized infections and toxin production. Antibiotic resistance is a major concern for select species of both genera.

A

Informational

160
Q

Staphylococcus aureus virulence

A

a. Capsule (variable)
b. Fibronecting binding protein
c. Plasma clumping factor – binds fibrinogen (aggregates Staph and prevents phagocytosis)
d. Protein A (only S. aureus) – linked to peptidoglycan, binds Fc of IgG1, IgG2 and IgG4 and prevents phagocytosis
e. Catalase – counteract PMN’s
f. Coagulase – clotting (poor penetration by WBC’s)
g. Hemolysins: alpha toxin – transmembrane channel, dermatonecrosis, and lethality; 3 other hemolysins - may be cytotoxic for a variety of cells
h. Leukocidin – K+ channel, products capable of killing granulocytes and macrophages
i. Phospholipase – digests fats (boils)
j. Hyaluronidase – hydrolyze connective tissue
k. Staphylokinase (fibrinolysin) – converts plaminogen to plasmin, which hydrolyses fibrin
l. -lactamase – narrow spectrum, but 90% of strains
m. Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1), pyrogenic toxin associated with toxic shock syndrome, superantigen, 20% S. aureus strains
n. Exfoliative toxin – desmosomal proteases cause intraepithelial separation of the skin in Scalded Skin Syndrome, plasmid encoded
o. Enterotoxins – Food poisoning, heat stable superantigen, intoxication, phage encoded

161
Q

Case 1. The patient, a 16-year-old female, was well until 2 days before admission, when she had fever to 39.9oC and vomiting. On the morning of admission, she had loose stools, continued fever, and vomiting. She was seen by an outside physician, who noted that she was hypotensive (blood pressure, 76/48 mmHg) with a heart rate of 120 beats/min and temperature of 38oC. She had an erythematous rash. Blood, throat, and vaginal specimens were sent for culture; the patient was given intravenous fluids and intravenous antibiotics and transported to our hospital for admission to the pediatric intensive care unit. Laboratory studies indicated abnormal liver and renal (creatine, 2.8 mg/dl) functions and WBC count of 14,100/mm3 with 78% neutrophils and 18% band forms. The patient began her menstrual period 4 days prior to admission and uses tampons.

  1. The patient’s symptoms are most representative of which syndrome?
  2. The vaginal culture was positive for a heavy growth of catalase-positive, Gram-positive cocci. Which organism would you expect this to be?
  3. Which virulence factor does this organism produce that is believed to be responsible for the signs and symptoms seen in this patient?
  4. What is the significance of tampon use in this patient?
A

Answer

162
Q

S. aureus infection diagnosis and Tx

A

cultivation on blood agar with growth often enhanced by 2 to 10% carbon dioxide also, fermentation on mannitol salt agar, testing for coagulase and catalase, antibiotic sensitivity is routine.

Treatment: Topical treatment with mupirocin and drainage is usually effective for local (skin) infections. Systemic infections may require i.v. synthetic, penicillinase resistant pencillin or cephalosporin (e.g., methicillin for systemic, middle ear). Because of the large number of staphylococcal phages and the presence of plasmids carrying resistance markers, patterns of sensitivity change quickly. Methicillin Resistant Staphalococcus aureus (MRSA) is a problem in nosocomial infections and multi-drug resistance has been observed. In the last few years, vancomycin resistance has been recorded, potentially removing our last magic bullet. Staph isolate must be tested for antibiotic sensitivity.

163
Q

STREPTOCOCCI

Properties, type, growth

A

Gram-positive, facultative cocci which lack catalase and which grow in chains in a fluid environment, and require enriched media (blood agar) for growth. Growth often enhanced by presence of 2 to 10% carbon dioxide.

164
Q

Group A strep produces many virulence factors

A

a. Capsule (variable)
b. M protein – antiphagocytic (binds factor H, blocks alternative complement pathway), but elicits immune response (antigenic)
c. Streptolysin (S & O) - PMNs
d. IgAase – destroys sIgA (adhesion)
e. C5a peptidase – blocks complement activation
f. Streptokinase dissolves fibrin clots [Purified streptokinase is used in early stage treatments of coronary infarcts]
g. Hyaluronidase - breaks down hyaluronic acid; DNAse
h. Leukocidin - kills PMNs
i. Pyrogenic exotoxins which share sequence and biologic similarity (superantigens) to those produced by staphylococcal strains. These include erythrogenic toxin (causes scarlet fever rash) and toxin that causes Toxic Shock Like Syndrome

165
Q

Bacterial lung infections
•Relatively common and a major cause of mortality especially in the elderly.

the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia is ____.

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

Note: there are several other mostly gram negative bacteria that produce the same or similar symptoms.
- Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis, Legionella pneumophila, Klebsiellapneumoniae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Less severe
–Mycoplasmapneumoniaewhich has no cell wall
–Chlamydia pneumonia and Chlamydia psittaci-Obligate intracellular bacteria

166
Q

General considerations in respiratory tract infections:

A

A. Differential diagnosis of bacterial vs. viral infection can be difficult
B. Age-based epidemiology and patient history are important as there are different frequencies in different groups (age, mechanism of uptake of organism, seasonal or periodic population variation in prevalence of particular infections, immunocompromised states, nosocomial infections)
C. Modes of acquisition - prior colonization, inhalation or aspiration of organisms from ear, respiratory tract or esophageal reflux; without normal clearing by immune system

167
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae - Pneumococcus

what dose it cause, type, hemolytic pattern, structure, sensitive to ____, normal location, vaccines

A

A. Causes 60% of all pneumonias
B. Gram positive, α hemolytic, encapsulated, diplococcus, sensitive to optochin
C. Not classified by Lancefield classifications
D. Carried in nasopharynx in ~15% of healthy population, higher in children
E. Vaccines - Prevenar® and Pneumovax®

168
Q

Heamophilus influenzae Small gram-negative, usually encapsulated coccobacillus

Characteristics, causes disease, disease from what type is most common, offensive enzymes, discuss passive protection of infants, vaccine, most Heamophilus disease now due to ____, Tx.

A

A. Its name was based on erroneous proposal that it was responsible for the 1892 influenza pandemic, actually caused common secondary infection

B. Obligate parasite, fastidious growth requirements – Grows on Chocolate agar which contains Hemin (factor X) and NAD (factor V)) or TSA agar supplemented with these compounds.

C. Disease: Pediatric - Meningitis (50%), Pneumonia (15%), other systemic (35%)

D. Diagnosis – Gram stain of an infected body fluid may demonstrate small gram-negative coccobacilli suggestive of invasive Heamophilus disease.

E. Polysaccharide capsule defines 6 serotypes (a-f); Disease from Type b the most common (Hib)-Polyribosylribitol phosphate-PrP
a. A virulence factor

F. IgA protease and neuraminidase produced

G. Passive protection of infants during first 6 months provided by transplacental and breastfeeding-acquired IgG. Peak attack rates occur at 6-7 months of age, declining thereafter. Hib disease is uncommon beyond 5 years of age. The age distribution is likely due to acquisition of natural immunity due to transient exposure to organism without disease.

H. Vaccine - Antibodies to protein conjugated Hib capsular polysaccharide are protective, 99% reduction of incidence where utilized

I. Prevaccination, most invasive disease was due to Heamophilus influenzae type b. Currently, Hib found only in unvaccinated individuals (1 case/105 children US). Most Heamophilus disease now due to type a or untypable unencapsulated forms.

J. Treatment with cephalosporins as ampicillin resistance is common. Hospitalization required.

169
Q

Moraxella (Branhamella) catarrhalis

Causes what, carriage rates ____, transmission mode, type of bacteria and once classified as what based on what test/stain, what Rx can’t use and why?, what are some virulence factors?

A

A. Ranks third as cause of pediatric otitis media. Also causes sinusitis in children and of lower respiratory tract infections in adults, especially those with underlying chest disease. Invasive infection is uncommon.

B. Carriage rates of M. catarrhalis are high (~50%) in children and in the elderly, but it is present as commensal in only ~5% adults. Transmission is believed to be due to direct contact with contaminated secretions by droplets.

C. Gram negative diplococcus - once classified as Neisseria based on Gram stain and positive oxidase test

D. Approximately 95% of strains are β-lactamase positive (cannot use Penicillin).

E. Produces lipopolysaccharide endotoxin similar to that found in the Neisseria species. Some strains have pili or fimbriae, which may aid adherence to the respiratory epithelium.

170
Q

Legionella pneumophila

causes what and explain, history behind this pathogen, type of pathogen and risk factors to getting it, structure of bacteria, where do they remain latent, transmission how, break down of what it’s contracted, were do they replicate, how do they change morphologically before extracellular release, what factor may contribute to turning on expression of genes, what’s the issue with Pontiac fever patients as far as studying organism, what diagnostic method is used, Tx.

A

A. Causes Legionnaire’s disease (LD) or Legionellosis, a frequently fatal pneumonia and Pontiac fever, a less severe self-resolving flu-like illness

B. Pathogen “emerged” in 1976 due to Philadelphia hotel infectious cluster and investigations by the CDC into its cause. Found to be a significant cause of pneumonias previously believed to be viral.

C. Considered opportunistic pathogen. Typically, those who become ill are of advanced age and have sustained damage to the host defenses that normally protect lungs from infection. Common risk factors for legionellosis are cigarette smoking, emphysema or other chronic lung diseases, lung and hematologic malignancies, and clinical immunosuppression or cytotoxic chemotherapy.

D. Aerobic gram negative pleomorphic often motile rod.

E. Amoebae are reservoir and perhaps more normal host. Commonly transmitted through contaminated droplets produced by normal plumbing, misters, hot tubs or air conditioning water cooling towers which harbor the amoeba. 2 - 10 day incubation period. No documented person to person transmission

F. Estimated ~20,000 cases/year in US, but only ~1000 reported. Most cases of LD are sporadic; ~25% are nosocomial and 10%-20% can be linked to outbreaks such as the one that lead to its “discovery” and naming. Pontiac fever is usually recognized only during LD outbreaks. Death occurs in 10%-15% of LD G. Intracellular replication of bacteria in amoebae and in alveolar macrophages very similar. They divide in vesicles that are modified to resist fusion with lysosomes. Bacteria become short and motile prior to release from host cell. Temperature (warm water in air conditioning tanks, hot tubs, etc.) may contribute to turning on genes, which contribute to increased pathogenesis.

H. Pontiac fever patients become seropositive for Legionella pneumophila but the organism cannot be isolated from them.

I. Other Legionella species may be significant contributing agents to community acquired pneumonias; most serological tests are specific to L. pneumophila. (More than 40 species are now known, half isolated from patients).

J. Diagnosis using fluorescent antibodies to stain sputum, culture and detection of antibody in blood

K. Treatment with macrophage penetrating drugs – Macrolides, Tetracyclines or Quinolines

171
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

A. Gram negative, rapidly growing, usually motile with polar flagella, earthy smell in culture, minimal nutritional requirements
Ubiquitous soil organism, found in 2% of healthy adults
Oxidase positive, resistant to 1st and 2nd generation penicillins and vancomycin, sensitive to fluoroquinolines and streptomycin
B. Considered an opportunistic pathogen
1. Major cause of morbidity and mortality in CF patients
May bind better to CFTR defective epithelial cells
Very difficult to eradicate completely in CF patients
2. Common catheter contaminant
3. Establishment of infection
The mucoid exopolysaccharide (alginate) slime produced by P. aeruginosa forms a matrix/biofilm which anchors the bacteria and insulates it from host defenses. Nonmucoid bacteria that are easier to eradicate with antibiotics may precede mucoid producing ones. Other important virulence factors - Secreted protease (elastin) and ADP ribosylases (exotoxin A and exoenzyme S) and endotoxin (LPS) Proteolytic necrotic destruction a hallmark of Pseudomonas infection

172
Q

Other pseudomonads that cause pneumonias

A

Burkholderia cepacia produces cepacia syndrome which is lethal especially for CF patients.
Burkholderia pseudomallei causes an acute pneumonia called melioidosis, a zoonotic associated with rat infestations Stenotrophomonas (nosocomial pneumonia, primary bacteremia, sepsis and urinary tract infections).

173
Q

Klebsiella pneumonia

A

Enterobacteriacae - Closely related to E. col, encapsulated gram negative rod, facultative anaerobe enabling it to cause lung abscesses. Considered opportunistic, nosocomial infection with a high mortality rate (>25% even with antibiotic treatment). Mortality usually due to disseminated bacteremia. Insidious lung infection characterized by chest pain, thick, bloody sputum, lung abscesses, tissue necrosis and septicemia
Capsule protects from phagocytosis
Found ubiquitously in ground water, sewage, soil

Other pathogenic species (K. oxytoca, K. ozaenae, K. rhinoscleromatis and group 47)
Diagnosis by gram stain, sputum culture and API strip, PCR. Treatment with penicillin or cephalosporin unless resistant

174
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

Smallest “free-living” organism, found in filtrates that exclude most bacteria
Lacks rigid cell wall (no peptidoglycan)
Membranes contain sterols which are required for growth
Distinctive “fried egg” colony shape is produced by gliding motility.
Other pathogenic mycoplasma – M.hominis, U. urealyticum:
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes mild disease such as otitis media, sore throat, pharyngitis, and tracheitis. 5-10% of those infected develop severe bronchitis or atypical “walking pneumonia”. Occasional CNS involvement or rash (erythema multiforme) observed.
C. Epidemiology: 2 million cases/yr US requiring ~100,000 hospitalizations; 20% of all pneumonias. Community reservoirs - young children, also very common in adolescents, college dorms, military barracks. Patients with sickle cell disease are very vulnerable. Outbreaks every 5-7 years believed to be due to loss of immunity.

D. Pathogenesis: attachment of protein P1 at tip structure binds to polysaccharide receptor of respiratory mucosa. Organism migrates to and grows in spaces between epithelial cells, paralyzing respiratory cilia and causing an inflammatory response.
Variable surface antigen-undergoes both phase and length variation. Short form of surface protein proposed to be more resistance to complement mediated lysis.
Monocytes surround infected bronchi and bronchioles producing broncho-pneumonia. Usually does not involve lower lobes.

E. Diagnosis: Based on symptoms: 2-3 week incubation period prior to symptoms, atypical pneumonia, less severe “walking pneumonia” that does not respond to penicillin but does respond to antibiotics that do not target the cell wall. Confirming diagnosis usually for epidemiological purposes requires special media and takes too long to be relevant for patient care. Fluorescent antibody can also be used to look for the organism in throat swabs or sputum samples. Alternatively, PCR tests can also be used. In addition, there is a quick bedside “serum cold agglutination test”. A nonspecific test for M. pneumoniae, but findings are positive in only 50-70% of
patients after 7-10 days of infection. Test can be performed by partially filling a purple-top tube with blood and placing it in ice; a positive finding is one in which “grains of sand” appear on the glass portion of the tube. Cold agglutinin tests can be done by diagnostic laboratories. A negative result does not exclude infection, and this test may be affected by cross-reactions with other pathogens, such as adenovirus, Epstein-Barr, and measles viruses.

Treatment - Erythromycin (Zithromax) and tetracycline. Since these organisms lack a cell wall β-lactam antibiotics have no effect.

175
Q

Chlamydia pneumoniae

A

A. Obligate intracellular parasite. Small (0.2 micron extracellular [EB]) and large (0.8 micron intracellular [RB]) forms, Gram negative contains LPS but does not contain typical peptidoglycan in the cell wall.
B. Causes atypical pneumonia, bronchitis, pharyngitis, sinusitis, fevers. Incubation period ~30 days.
C. Possibly the most prevalent chlamydial pathogen in the population. 50% of U.S. population seropositive by age 20, increases to >80% with age.
D. Chlamydiae undergo differentiation. Elementary bodies (EB), infective transit form upon uptake change to reticulate bodies (RB), the intracellular dividing form. EBs are small (0.2 micron) and have distinctive shape. They interact with specific receptors to gain cell entry. RBs are larger (0.8 micron), replicate inside phagosomes and are converted to EBs before exiting. Chlamydia inhibits phago-lysosomal fusion and use host metabolites for growth. They import ATP directly by exchanging it with ADP resulting in net energy gain. Small genome indicative of obligate intracellular parasites using host functions
E. Possible association of prior infection with atherosclerosis and inflammatory arthritis. Suggestion that inflammatory response to organism damages blood vessels.
F. Diagnosis by looking for antibody to organism or PCR on infected material.
G. Treatment with protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics, prolonged high doses of tetracycline or macrolides (erythromycin). These organisms are resistant to sulfa drugs and β-lactam antibiotics.

176
Q

Chlamydia psittaci

A

A. Psittacosis, Parrot Fever or Ornithosis, a flu like systemic infection (fever, headache, and atypical pneumonia).
B. Thought to be acquired from birds, poultry and parrots. Occasionally can be acquired from farm animals. 2 week incubation period. Psittacosis can cause sepsis, placental infection, and fetal mortality. Fewer than 50 cases reported cases/yr in US.
C. Obligate intracellular parasite similar to C. pneumoniae (see above for diagnosis and treatment).

177
Q

An outbreak of Legionnaire’s disease has struck a large apartment building in Fort Lee, N.J., forcing residents to drastically reduce their use of water, public health officials said yesterday. There have been two confirmed cases of the disease at the 32-story building, the Colony, at 1530 Palisade Avenue, and many residents were relocated to hotels in the area. A 71-year-old woman who lives in the building was recently found to have the disease, a pneumonialike illness transmitted principally through tainted water in faulty heating or cooling systems. In July, another tenant was hospitalized. That case was reassessed, and doctors confirmed recently that he too had Legionnaire’s. Brian Hague, a spokesman for the Bergen County executive, said that local and state officials met with 420 Colony residents yesterday to discuss the outbreak. Many residents have already left to spend the late fall and winter in Florida, he said. The Colony has 484 units.
Early last week, health investigators tested tap water, shower water, and other water sources, Mr. Hague said. On Friday, a boiler tested positive for the bacterium Legionella pneumophilia. Most water was shut off for residents. They were told that they could not use anything water-related, except for toilets, and were advised to shower elsewhere, such as at a friend’s or relative’s home, or at hotels that state officials would help them find. “The state,” Mr. Hague said, “basically said ‘we want to zap everything,’ and the residents will have to wait until the state determines everything is clean and safe. That’s the reason for the hotels.”
It was not immediately clear when the Colony residents could use water in their apartments again.
The first cases of Legionnaire’s disease were identified in 1976, when a mysterious illness sickened hotel guests attending a convention of the American Legion in Philadelphia. The source of the bacterium, which caused 29 deaths, was later traced to standing water in the hotel’s heating and air-conditioning system. About 8,000 to 18,000 people annually come down with the disease, according to the federal Centers for Disease Control. Outbreaks typically occur in the summer and early fall. The disease kills from 5 percent to 30 percent of people who are stricken.

A

Case

178
Q

FORT LEE, N.J., Nov. 1 - State and local health officials are awaiting test results from a high-rise apartment building here to determine the source and strain of the Legionnaire’s disease that sickened two elderly residents and has led to the shutdown of the building’s water system. A 78-year-old woman with lung cancer who lives in the co-op building, the Colony, was found to be infected with the airborne bacterium last week, and the disease was diagnosed in another resident, described as an elderly man, in June, Stephen Wielkocz, Fort Lee’s chief health officer, said on Monday. Both residents have recovered, Mr. Wielkocz said, but a preliminary test on Friday found Legionella pneumophilia, the bacterium that causes the disease, inside one of the building’s water heaters, prompting health officials to shut off tap water in the building. Final test results are expected within 24 hours, and the water could remain off for up to two weeks while the water system is decontaminated, health officials said.
The approximately 1,000 residents who live in the building are using bottled water to drink and bathe. Toilets are operational. “At this point, the water in the building is no longer a risk because it cannot be used,” Mr. Wielkocz said. “I also don’t expect any more cases of Legionnaire’s disease to be diagnosed, but if it does happen at least it won’t come as a shock, and we will be able to respond accordingly.”
Legionnaire’s disease is named for a deadly outbreak of the illness at an American Legion convention at a Philadelphia hotel in 1976. The disease strikes about 8,000 to 18,000 people each year, with 5 to 30 percent of cases causing death, according to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention in Atlanta.
The bacterium typically grows in standing water and can be spread through air-conditioning ducts and in the water vapor from hot tubs and showers using contaminated water. The disease is most common in late summer and early fall, and is often mistaken for the flu or pneumonia because of similar symptoms, like high fever, nausea, loss of appetite and headaches. Elderly citizens, especially those who smoke, are most susceptible to the disease, Mr. Wielkocz said.
According to the New Jersey Department of Health and Senior Services, Legionnaire’s disease has been found in 61 state residents this year.
On Monday, several residents at the 32-story building at 1530 Palisade Avenue said the initial shock and fear had faded and been replaced with frustration. “At this point, it’s nothing more than a physical inconvenience because the water is still shut off,” said a resident who identified herself only as Carole. “Officials told us that the risk of contracting the disease is minimal, and in the meantime the mayor and Police Department have been great in getting us the water and resources we need. Hopefully, this will all be over soon.”

A

Case

179
Q

Staphylococcal infections: Suppurative and Toxic: S. aureus

A

a. Suppurative infections: Skin infections including folliculitis; furuncles (boils) – hot, tender, low fever; and carbuncles (confluence of boils); impetigo – epidermal lesion with thick, yellowish crust forming after clear pustules burst (easily spread); surgical wound infections (stitch abscess), eye, middle ear, burn wound infections, nursery epidemics or neonatal infections; pneumonia (~Strep pneumonia, less common, 1-5%); osteomyelitis
b. Toxic infections: scalded skin syndrome; toxic shock syndrome.
Scalded Skin Syndrome - children

180
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis and S. saphrophyticus:

A

Coagulase negative Staph may cause infections: localized skin abscesses; endocarditis in drug addicts; post cardiac surgery; urinary tract infections and chronic bacteremia in hydrocephalics with indwelling shunts; urinary tract infections. Often difficult to treat because of antibiotic resistance. (Vancomycin is current antibiotic of choice.)

181
Q

Pneumonia

Facts

A

•Caused by viruses, bacteria, fungi
•6thleading cause of death in US
–~25 deaths/100,000 people (~70,000/yr)
–80% of these are people >65 yrs old (~50,000/yr)

•WHO estimates that 4 million children under age 5 die annually from pneumonia.

–Most deaths are in non-industrialized nations where deaths due to bacterial pneumonias are common.

–In industrialized nations, deaths due to viral pneumonias more common

182
Q

Classification of Pneumonia

A

Each requires different protocol of treatment

Classification of Pneumonia:

  1. CAP, community-acquired pneumonia
    - Bacterial
    - Viral
  2. HAP, hospital-acquired pneumonia
    - HCAP, health care–associated pneumonia;
    - VAP, ventilator-associated pneumonia.
183
Q

Clinical Presentation of Pneumonia

Symptoms, imaging, area of lung infections, increased migration of certain cells.

A

Lower respiratory infection of bronchioles or alveoli. A consolidation in the lung

  • Increased mucous production, migration of neutrophils and macrophages to alveoli
  • Symptoms –“ooooh I feel soooo awful”(malaise), shortness of breath (dyspnea), cough, fever (febrile), fluid in the lungs (pleurisy), abnormal chest X-ray, blue finger tips
184
Q

In-hospital mortality due to community acquired pneumonias increases with _____

A

Age

185
Q

Childhood pneumonias

Causes 2 yo +/-

A

Less than 2 years old
60% viral (mostly RSV)
40% bacterial

Greater than 2 years old
70% bacterial (~2/3 Pneumococcus) 30% viral

186
Q

Most common bacterial pneumonias (3 most common) and other 6.

A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae- Lobar pneumonia, Gm+ encapsulated
  2. Mycoplasma pneumoniae -atypical “walking” pneumonia, no cell wall)
  3. Chlamydia pneumoniae -(obligate intracellular pathogen, atypical pneumonia)

Haemophilus influenzaetype b –effective vaccine, PRP capsule

Moraxella catarrhalis prevalent carriage/kids and elderly, mostly Penicillin resistant Gm-diplococcus

Legionella pneumophila -opportunist, grows in amoeba

Klebsiella pneumoniae -opportunist, Gm-encapsulated

Pseudomonas aeruginosa opportunist/CF patients Gm-

Chlamydia psitacci (Parrot Fever or Ornithosis) -birds

187
Q

How does incidence of bacteria causing pneumonia relate to mortality

A

Inversely proportional.

E.g Streptococcus pneumonias 74% : 12.3%
E.g Pseudomonas aeruginosa 0.3% 61.1%

188
Q

Map out the cascade of pneumonia induction

A

Development of Bacterial Pneumonia

Adherence to cells of the oropharnyx

Bacterial colonization

Aspiration into the lung

Escape from normal lung defenses and (re)colonization ---> (massive inflammatory response --> fluid enters lungs --> now we get a mechanical impedance to breath)

Note: can go from Adherence to cells of the oropharynx —> Aspiration into the lung

189
Q

ENHANCED RISK OF PNEUMONIA (5)

A

Colonization of upper airways with pathogens -alcoholics, antibiotic treatment

Cough or glottic closure

Abnormal or absent ciliary motion, trauma or tracheostomy

Pre-existing lung disease-asthma, COPD, cystic fibrosis

Immune deficiency of neutrophils or alveolar macrophages

190
Q

Streptococcus pneumonia

Characteristics, structure, type, TX diagnostic , Prevention

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

  • The cause of 60% of pneumonias
  • Pneumococcus
  • Typical pneumonia
  • Gram positive, encapsulated, diplococci, α-haemolytic, sensitive to optochin
  • Treat with β-lactams (penicillin) or macros

Prevention: polyvalent vaccine : Prevnar and Pneumovax

Note: Gram positive, encapsulated was the genetic trait that was able to be inherited in offspring –> There’s DNA discovery!

191
Q

Less typical and atypical bacterial pneumonias are what kind of bacteria?

A

Mostly gram negative and cell wall less organisms

192
Q

Pneumonia due to Haemophilus influenza

Formerly an issue for what population, which serotype is most pathogenic, vaccine, diagnosis test, Tx

A

Serotype b or HiB-The most pathogenic, responsible for most infections

Formerly a major problem for infants 6 mo.–5 yrs.,

HiBPRP capsular vaccine (conjugated vaccine which has made this much less of a threat) largely eliminated the threat in developed countries

Diagnosis -Grows on chocolate agar (boiled blood) or regular blood agar supplemented with NAD (factor V) and Hemin(factor X)

Treatment -Augmentin (amoxicillin + clavulanate), new generation cephalosporins or macrolides

193
Q

Moraxellacatarrhalis

Type of bacteria, originally classified as ____ and why? Types of infections it causes. LAB identification, Tx, resistance to?

A

Gram negative diplococcus

Originally classified as Neisseria, Later called Branhamella

Considered a commensal

Carriage rates high in children and in the elderly

Also causes upper respiratory infections

Ranks third as cause of otitis media
Causes sinusitis and laryngitis
chronic bronchitis in smokers

Lab identification

  • Gram negative diplococcus
  • Oxidase positive like Neisseria
  • Metabolic tests used to distinguish it from Neisseria

Treatment:
- 2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporin’s or macrolides (e.g. Azithromycin/Z-pack)

  • Resistant to PENICILLIN and VANCOMYCIN (GM -)
    90% of isolates produce β-lactamase

Note: that is oxidase + thus used to be called Neisseria but then the name change to Branhamella because it was realized it has other metabolic needs and then the name changed to Moraxella

194
Q

The former Bellevue-Stratford, now Hyatt-Bellevue Hotel is a Philadelphia landmark that is perhaps best known as the place where a mysterious disease came to light. The hotel hosted an American Legion Convention in July, 1976. In the days that followed, a mystery disease killed 34 participants and sickened 221.
This disease become known as:
LEGIONNAIRE’S DISEASE or LEGIONELLOSIS

What’s more typical in contraction Legionnaire’s?

A

Contaminated water source. Legionnaire grows in amoebas and macrophages. Airconditioning was more prevalent in 1976.

  • More typical is the sporadic case
195
Q

LEGIONNAIRES’DISEASE –

at first not previously recognized as infections due to Koch’s postulate

Discuss resulting pneumonia, incubation period, who is affected most, pontiac fever (discuss).

A
–Severe pneumonia, incubation period of 2-10 days.
–High mortality (~15% fatal)
–In the US, only 1000 cases/yr reported
–10,000 cases/yr estimated
–Sporadic cases rarely recognized

•Opportunistic disease in immunocompromised individuals only; most likely won’t affect healthy individuals

–Heavy smoking, steroid treatment, age

•PONTIAC FEVER -A non-pneumonic febrile illness that is not life threatening.

–Onset is 1–2 days after exposure
–Named after disease cluster that appeared that year in Pontiac, MI building. Air Conditioner water caused disease in Guinea Pigs

Note: at first not previously recognized as infections due to Koch’s postulate

196
Q

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILA

  • describe type, structure, where does it grow in wild/human, describe shape when newly released and virulent. Why were sporadic cases initially not recognized?
A

Gram negative, hard to stain, thin, often motile pleomorphic rods 0.5x 2-20 

Facultative intracellular organism –grows in amoeba (Acanthamoeba castellani) in the wild and within macrophages during human infection

Not virulent when grown on nutrient agar
Intracellular or newly released virulent forms have short rod and are highly motile

Hard to stain and not virulent when on agar thus hard to do Koch’s postulate.

Note: Pleomorphism, in microbiology, is the ability of some bacteria to alter their shape or size in response to environmental conditions.

197
Q

Life cycle in amoebae: Legionella pneumophila:

In amoeba what conditions does Legionella pneumophila survive/die. What’s its intracellular course to extracellular. How does pneumonia develop?

A

Bacteria grows in amoeba above 25°C, killed by amoeba
below 20°C

Following several rounds of intracellular replication bacteria converts to virulent motile form capable
of extracellular survival and transmission to new host

If aspirated into susceptible lung, L. pneumophila taken up by alveolar macrophages where they replicate and cause pneumonia in the absence of a robust cell-mediated immune response.

198
Q

Intracellular development of Legionella
in alveolar macrophages

Discuss the steps of internalization, change of morphology, non to virulent phase, cause of disease.

A
  1. Bacterium engulfed by coiled phagosome, becomes internalized within endosomes that do not fuse with lysosome and become surrounded by rough ER.
  2. Bacteria replicate within endosomes as less virulent nonmotile form. When nutrients are depleted it converts to the motile virulent form and lyse the cell to escape.
  3. Disease due to massive inflammatory response.
199
Q

LEGIONELLA PNEUMOPHILA

Lab Identification (3)
Treatment (1)
A

•Lab Identification:
–Fluorescent Abs –microscopic detection of organism in sputum
–Culture on special medium
–Serological detection of antibody in blood

•Treatment:
–Antibiotics that penetrate macrophages: Erythromycin, Tetracycline or Ciprofloxacin

Note: Penicillin doesn’t penetrate macrophage.

200
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

what kind of bacteria is it, what can it cause, where can it be found normally, what are the serotypes, and what’s a diagnostic culture feature of it? What is most important about this bacteria (it has an ability to do something in the lungs)

A

Enterobacteriacae that causes pneumonia
and UTIs

Gram negative, encapsulated rod

Facultative anaerobe- will cause absecess that wall of from lung and thus is in an anaerobic environment. Lysing of this absecess will release huge amounts of LPS causing sepsis and tissue necrosis.

-May be in normal flora (very small amounts) in lungs in small amount and is an opportunistic pathogen

many serotypes:

  • LPS –O
  • Capsule -K

Note: producing mucoid colonies with Lac+ giving a pink color on MacConkey agar

201
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Insidious infection causes what symptoms, signs? What are some other clinically significant Klebsiella (4)?

A

Insidious infection: chest pain, thick, bloody sputum, lung abscesses, tissue necrosis and septicemia.

Opportunistic, often secondary infection

Can be isolated from respiratory tract in ~5% of general populations

High fatality rate ~ 50% - if abscess lysis

Other clinically significant Klebsiallae: K. oxytoca, K. ozaenae, K. rhinoscleromatis, group 47

202
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How does it take advantage and what does it cause? What is it associated with (infections)

A

An opportunist, causing pneumonias and systemic infections

Associated with catheters related infections and immunodeficiencies

Chronic infections in cystic fibrosis patients
Also otitis externa (Swimmer’s ear)

203
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

What type of bacteria, defining structures, describe a colony of it and a peculiar observation.

Virulence factors (4)

A

Gram negative, oxidasepositive, motile rod with polar flagella

Extremely fast growing, minimal growth requirements

Colonies have a grape-like or fruity smell, often blue

Virulence factors:

Adhesins-pilithat bind receptors on epithelial cells and flagellarproteins that bind to airway mucins

Produces alginate aka SLIME, a gelatinous polysaccharide, required for biofilmformation that makes organism 50X more resistant to host defenses and antibiotics

Produces ADP ribosylases(exotoxinA and exoenzymeS which inhibits cellular protein synthesis) and endotoxin(LPS).

Secretes protease (elastin), helps damage tissue for colonization, proteolyticnecrotic destruction is a hallmark of infection

Note: bandages of WWI were turning blue

204
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa in Cystic Fibrosis patients

What usually happens to CF patients prior to colonization by Pseudomonas?

Describe the profile of which the CF airways and lungs get infected.

What was originally classified as a Pseudomonas but now has it’s own term. How is it alike to Pseudomonas?

A

Prior respiratory infection believed to damage tissue leaving it vulnerable to colonization by Pseudomonas.

CF patient airways and lungs almost always infected with alginate/slime biofilm producing strains

Burkholderia cepacia complex (BCC)–originally classified as a Pseudomonas. Causes Cepacia Syndrome in CF patients. Like Pseudomonas it is motile, Gm-and produces biofilm

205
Q

Other clinically important Pseudomonads now classified as Burkholderia. (4)

A

Motile Gm-organisms, often associated with biofilm production

Burkholderia cepacia –Cepacia in CF patients

Burkholderia mallei –Glanders, zoonotic

Burkholderia pseudomallei –Melioidosis, glanders-like illness common in SE Asia, associated with contaminated water

206
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia AKA _____ (why)

What does it cause and eventually becomes?

Symptoms

X-ray imaging

Presumptive Diagnosis made how?

A

Atypical or walking pneumonia - highly communicable disease

Causes otitis media and pharyngitis which can turn into bronchitis and “walking pneumonia” - not as sick as real pneumonia and thus you can walk around with it. Not severe disease but very common.

Fever, headache, malaise for several days before onset of respiratory symptoms

Non-productive cough, later may become productive

X-rays can reveal diffuse bronchopneumonia

Presumptive diagnosis based on severity and lack of responsiveness to penicillin followed by responsiveness to non β-lactam antibiotics

207
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia

Incidence
Mode of transmission and typically where
Explain epidemic infections

A

2 million cases/yr in US
100,000 hospitalizations

Spread by droplets where people are in close contact so clusters especially common in college dorms, army barracks and in school age kids

Epidemic infections every 4-7 years, thought to reflect 2-10 year acquired immunity. Crowd source immunity. Large numbers of people get infected get Ab and only years later does the Ab amount dilutes and can be infected again after years of initial crowd exposure.

208
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonias

What does it lack structurally and instead has what?

Discuss features of cell, growth requirements, size, genome

A

Bacteria that lacks a cell wall and contains sterols in plasma membrane. Gets sterols from host.

No rigid cell wall, cell shaped maintained by primitive cytoskeleton

Sterol containing cell membranes, sterols required for growth of some species

Appears to be obligate free living parasite –smallest known bacteria, first thought to be a virus

Small genomes believed to have arisen by gene deletions from ancestral species

M. pneumoniae,M. genitaliumand M. hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum

209
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonias

Evasion
Why is dry cough a sign?

A

Evades immune response with variable surface antigen-undergoes both phase and length variation. Enters airways and adheres (the tip has adhesins) to epithelial and disables the cilia and we get a cough (dry) to try and clear it out.

210
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonias pathogenesis

Discuss pathogenesis, where it replicates, how does it get the fried egg appearance and what does that confer for the bacteria?

A

Mycoplasma have a tip structure containing adhesin protein P1 that binds to a specific host receptor protein

Organisms slide tips first into the interstitial spaces between cells in the ciliated epithelium and stop cilia from beating

Organism replicates in inter-cellular space within epithelium

Produces biofilms (which causes the fried egg appearance in culture) enabling drug and complement resistance
tip
211
Q

Laboratory Identification of Mycoplasma pneumonias

Nonspecific test and specificity
rate of growth and medium requirements
How can diagnosis be confirmed?

A

Serum cold agglutination (spin cells down get ride of cells and allow to sit in cold (ice bath) and will see agglutinate) is a nonspecific test for M pneumoniae, but findings are positive in only 50-70% of patients after 7-10 days of infection.

Slow growing - requires special medium and produces FRIED EGG SHAPED COLONIES due to biofilm

Diagnosis can be confirmed by staining
sputum with fluorescent antibody or
carrying out PCR for mycoplasma
genes

212
Q

Treatment of Mycoplasma infections

A
  • Erythromycin, tetracycline or quinolines

* Never β-lactam or cephalosporin

213
Q

Chlamydia pneumonia

Another type of ______ pneumonia
Diagnosed frequently/ not
Symptoms of disease
Incidence of ______ acquired pneumonias and common in what population?
Incidence of having the bacteria at age of 20 vs

A

Another cause of atypical “Walking”pneumonia
where most cases go undiagnosed.

Disease: fever, sore throat, nonproductive cough, rales, myalgia and frontal headache, pneumonia, CNS symptoms

Accounts for ~10% of all community acquired pneumonias, common in young adults and adults >60 years old.

50% of US population seropositive at age 20, percentage increases to >80% are seropositive

214
Q

Chlamydia

What type of bacteria
Energy acquisitions
Life cycle

C. trachoma’s causes _____.

A

Obligate intracellular gram negative bacteria
Energy parasites acquiring ATP and nucleotides from the host cell

Biphasic life cycle

Elementary body (EB) ↔Reticulate body (RB)

EB (extracellular infectious elemental body) smaller form responsible for transmitting infections to new cells

RB (replicative elemental body) larger metabolically active form that replicates within macrophages

C. trachomatis causes trachoma and urinary tract infections

215
Q

Describe cascade of infection by Chlamydia and the biphasic life cycle

A

Infectious EB gets into cell and avoids the fusion of phagosome with lysosome. Then converts to metabolically active RB inside the phagosome. The RB replicate and then condense into EB to be released from cell and infect another cell.

216
Q

Chlamydia pneumonias

Dx
Tx

A

Diagnosis: fluorescent antibody staining and demonstrating that macrophages contain inclusion bodies

Treatment: Tetracycline or erythromycin (Zithromax)
Sulfa drugs and β-lactam antibiotics not very effective

217
Q

Chlamydia pneumoniae may be linked to (3).

Why the speculation of linkage?

What are some association hypothesis based one (4)

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae may be linked to Atherosclerosis, Inflammatory Arthritis and Alzheimer’s Disease

60% of heart patients had antibodies to C. pneumoniae vs. 20% in the normal control population

People testing positive for C. pneumonias antibodies had 2X the amount of carotid artery thickening vs. seronegative population

Diseased coronary arteries show electron-microscopic evidence of chlamydia infection

Patients on tetracycline or quinolone had a lower frequency of heart attacks –Antibiotics that do not affect chlamydia did not have this effect.

Note: linkage association because 80% of us have been infected by C. pneumoniae

218
Q

Theory of Chlamydia pneumoniae may be linked to Atherosclerosis, Inflammatory Arthritis and Alzheimer’s Disease

A

Theory: Inflammatory response to organism damages blood vessels, joints and nerves leading to atherosclerosis, arthritis and Alzheimer’s.

Prevalence makes all of the above questionable making it difficult to prove causality

219
Q

Chlamydia psittaci

What does it cause
symptoms
how is it spread and what are risk groups
who is usually not sick from it
What attributes to the low incidence?
A

•Cause of psittacosis, Parrot fever or ornithosis
–Systemic infection with pneumonia, hepatitis and endocarditis
–Often asymptomatic

•Spread by inhalation
–Bird feces
–Risk groups –pet shop employees, poultry workers

  • Birds usually are not sick
  • Lower incidence believed to be due to antibiotics in poultry feed stocks
220
Q

Mycobacterial diseases (tuberculosis, leprosy and other atypical diseases) are caused by slow-growing, aerobic, gram +ve, acid-fast bacteria that do not produce toxins or overt virulence factors; instead, they cause disease by provoking a granulomatous immune response and to delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH). Actinomycetes are gram +ve opportunistic pathogens with a branched cell morphology that cause slow pulmonary and skin infections. (Note: Nocardia are acid-fast, Actinomyces are not.)

A

Overview

221
Q

All mycobacterial human pathogens are what type of bacteria, growth rate, structure characteristic, virulence, how do they cause disease?

A

All mycobacterial human pathogens are aerobic, slow-growing, intracellular bacteria with lipid-rich cell walls. They are Gram-positive, and acid-fast. They generally do not produce toxins or other overt virulence factors. Instead, they cause disease by provoking a similar GRANULOMATOUS pathological immune response in the host.

222
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb)

  1. Morphology and cell wall structure (3)
  2. Growth and staining characteristics (3)
A
  1. Morphology and cell wall structure
    a. Elongated thin rods
    b. Most significant characteristic: Lipid-rich cell wall
    c. Key cell wall components: mycelia (MYCOLIC) acids
    d. Gram +, Non-motile, non-spore-forming

Cell Wall
Lipid-rich: mycolic Acids, and other lipids
Lipoarabinomannan (LAM)
N-glycolylmuramic acid (NGAM) in peptidoglycan
Fatty cell wall blocks destaining of stained cells (“acid-fast”)

  1. Growth and staining characteristics
    a. Peculiar growth and staining characteristics are a direct result of lipid-rich cell walls
    b. Slow-growing probably because of cell-wall barrier to nutrient uptake
    c. Acid-fast staining because lipids prevent decolorization
223
Q

TB epidemiology: worldwide and US

  1. Ancient plague: evidence in preserved human remains
  2. World-wide:
  3. In the USA:
A
  1. Ancient plague: evidence in preserved human remains
    a. TB epidemic in Europe in 18th and 19th centuries concomitant with industrialization
    b. Associated with crowding
  2. World-wide:
    a. Up to 1/3rd of humans infected; 30 million have active TB; 8.8 million new cases in 2003
    b. Current incidence levels: highest in Asia, but appreciable around the world
  3. In the USA:
    a. Steady decline of new cases through 1980s
    b. Brief resurgence in the late 1980s through early 1990s coincident with spread of AIDS
    c. Current incidence levels are around 20,000 new cases/year
224
Q

Mode of TB Infection and Consequences of Infection

Transmission and how?
Other than the infected who’s at risk?

Pathogenic Mechanisms
What causes TB disease?
Inhaled Mtb spreads diffusely or contained?
Incidence of infected to develop disease and what may happen with those who don’t initially have symptoms?

A

Mode of Infection and Consequences of Infection

  1. Spread by droplet nuclei containing Mtb (must be active)
  2. Droplet nuclei are expelled by coughing, sneezing, speaking or singing by person with active TB
  3. Close contacts at highest risk

E. Pathogenic Mechanisms

  1. TB is a disease caused by a pathological host response to Mtb; Mtb makes no toxins or virulence factors
  2. Consequences of Exposure to Mtb
    a. Inhaled Mtb are initially confined to a localized area of inflammation (“granuloma”)
    b. Only 5% of infected individuals develop disease concomitant with active Mtb replication; 95% are asymptomatic; 5% of the asymptomatically infected persons can later suffer “reactivation TB”., so that an aggregate total of 10% of infected individuals suffer TB.
225
Q

Immunity to Mtb

Discuss natural immunity and how Mtb is destroyed.

CMI occurs within what time span?

Discuss the immune cascade once Mtb is inhaled. Why can the ultimate end result lead into an issue?

What is the determinant of disease severity?

In asymptomatically infected individuals what is occurring with the Mtb rate of growth?

How does caveating necrosis occur?

A

Immunity to Mtb

a. High natural immunity (95% of infected individuals are asymptomatic)
i. Protective response destroys most Mtb by generating oxygen and nitrogen radicals

b. Cell-mediated immunity develops 2-6 weeks of exposure
i. Inhaled Mtb is engulfed by “unactivated” macrophage, lead to production of IL-1, TNF and other cytokines
ii. IL-1 and other cytokines activate T-cells
iii. Activated T-cells recognize Mtb-antigens on infected macrophages, and activate the macrophages to produce oxygen and nitrogen free radicals
iv. Cytotoxic lymphocytes (CTL) destroy infected macrophage, but paradoxically release viable Mtb, allowing dissemination
c. A delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) to Mtb antigens develops; the severity of the DTH determines disease outcome. pathological hypersensitivity that ultimately leads to tissue damage characteristic of TB
i. In asymptomatically infected individuals, Mtb replication and dissemination are limited. Mtb is “walled-off”, most Mtb, but not all, are killed
ii. In untreated “primary TB” individuals, due to more severe DTH, tissue destruction and CTL-mediated cytolysis of infected macrophage continues unchecked (“caseating necrosis”), allowing cycles of Mtb replication, dissemination, and further DTH-mediated caveating necrosis
4. Reactivation TB occurs when person with dormant Mtb is temporarily immunosuppressed, and follows a course similar to “primary TB”

Note: An ability to survive and multiply within macrophages is the key to its virulence. 95% of people with the activated macrophages will become latent and of 95% of latent 95% will be asymptomatic. Of the 5% following macrophage activation we get primary TB. Of the 5% of latent we get reactivation TB. With both active forms of TB we get casting necrosis via DTH mediation tissue destruction and down stream we get dissemination due to the rapid TB replication and release.

226
Q

Define DTH

A

Delayed type hypersensitivity - Delayed hypersensitivity reactions are inflammatory reactions initiated by mononuclear leukocytes (lymphocytes and monocytes). The term delayed is used to differentiate a secondary cellular response, which appears 48-72 hours after antigen exposure, from an immediate hypersensitivity response, which generally appears within 12 minutes of an antigen challenge. These reactions are mediated by T cells and monocytes/macrophages rather than by antibodies. They are also termed type IV hypersensitivity reactions.

227
Q

Military Tuberculosis

Define and discuss distribution
Epidemiology - population higher at risk
MOA

A

Military Tuberculosis

a. A disseminated form characterized by a large number of small (“millet-like”) nodules throughout the body including lungs, liver, pancreas, kidney, brain and bones
b. Epidemiology: 1-3% of immune competent individuals with TB; more in immune-compromised patients with TB
c. Mechanism: Erosion of a blood vessel by caseating necrosis in the lung spreads Mtb through the bloodstream and lymphatic circulation

228
Q

Clinical presentation of TB

Primary TB (3)
Reactivation TB or untreated primary TB (7)
Miliary TB (5)
A
  1. Primary TB
    a. Mild symptoms; fever, malaise, “Ghon complex” calcified healed tubercles.
  2. Reactivation TB (or untreated primary TB)
    a. Prolonged Cough, hemoptysis, chest pain
    b. Fever, severe weight loss and fatigue, malaise
    c. X-ray: infiltrates - Opacification of airspaces within the lung parenchyma. Consolidation or infiltrate can be dense or patchy and might have irregular, ill-defined, or hazy borders. Cavities indicating tissue destruction
    d. Death in 2-5 years (if untreated)
  3. Miliary TB
    a. Mild symptoms: fever, wait loss, night sweats, cough, splenomegaly

Note: Ghon’s complex is a lesion seen in the lung that is caused by tuberculosis. The lesions consist of a calcified focus of infection and an associated lymph node. These lesions are particularly common in children and can retain viable bacteria, so are sources of long-term infection and may be involved in reactivation of the disease in later life.

However In most persons, the granulomatous disease will not progress. Over time, the granulomas decrease in size and can calcify, leaving a focal calcified spot on a chest radiograph that suggests remote granulomatous disease.

229
Q

TB diagnosis

Test, criteria, limitations
Lab diagnosis
Other

A
  1. Tuberculin (PPD) test
    a. Measures DTH to PPD (purified protein derivative)

i. Area of induration must be >10 mm to be positive
ii. Indicates prior infection, not necessarily active TB

iii. Limitations
(a) BCG vaccinated persons can be PPD+ve
(b) Severely immune-compromised individuals may be anergic (no reaction even though they have TB)

  1. Lab Diagnosis
    a. Acid-fast stain of sputum
    b. Culture for identification and drug –sensitivity testing
  2. Radiographic and imaging
230
Q

TB treatment and prevention

Tx
Complications (2)
Prevention (3)

A
  1. Long-term combination antibiotic therapy: First and second line TB drugs
  2. Complications
    a. Patient compliance; “Directly Observed Treatment”
    b. Multi-Drug Resistant (MDR) strains
  3. Prevention
    a. Reportable disease
    b. Contact-tracing, PPD testing and prophylaxis
    c. BCG vaccination: not done in USA because of questions on effectiveness
231
Q

LEPROSY (HANSEN’S DISEASE)

Mycobacterium leprae (remember depending on the dominant Th response different clinical presentations (names))

Morphology, growth, epidemiology, pathogenesis, reservoir

Clinical presentation and classification of Leprosy

  • Major types (3)
  • Discuss two of them

Dx and Tx

Public health

A
  1. Morphology, growth, epidemiology, pathogenesis
    a. Acid-fast, slow growing, obligatory intracellular parasite (cannot be grown in artificial medium; can be grown in the armadillo)

b. Reservoir is human; possible that the armadillo is also infected, but not responsible for spread of leprosy

c. Not highly infectious—requires prolonged contact (reservoir=humans)
d. Infects macrophages, Schwann cells; attack on nerve cells leads to patchy anesthesia

  1. Clinical presentation and classification of Leprosy
    a. Major types: Tuberculoid, Borderline and Lepromatous
    i. Tuberculoid: CMI active, characterized by macules; disease is indolent; very few bacteria
    ii. Lepromatous: CMI defective; massive uncontrolled growth of M. leprae; excessive skin lesions and deformations
  2. Diagnosis and treatment
    a. Acid-fast staining and serological tests, clinical picture
    b. Dapsone +Rifampin
  3. World-wide prevalence, and possible zoonotic connection
232
Q

TB-LIKE DISEASES CAUSED BY “ATYPICAL MYCOBACTERIA” (aka Mycobacteria Other Than Tuberculosis, or MOTT)

  • M. kansasii : list some defining properties
  • M. avium-Intracellulare Complex (MAC) : list some defining properties
A

A. M. kansasii

  1. Photo-chromogenic (pigmented colonies when grown in light)
  2. Slow-TB like disease, very rare, probably in immune-compromised individuals

B. M. avium-Intracellulare Complex (MAC)

  1. Non-chromogenic
  2. Slow-TB like disease, very rare, probably in immune-compromised individuals
  3. Systemic disease in AIDS patients
233
Q

ACTINOMYCETES

Define
Properties/characteristics
Clinical presentation of actinomycosis (3) and what sp are involved?

A

Actinomycetes are a heterogenous group of Gram +ve, opportunistic bacterial pathogens with a characteristic branched filamentous growth. (Their name reflects previous mis-identification as fungi.). They cause slow inflammatory diseases such as actinomycosis and nocardiosis mostly in immune-compromised individuals.

I. ACTINOMYCOSIS

A. Actinomyces israelii and other spp.: morphology, growth

  1. strictly anaerobic
  2. Gram +ve, BUT NOT ACID-FAST

B. Actinomycosis clinical presentation

  1. Mucosal inflammation (predominantly cervicofacial) with surface openings (sinuses)
    a. Associated with tooth extraction or poor dental hygiene
  2. Characteristic: “Sulfur granules”—clumps of bacteria (contain no Sulfur)

C. Diagnosis and treatment

  1. History, clinical picture, sulfur granules, culture
  2. Penicillin G
234
Q

NOCARDIOSIS

Nocardia spp. – structure, morphology (2)
Major types of nocardiosis (2)
Diagnosis and treatment (2)

A

A. Nocardia spp. – structure, morphology

  1. Acid-fast, even if weakly so
  2. Aerobic

B. Major types of nocardiosis

  1. Pumonary (N. asteroids): acute bronchopneumonia—mainly in immune-compromised individuals
  2. Cutaneous (N. brasiliensis): pustules with sinuses; include “mycetoma” and “Madura foot” diseases

C. Diagnosis and treatment

  1. Gram +ve branched cells in sputum or aspirates
  2. Sulfonamides
235
Q

Discuss the PPD (Mantoux test)

A

Tuberculin is a glycerol extract of the tubercle bacillus. Purified protein derivative (PPD) tuberculin is a precipitate of species-nonspecific molecules obtained from filtrates of sterilized, concentrated cultures.

the active agent in tuberculin as a protein.

A standard dose of 5 tuberculin units (TU - 0.1 ml) is injected intradermally (between the layers of dermis) and read 48 to 72 hours later [DTH]

This intradermal injection is termed the Mantoux technique. A person who has been exposed to the bacteria is expected to mount an immune response in the skin containing the bacterial proteins.

The reaction is read by measuring the diameter of induration (palpable raised, hardened area) across the forearm (perpendicular to the long axis) in millimeters.

If there is no induration, the result should be recorded as “0 mm”. Erythema (redness) should not be measured.

236
Q

“Acid-Fast Staining”: A Diagnostic Property of Mycobacteria

Ziehl-Nielsen Staining Procedure

A
  1. Stain with warm carbol fuschin; all bacteria stain red
  2. De-colorize with acid-alcohol: most bacteria give up red dye; “acid-fast” bacteria do not!
  3. Counter-stain with methylene blue; decolorized bacteria pickup blue stain, but acid-fast bacteria cannot bind methylene blue, and will remain red
237
Q

Mycobacterial Cell Wall Structure

A

Hydrophobic cell wall creates strong permeability barrier rendering mycobacteria resistant to a wide variety of antimicrobial agents.

Principal contributor to hydrophobicity: mycolic acid (a fatty acid)

Channel forming proteins (porins) allow hydrophilic molecules to pass through their hydrophobic cell wall.

Major antigenic component is “liberated proteins”, including “tuberculin”

238
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis growth

Discuss
Resistant to _____, type fo bacteria, growth requirement, and growth rate and colony formation

A

Strictly aerobic and intracellular

Reside and proliferate within macrophages

Resistant to drying and disinfectants, but not to heat

Can grow in vitro ( not all mycobacterium grow in vitro) at 37C but not at room temperature

Require enriched complex media (e.g., Lowenstein-Jensen Medium)

Slow growth (Generation time: 12-24 h; colonies: 3-6 wks). Attributed to cell-wall barrier to nutrient uptake. Clumped, rough colonies

239
Q

TB: An Urban Plague

Discuss the history behind TB

A

TB, an ancient human plague, became rampant in Europe coincident with rapid industrialization and urbanization

“Consumption as the disease of the sensitive, artistic individual”

Chopin, Paganini, Rousseau, Goethe, Chekhov, Thoreau, Keats, Browning, Brontës etc.

1865: TB is shown to be an infectious disease (Jean-Antoine Villemin)

1882: Mtb isolation, and “Koch’s postulates” (Hermann Heinrich Robert Koch)

Disease is spread by close contact, a by-product of urbanization

240
Q

Koch’s Postulates (4)

A
  1. The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease, but should not be found in healthy organisms. [Exception: asymptomatic carriers]
  2. The microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture. [Exception: prions]
  3. The cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy organism.
  4. The microorganism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original specific causative agent.

Note: A prion is an infectious agent, composed entirely of protein, presumed to be the cause of the transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs).

241
Q

Overview: Consequences of Exposure To Mtb

Give % of routes Tb can take to and discuss them.

A
  1. Exposure (inhalation of droplet nuclei)
  2. Uptake by macrophages, limited intracellular multiplication, granuloma formation

2a. 95% asymptomatic, halt of bacterial multiplication tubercles become calcified (Ghon Complex)
2b. 5 % primary TB, bacterial multiplication, spread, tissue damage

2a1. 90% no further symptoms
2a2. 5% Reactivation TB, bacterial multiplication, spread, tissue damage (more severe symptoms)

Granuloma: will have activated macrophages, CD4/8, epitheloid cells and MTb. The granulomas of tuberculosis tend to contain NECROSIS (“caseating tubercules”), but non-necrotizing granulomas may also be present. Multinucleated giant cells with nuclei arranged like a horseshoe (Langhans giant cell) and foreign body giant cells are often present, but are not specific for tuberculosis.

Note: while in granuloma rapid replication is suppressed. Epitheliod cells are activated macrophages resembling epithelial cells; Epithelioid cells are an essential characteristic of granulomas: that is to say that witho

242
Q

Immunity to M. tuberculosis

A

Only about 10% of infected humans ultimately develop disease—indicates high natural immunity

Certain population groups are more at risk for disease

Cell-Mediated Immunity (CMI) develops 2-6 weeks after primary infection; a Delayed-Type Hypersensitivity (DTH) to Mtb antigens determines disease outcome

243
Q

Describe the look of caseating necrosis

A

cheese-like” proteinaceous mass of dead macrophage and other cells originating in a granuloma

244
Q

Discuss Miliary Tuberculosis

A

Highly disseminated form of TB: lungs, spleen, liver, kidneys, bones, brain

Numerous small (“millet-like”) caseating nodules

Mechanism: blood vessel erosion by caseating necrosis in lung; seeding of distant sites via bloodstream and lymphatic system

1%-3% of immune competent TB cases; more when immune-compromised

Mild clinical presentation

100% lethal if untreated

245
Q

Smoking dramatically increases TB reactivation & mortality

Increased ____ % susceptibility to reactivation TB

What other disease can increase susceptibility?

A

Landmark study in India (Lancet 362:507; 2003)

Smoking (cigarettes or bidis) linked to increased incidence 400% of reactivation TB

Death is 4 times more likely for smokers with TB vs. non-smokers with TB

Diabetes and susceptibility to TB

246
Q

TB Diagnosis

TB test protocol, False +/-

Lab Dx (3)

A

Tuberculin Test
Measures DTH to tuberculoprotein (PPD)
5 units injected intradermally
After 48-72 hrs, if area of induration is >10 mm, prior INFECTION is suspected

False +ve: BCG vaccinated people; Non-TB Mycobacterial infections

False –ve: Anergy (no DTH) in immune-compromised patients (e.g., HIV); co-infections; very young or very old patients

Laboratory Diagnosis
- Acid-fast bacilli in sputum or smears

- Culture confirmation required because of ubiquitous non-pathogenic mycobacteria, but also to determine antibiotic sensitivity

- MTB/RIF rapid PCR-based test (Test takes 1 hr 45 min)
Sputum liquefaction and inactivation with sample reagent 2:1, transfer 2ml mix into test cartridge, cartridge inserted into MTB-RIF test platform. Sample is filtered and washed, ultrasonic lysis of cells to release DNA, DNA mixes with dry PCR reagents, amplification of DNA.

247
Q

TB Treatment

A

Key to treatment: long-term treatment (6 mos. to 2 yrs) with a combination of antibiotics to prevent resistance

Key problems: patient compliance; emergence of multi-drug-resistant (MDR) strains; directly observed treatment - forced treatment

First-Line Drugs

Isoniazid, Ethambutol, Rifampin, Pyranizamide, Streptomycin

Isoniazid: cell wall synthesis (mycolic acid)
Ethambutol: cell wall synthesis; specific to Mycobacteria Pyrazinamide: fatty acid synthesis Streptomycin: protein synthesis (acts only on extra-cellular bacteria)


Second-Line Drugs

para-Aminosalicylic acid, Ethionamide, Cycloserine, Fluoroquinolones, Kanamycin

para-Aminosalicylic acid: folate synthesis
Ethionamide: protein synthesis
Cycloserine: cell wall synthesis 
Fluoroquinolones: DNA replication 
Kanamycin: protein synthesis
248
Q

Multidrug-Resistant (MDR) and Extensively Drug-Resistant (XDR) TB

A

MDR TB caused by bacteria resistant to best TB drugs (at least the first line drugs) e.g isoniazid in combination with rifampin. Often resistant to additional drugs.

XDR TB caused by organisms resistant to isoniazid and rifampin, plus fluoroquinolones and ≥1 of the 3 injectable second-line drugs

249
Q

TB Prevention

A

Public Health Measures
- Infection control, PPD tests, X-rays, case registries, contact tracing, “Directly Observed Treatment” (DOT) etc.
- National TB center at NJMS

Prophylaxis
Isoniazid given to persons suspected to be infected

BCG Vaccination
Bacillus Calmette-Guerin
Widespread worldwide
Not routine in the US

Note: cattle strain - BCG vaccination is given worldwide but not in US. Believe to confer immunity in children but not maintained into adulthood.

  • Giving BCG Vaccination we cannot use the PPD test thus we lose a valuable diagnostic test.
250
Q

MYCOBACTERIUM LEPRAE ( another ancient human disease) and the name was changed to what?

A

Pt with limb deformities and Leprae bell. Patients had to carry bell to announce their presence in public areas. due to the stigma name was changed to Hansen’s Disease.

251
Q

M. leprae

Discuss characteristics of the bacteria, where it grows naturally.

Discuss Epidemiology
Discuss Pathogenesis
Immune response

A


Acid-fast bacillus, very slow-growing, obligate intracellular parasite, grown in armadillos, or in footpads of mice; no artificial growth medium known

Epidemiology

Not highly infectious—requires prolonged person-person contact (reservoir: humans)

Pathogenesis

Infects macrophages, Schwann cells; invades peripheral sensory nerves (patchy anesthesia)

Immunity
CMI, with DTH response to lepromin (similar to tuberculin)

252
Q

Clinical Presentation of Hansen’s Disease

Discuss the two forms of (Hansen’s disease “Leprosy”)

A

Tuberculoid Form - may stay or progress to Lepromatous form

Macules (flat areas with hairless centers). Indolent (causing little or no pain), usually non-contagious; CMI active

Lepromatous Form

CMI defective, massive growth of M. leprae, “leonine” appearance, extensive skin lesions and deformation

253
Q

Diagnosis and Treatment of Hansen’s Disease

Dx
Sociological issues
Tx

A
Diagnosis
Acid-fast bacilli in skin scrapings
Serological tests, clinical findings

Sociological issues—stigma & patient sensitivity

Treatment
- Dapsone + Rifampin very effective
- Clofazimine added for lepromatous disease to prevent resistant forms
254
Q

Tuberculoid vs Lepromatous Hansen’s Disease

A
Tuberculoid- NON-PROGRESSING DISEASE
Macular skin lesions
Few bacilli in lesions
CD4 Th cells
IL-2, IFN gamma, IL-12 promote healing
Lepromatous - PROGRESSIVE DISEASE
Nodular skin lesions
Abundant bacilli in lesions
CD 8 suppressor T cells
IL-4 and IL-10 suppress healing
255
Q

Declining Prevalence of Hansen’s Disease

A

“…a disease of the poorest of the poor…”

-WHO

256
Q

Can M. leprae be found in another reservoir?

A

In Southern US states population different strain of M. Leprae (compared to the one most common to produce infection globally) that also found in the natural armadillo population.

Perhaps handling/consuming armadillos led to this initiation of different strain in human population of Southern US states.

257
Q

“Atypical” Mycobacteria

What type of bacteria
where does it go
stain
disease they cause
resistent to \_\_\_

M. kansasii
M. avium-Intracellulare Complex
Atypical Mycobacteria are also known as

A

“Atypical” Mycobacteria - mostly affect immunocompromised individuals

Soil and environmental bacteria
All are acid-fast staining
Cause granulomatous diseases
Resistant to treatment

M. kansasii is photo-chromogenic and produces a slow TB-like disease

M. avium-Intracellulare Complex (MAC; non-chromogenic) causes TB-like disease in AIDS patients, MAC causes systemic infection as well

Atypical Mycobacteria are also known as MOTT for “Mycobacteria Other Than Tuberculosis”

Note: photo-chromogenic when grown in a slant and incubated in light will exhibit a yellow pigment.

258
Q

Actinomyces: Actinomycosis

What type, morph, stain, diagnostic physical observation.

Discuss Actinomyosis
Association
Dx
Tx

A

Gram +ve anaerobic bacilli, branched cells; NOT acid-fast

Commensals (discussed under “normal flora”); opportunistic pathogens

“Sulfur granule” (clumped bacterial colonies; no sulfur!) is diagnostic

Actinomycosis is an inflammation of mucosal surfaces eventually opening through skin; typically cervicofacial

Associated with poor dental hygiene, tooth extraction

Diagnosis: nature of lesion, slow progression, mucosal damage history, “sulfur granules”, culture

Treatment: Penicillin G

Note: Sulfur granule : clumped colonies of the bacteria (no sulfur actually present)

259
Q

Nocardia: Nocardiosis

Discuss the characteristics of Nocardia

Narcardiosis - discuss the two forms
Dx
Tx

A

Gm +ve, branched, aerobic, weakly acid-fast, soil bacteria

Opportunistic pathogen

Nocardiosis (Two forms)

Pulmonary (N. asteroides; acute broncho-pneumonia with dyspnea, cough, sputum; mainly in immune-compromised individuals)

Cutaneous (N. brasiliensis; pustules and lesions with sinuses at injured or exposed sites; e.g., “mycetoma”; “Madura Foot”)

Diagnosis: Gm +ve branched cells in sputum or aspirates

Treatment: sulfonamides

Note: Pulmonary- pulmonary disease similar to TB
Cutaneous- surface injury gives room for the opportunistic bacteria

260
Q

Management complications of PHARMACOLOGY OF THE ANTI-TUBERCULOSIS DRUGS

A
  1. Metabolic characteristics of Mycobacteria
  2. Lack of bactericidal activity of some drugs
  3. Toxicity which may preclude the use of or necessitate less than optimal doses
  4. Inadequacy of host defenses
  5. Development of resistant strains
261
Q

Primary drugs for tuberculosis

A
Isoniazid
Rifampin
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Streptomycin

Note: all can be given oral EXCEPT STREPTOMYCIN -IV

262
Q

Sample schedule of multi-drug therapy of TB

A

Intensive phase with e.g. four primary drugs for about 2 months and then the continuation phase with about two drugs (of the intensive phase) for about 4 more months

263
Q

Second-line drugs (11) for TB

A
p-aminosalicylic acid
cycloserine
ethionamide
viomycin
capreomycin
kanamycin
ciprofloxacin
clofazamine
rifabutin
clarithromycin
azithromycin
264
Q

Isoniazid structure

A

Hetero cyclic ring with N para carboxyl amino group

265
Q

INH Mechanism of Action

A
  • Interferes with M. tuberculosiscell wall synthesis by inhibiting mycolicacid synthesis
  • Bactericidal to growing cultures

•Bactericidal activity requires 2 steps:

  1. Activation of INH
  2. Complex of activated INH with NADH
  • Spectrum is limited primarily to M. tuberculosis (microbe does the activating)
  • KatG (is the gene that expresses the peroxidase enzyme) is a catalase–peroxidase enzyme
  • Isonicotinyl-NADH complex* is formed in the active site of an enoyl acyl carrier protein reductase (ACP reductase)
  • ACP reductase reduces the double bond at position 2 of a growing fatty acid chain linked to ACP (≥ 16 carbons)

Note: Isoniazid is a prodrug and must be activated by KatG (a bacterial catalase-peroxidase enzyme that in mycobacterium tuberculosis). KatG couples the isonicotinic acyl with NADH to form isonicotinic acyl-NADH complex.

Note: This complex* binds tightly to InhA (the enoyl-acyl carrier protein reductase), thereby blocking the natural enoyl-AcpM substrate and the action of fatty acid synthase. This process inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid, required for the mycobacterial cell wall.

266
Q

Resistance to INH (3)

A

Chromosomal mutations

  • Mutations in KatG catalase-peroxidase resulting in lowered affinity for isoniazid
  • Deletion of KatG
  • Mutations in InhA which lower affinity for NADH and result in decreased ability to covalently bond INH with NADH
267
Q

Pharmacokinetics of INH

Absorption–Distribution
Excretion

A

Absorption–Distribution:

  • Peak level of 3-5 μg/mL 1–2 hrs after oral administration
  • Vd = TBW; penetrates cells; enters pleural and ascitic fluid and caseous material; enters CSF and crosses the placenta

Excretion:
•75 to 95% of dose is excreted by the kidneys within 24 hrs, mostly as metabolites

Vd = Volume of distribution

268
Q

Metabolism of INH

A
R = rapid acetylators (autosomal dominant)
S = slow acetylators

INH —- *N-acetyl transferase + Acetyl CoA *—>Acetyl isoniazid —- Hydrolysis —>isonicotinic acid (not active) + Monoacetylhydrazine (is reactive and thought to cause hepatotoxicity)

Or

INH —–> Hydrazone (benign)

** = conjugation type rxn

Note: metabolism does not occur in hepatocytes

269
Q

INH Acetylator Phenotypes

A

R = rapid acetylators (autosomal dominant)

270
Q

Therapeutic Implications of Acetylator Status

Slowacetylators:

A

1.Exhibit greater risk for isoniazid toxicity
•Peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity.

  1. Exhibit more drug interactions
  2. More rapid anti-mycobacterial response

Clinically not significant: not Much of a difference in the overall rate of clearing and the relatively low incidence of the side effects. Thus we don’t sequence pt.s to determine what kind of acetylator they are.

271
Q

AdverseEffects of INH

Hypersensitivity
Peripheral Neuropathy (4)
CNS toxicity (2)
A

Hypersensitivity
• Various rashes (2%)

Peripheral Neuropathy
•increased excretion of pyridoxine
•axon terminal degeneration
•supplement with B6 to reduce risk
•slow acetylators are at more risk

CNS toxicity
•dizziness, ataxia
•convulsions (individuals with seizure disorders)

  • Increased of hepatotoxicity esp with patients who already have a deterioration of hepatic fxn e.g. drug users, alcoholics, etc.

Note: INH complexes with pyridoxine and induces its secretion. Decrease of Vit. B6 we get peripheral neuropathy.

272
Q

INH Induced Hepatotoxicity

•Age Dependent:

A

Increased incidence with age

49 2.3%

273
Q

Additional Risks of Slow Acetylation

Isoniazid Drug Interactions (3)
Drug-induced Lupus Erythmatosus (2)

A

Isoniazid Drug Interactions
•Phenytoin
•Disulfiram
•Oral anticoagulants

Drug-induced Lupus Erythmatosus (does not occur with INH)
•Procainamide
•Hydralazine

274
Q

Rifampin

Used for what populations/diseases
What undergoes the metabolism of the structure
Type of antibiotic (structure)
Profile

A

TB and can be used for meningicoccal carrier state.

A terminal end methyl undergoes enterohepatic metabolism

macrocyclic antibiotic
MW = 823
highly lipid soluble

275
Q

Rifampin Mechanism of Action

MOA
Type of toxicity and how can we take advantage
How is resistance achieved

A

Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase leading to suppression of chain initiation

  • Selective toxicity is conferred by the poor affinity for the mammalian enzyme; thus we can use small doses to affect microbe and not humans.
  • Resistance occurs when binding site on polymerase is altered so that rifampin cannot bind to the ß-subunit (chromosomal mutation)
276
Q

Spectrum of Activity of Rifampin (2)

A
  • Effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosisas well as some atypical strains
  • Prophylaxis of Meningococcal and H. influenzaeinfections
277
Q

Rifampin Pharmacokinetics

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion
Half life
A
  • Well absorbed orally; absorption delayed by p-aminosalicylic acid
  • Well distributed; effective concentrations in the CNS; Vd = 160% of body weight
  • Undergoes enterohepatic circulation; de-acetylated form is not absorbed from the intestine
  • Primarily biliary excretion
  • Plasma half-life is 2–5 hrs and may by prolonged in hepatic insufficiency

Note: p-aminosalicylic acid not really used anymore. And Rifampin can cross fatty tissue and enter cells well.

278
Q

Adverse Reactions of Rifampin (6) and what is the overall incidence?

A
  1. Overall incidence is about 4%
  2. Most common are GI complaints (1–2%)
  3. Mild, self-limiting rash (0.8%)
  4. Asymptomatic elevation of liver enzymes (SGOT, pyruvate kinase)
  5. Hepatitis with jaundice ( 1200 mg/day)
    a. Allergy: drug fever, flu-like symptoms in 20% of patients
    b. Eosinophilia, tubulointerstitialnephritis
    c. Rarely thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia
  6. Colors all bodily excretions and secretions orange-red
    - Pt.s should be advised of this. Tears, sweat, saliva, urine. etc.
279
Q

Rifampin Drug Interactions

A

Drug Interactions

Rifampin is an inducer of microsomal MFO.

Decreases the effectiveness of:
oral contraceptives, methadone (prevent withdrawal symptoms), oral anticoagulants, quinidine, digitoxin, ketoconazole, glucocorticoids propranolol, oral hypoglycemics, metoprolol

Note: Many drugs are metabolized by CP450 - a mixed function oxidase. Rifampin induces the production of more CP450 enzymes leading to a decrease in the effectiveness of drugs that undergo hepatometabolism with CP450.

280
Q

Discuss TB drugs mono/poly therapy

Pyrazinamide

Route
Effect on bacteria
Distribution quality
Adverse effect
Active metabolite
A

All of the TB drugs we do not give as a monotherapy because with a very short period of time a resistant TB will be selected.

Prophylaxis is the only time we use mono therapy for e.g. INH for close contact members of a confirmed TB infected person

Bactericidal
Orally active
Well distributed
Hepatotoxic (used to be very prevalent mostly due to because was given at such a high dose but now given with rifampin and now less prevalent)

The microbe removes the amine of Pyrazinamide which becomes the active produce Pyrazionic acid.

Pyrazinoic acid (appears in our blood, gets hydroxylated and excreted like this) produced in mycobacterium; PYRAZINOIC ACID IS THE ACTIVE BACTERICIDAL PRODUCT

Pyrazinoic acid appears in our blood and gets hydroxylated (5-hydroxy pyrazinoic acid). Metabolite (which is what gets excreted) interferes with uric acid excretion thus must monitor patients who suffer from gout and assess pain.

281
Q

Ethambutol

Route
Effect on bacteria
only affective against ____
MOA

A

Ethambutol (orally active)
•Bacteriostatic
•Only effective against Mycobacteria
•Inhibits arabinosyl transferase which is necessary for polymerization of arabinogalactan cell wall components

282
Q

Ethambutol Pharmacokinetics

Route
Concentration in body
Excretion
Half life

A
  • Well absorbed orally
  • Concentrated in red blood cells: RBC/plasma concentration ratio is 2:1
  • Excreted in urine; 50% as parent compound
  • Half-life is 8 hrs
283
Q

Adverse Effects of Ethambutol (3)

A
  1. Optic neuritis–diminished visual acuity;
    inability to perceive green; dose dependent;
    unilateral
  2. Allergic reactions are rare: dermatitis,
    arthralgia
  3. Hyperuricemia

Note: Optic neuritis - evaluate their vision and do each eyes separately. Difficult when dealing with a child bc of their knowledge of Snell’s chart.

284
Q

Meningitis is inflammation of the membranes (meninges) that cover the brain and spinal cord and can be caused by bacteria, viruses and fungi. Bacterial meningitis is a life threatening disease, which must be promptly diagnosed and treated.

A

Informational

285
Q

Dx of Meningitis

Signs and Symptoms - > 2yo, infants

Lab detection (3). Which one provides the definitive positive Dx?

A

Diagnosis

A. Signs and symptoms
1. > 2 years old – high fever and headache (90%), nuchal rigidity (60%), vomiting, confusion, sleepiness, seizures, sensitivity to light (coma and death within hours)

  1. infants – classic symptoms often absent or difficult to detect (slow, inactive, irritable, feeding poorly, vomiting)

B. Direct Gram stain of CSF often reveals bacteria. Reliable latex bead agglutination assays available for detecting bacterial antigens in CSF. Bacteria must be cultured for positive diagnosis.

286
Q

Changes in the CSF predicts what pathogen are responsible for the meningitis. Explain which categories to look for.

A

Bacteria: Cell type and count - PMNs, 1-5K ; Glucose - Reduced ; Protein- 100 to 2,000 mg/dL ; Lactate- elevated

Viruses: Cell type and count- Lymphocytes, 50-500 ; Glucose - Normal ; Protein- 10 to 100 mg/dL ; Lactate- Normal

Yeast and Tb = Cell type is mixed and count 10-100 ; Glucose - Reduced ; Protein- 100-500 ; Lactate- elevated

Note: with inflammation it allows for WBCs to get in. Normal CSF will have 0-10 Cell counts of WBCs. Also the grand number of PMNs accounts for the puss in the brain.

Cell count: per microliter.

287
Q

*99% decrease in incidence in US between 1989 and 1995 as a result of vaccination with HiB

A

Informational

288
Q

Common features of major causes (N. meningitides, S. pneumoniae, H. influenza) of meningitis (2)

A
  1. Antiphagocytic capsule

2. Serum resistance

289
Q

Neisseria meningitides

A. Ecology -

B. Route of spread

C. Causative Agent

D. Encapsulated, antigenic structure based on ______

E. Virulence factors: (5)

A

A. Ecology - normal flora of nasopharynx of humans (5-10%).

B. Infection spreads from nasopharynx  blood  meninges

C. Causative Agent - gram negative diplococci

D. Encapsulated, antigenic structure based on capsule

  1. A, B, C, D, X, Y, Z, 29E, W135 (capsular polysaccharides)
  2. A, B, C, Y and W135 most often associated with disease

E. Virulence factors:

  1. Capsule – inhibits phagocytosis
  2. Serum resistance
  3. IgA protease – adhesion
  4. Pili – adhesion
  5. LOS – lipooligosaccharides (~ LPS), but highly endotoxic and often sialylated
290
Q

Neisseria meningitides

Pathogenesis (3)
Lab Dx (3)
A

Pathogenesis - highly contagious disease with significant mortality rate in a closed population.

  1. Meningococcemia and/or meningitis can cause fulminate with death in a few hours in a previously healthy individual. Meningococcemia can be associated with petechial rash or purpura (skin hemorrhage)
  2. Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome (massive hemorrhage and adrenal necrosis)
  3. Sequelae: hearing loss, mental retardation

G. Lab Diagnosis

  1. Gram stain of CSF
  2. CSF and blood culture
    a. Chocolate agar - 5% CO2
    i. Small, colorless, nonhemolytic, oxidase positive colonies
    ii. Fermentation (glucose, maltose positive)
    iii. Agglutination test with specific antisera
    b. Thayer-Martin or GC-Lect agar for isolation from nasopharyngeal carriers
  3. Latex agglutination to detect antigens in CSF–This test is not performed if glucose, protein and cell count are in normal range
291
Q

Neisseria meningitides

Epidemiology (4)
Treatment
Prevention (2)

A

Epidemiology (respiratory secretions)
1. Sporadic cases

  1. Epidemics
    a. Associated with rise in carrier state (5-10% to 70-80%)
    b. Prevalent in closed groups (military barracks, college dorms)
    c. Meningitis Belt in Sub-Saharan Africa (dry seasons)
  2. Terminal complement component (C5-C9) deficiency elevates incidence of infection
  3. Neonates resistant (maternal antibody protects), but young children are at risk because they lack the protective antibody

I. Treatment - Penicillin I.V.

J. Prevention

  1. Chemoprophylaxis of carriers: Rifampin, Ciprofloxacin
  2. Vaccination with quadravalent vaccine (Gp A, C, Y, W135) B is not immunogenic. Used by military and now recommended in colleges. New Jersey now requires all college freshmen to be vaccinated.
292
Q

Haemophilus influenza

Ecology
Type of Organism
Antigenic Structure
Pathogenesis

A

A. Ecology – Normal flora of the nasopharynx (unencapsulated 35-90% of population); humans only; most frequent cause of meningitis in children under 4 years of age; peak incidence is 6 months.

B. The Organism
1. Gram negative, cocco-bacillary, encapsulated, frequently pleomorphic

C. Antigenic Structure

  1. 6 Types of polysaccharide capsule: a to f (type b associated with 90% disease)
  2. Nontypables may be seen, but rarely cause disease

D. Pathogenesis

  1. URI (upper respiratory infection), sinusitis, pneumonia and otitis media (second to S. pneumoniae), septicemia, meningitis, conjunctivitis, epiglotitis
  2. Sequelae can occur after meningitis (similar to N. meningitides)
293
Q

Haemophilus influenza

Laboratory Diagnosis (3)
Epidemiology (2)
Tx (2)
Prevention (2)

A

Laboratory Diagnosis

  1. Gram stain of CSF
  2. CSF and Blood Culture - chocolate agar, 5% CO2
    Requires X factor (tetrapyrrol compounds - hemin - for cytochrome synthesis) and V factor (NAD for respiration)
  3. Latex agglutination to detect capsular antigen in CSF

Epidemiology

  1. Spread by droplet - may also cause pharyngitis, sinusitis and otitis media
  2. Sporadic, starting to become more common in adults (especially pneumonia). Meningitis in children in US has become uncommon because of vaccination.

G. Treatment

  1. Ceftriaxone – adults; cefotaxime – children;
  2. Chloramphenicol

H. Prevention

  1. Chemoprophylaxis – rifampin to close contacts of index case (i.e. day care center)
  2. PRP capsular conjugate vaccine (Hib vaccine) for children two months and older
294
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Ecology
The organism type (3)
Antigenic Structure (2)
Pathogenesis (3)

A

A. Ecology – humans; normal flora of nasopharynx (5-70%)

B. The Organism

  1. Gram positive diplococci, lancet shaped
  2. -Hemolytic on blood agar
  3. Capsule - prevents phagocytosis

C. Antigenic Structure

  1. 85 Polysaccharide capsule types (23 types responsible for 85% of disease)
  2. Nontypables of low or no virulence

D. Pathogenesis

  1. Loss of natural resistance
  2. Lobar pneumonia, otitis media, septicemia, meningitis (most common cause in individuals over 30 years of age
  3. Sequelae similar to N. meningitidis
295
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Lab Dx (5)
Epidemiology (5)
Tx (3)
Prevention (2)

A

Laboratory Diagnosis

  1. Gram stain of CSF
  2. CSF and Blood culture
  3. Small, grayish, -hemolytic colonies
  4. Optochin-sensitive and bile soluble
  5. Oxacillin disc screen for relative or complete resistance to penicillin

Epidemiology

  1. Respiratory secretions
  2. Peak winter and spring
  3. Most common cause in adults > 30 year of age, often associated with head trauma
  4. In the U.S., S. pneumoniae is becoming more common cause of meningitis in children than H. influenzae due to Hib vaccine
  5. At risk are: asplenic individuals and individuals with sickle cell anemia (which damages the spleen) and humoral immunity, alcoholics

G. Treatment

  1. Penicillin - Resistant strains in Africa, Europe and appearing in US.
  2. Ceftriaxione;
  3. Vancomycin

H. Prevention: Polyvalent vaccine (Pneumovax) and congugate vaccine (Prevnar)

  1. Polyvalent vaccine – compromised host and individuals > 65
  2. Conjugate vaccine – children
296
Q

Neonatal Meningitis

Discuss Group B -hemolytic Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae)

A
  1. Normal flora: GU and lower GI (25-40% of females)
  2. Early onset - first five days of life
    a. Pregnancy problems
    b. 25-40% of females have this organism as part of the normal vaginal flora
  3. Late onset - 7 days to 3 months
    a. Preobstetric problems
  4. Diagnosis - discussed under gram positive cocci lecture
  5. Treatment – Penicillin during labor for women at risk or GBS + at 33-36 weeks.
297
Q

Neonatal Meningitis

Discuss E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes

What two are missing from the group of Group B -hemolytic Streptococcus (Streptococcus agalactiae), E. coli and Listeria monocytogenes?

A

B. E. coli (80% of meningitis caused by E. coli is due to a single strain, K1).

C. Listeria monocytogenes

  1. Gram positive rod
    a. Grows at 4oC
    b. Faintly -hemolytic
    c. Tumbling motility at room temperature, not at 37oC
  2. Ecology - found in many animals
  3. Intrauterine infection
    a. Early onset syndrome - intrauterine sepsis and fetal death prior to/after delivery
    b. Late onset syndrome - no obstetric complications
  4. Meningitis in the neonate and the immunosuppressed
  5. Treatment -Penicillin
  6. Epidemiology – unknown, recent cases in California associated with eating unpasteurized goat cheese

D. Staphylococcus aureus, or Enterococci

298
Q

CASE STUDY
A 19-month-old child is brought to the ER following a seizure. His mother says that he had a cold for 2 or 3 days with a cough, congestion, and low-grade fever, but today became much worse. He has been fussy and inconsolable, would not eat and slept most of the morning. He then had two grand-mal seizures (no previous history of seizures). His mother reports that he has not received all of his immunizations, but can’t remember which ones he has had. His temperature is 102oF, his pulse is 110 bpm, and he appears very ill. He does not respond to your voice and grimaces when you try to bend his neck. His skin is without rash. His WBC cell count is elevated and predominantly PMNs. If you did a lumbar puncture, you would probably reveal:

a) aseptic culture
b) gram positive diplococci that form -hemolytic colonies
c) gram negative diplococci that ferment glucose and maltose
d) gram positive chains that form -hemolytic colonies
e) gram negative coccobacilli that require hemin

A

Answer

299
Q

Meningitis resulting from shunt infections (6)

A
A. Coagulase negative staphylococci
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Gram negative rods
D. Enterococci
E. Candida
F. Corynebacteria
300
Q

Causes of Chronic Meningititis (8)

A
A. Mycobacteria tuberculosis
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Histoplasma capsulatum
E. Blastomyces dermatitidis
F. Candida albicans
G. Borrelia burgdorferi
H. Cysticercosis (T. solium)
301
Q

Which is meningitis is more severe - bacterial or viral?

A

Bacterial is more sever with a rapid increase of high risk patient and mortality of 35-40%

Viral is less sever

302
Q

Meningitis: Signs & Symptoms

> 2 yrs (5)
Infants (5)

A
Individuals > 2 yrs
• High fever (103-104)
• Headache (excruciating pain)
• Nuchal rigidity
• Other: vomiting, confusion, sleepiness,
seizures, sensitivity to light
• Coma and death in hours

Infants
• Classic symptoms absent or difficult to detect
(slow, inactive, irritable, feeding poorly, vomiting)

Note: If someone doesn’t exhibit these signs doesn’t not allow to rule out meningitis. Symptoms hold true about 65% of the time.

303
Q

Diagnosis of meningitis

A

• Examination of CSF
o Direct Gram stain - no stain then viral; stain —> bacterial or fungal
o WBC type & number
o Glucose concentration compared to blood
o Protein levels
o Latex bead agglutination

• Confirmation: lab culture of CSF & blood (takes a couple of days for the culture)

Note: Bacterial glucose will be low because of glycolysis

304
Q

Compare/Contrast

Bacterial/Viral criteria for meningitis

WBCs, glucose, lactate, proteins

A
Bacterial
- elevated PMNs and proteins
-  glucose and lactate
Viral
- elevated lymphocytes
- normal glucose and lactate
305
Q

Causes of Bacterial Meningitis by age group: Was a the major determinant in the type of bacteria that causes meningitis in the different age groups?

Newborn (few days of age)
Infants and Children
Adolescents and Young Children
Older Adults

Note the incidence of 5 bacteria discussed in class to cause meningitis.

A

Location: Location, location, location

Adults - nasopharynx and into blood
Newborns - usually from the urogenital tract of mother

Newborn/Neonates (less than on month):
Streptococcus agalactiae (45%) 
Listeria monocytogenes (2-10%)
Haemophilus influenza 0-3%
Streptococcus pneumoniae 0-5%
Neisseria meningitides
306
Q

Children and Adult Bacterial Meningitis

How was the Hib vaccine shaped which vaccines are more common in certain population?

A

N. meningitidis - adolescents and young adults

H. influenzae - most common in young children (where vaccine Hib is not used)

S. pneumoniae - most common in young children (where Hib vaccine used) and in adults

Hib vaccine so effective because H. influenza type B was the most common serotype to cause meningitis.

307
Q

Adult Bacterial Meningitis

What are common evasion/resistant mechanisms of bacteria that more commonly cause Adult Bacterial Meningitis.

A

N. meningitidis, H. influenzae, S. pneumonias

Common Properties

  1. Anti-phagocytic capsule
  2. Serum resistance - travel via blood is the way bacteria get to CNS thus being serum resistant is bad for host.

Capsule can block opsonization (phagocytosis) by both C3b and IgG (if capsule is not the Ag)!!

Note: Gram + are more serum resistant because do not have LPS which induces opsonization.

308
Q

Neisseria meningitides

Where is normal flora
Mode of travel
what type of bacteria/morph?
Discuss encapsulation and natural immunity.

A
  • Normal flora: Nasopharynx (5-10% carriers)
  • Nasopharynx –> blood–> meninges
  • Gram -, diplococcus

• Encapsulated
- > 15 distinct Ag structure, based on capsule
o A, B, C, Y, W135 associate with disease
o 60-90% adults protective Ab to more than 1 type

309
Q

Virulence factors of Neisseria meningitides (4)

A
  • Capsule – inhibits phagocytosis
  • IgA protease – adhesion
  • Pili – adhesion
  • LOS – lipooligosaccharide (~LPS), (highly endotoxic & often sialylated)

Simpler sugars in extracellular space- missing O antigen and has a lower MW O chain.

310
Q

Pathogenesis of Neisseria meningitides.

What are notable physical signs (3) and sequelae (2)

A

Meningococcemia, meningitis

  • Petechial rash & Purpura (skin hemorrhage)
  • Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
    (massive hemorrhage & necrosis of adrenals)

• Sequelae: Hearing loss, mental retardation

Note: Petechia is almost always related to bacteremia. Purpura is massive skin hemorrhaging.

311
Q

Dx of Neisseria meningitides.

Tests/Dx criteria (5)

A

• Gram stain of CSF: Gram (-) diplococcus
• CSF & blood: chocolate agar, 5% C02
• Small colonies, oxidase positive
• Fermentation test: glucose & maltose
• Agglutination test (CSF & culture)
Diagnosis

312
Q

Epidemiology of Neisseria meningitides.

Transmission
Pattern of appearance
Epidemics
Take note of what deficiency?
Which special population are resistant/non and why?
A

•Transmission: Respiratory
secretions

  • Sporadic cases - occurring at irregular intervals or only in a few places; scattered or isolated.
  • Epidemics
  • Closed population (military, dorms)
  • Rise in carrier state (5-10% increased to  70-80%)

•Terminal complement component (C5-C9)
- deficiency elevates incidence of infection

•Neonates resistant (maternal Ab), but young
children at risk (lack protective Ab)

313
Q

Tx, prevention (2) of Neisseria meningitides

A

• Treatment – Antibiotic

• Prevention
o Chemoprophylaxis of carriers:
rifampin, ciprofloxacin

o Vaccination: Quadravalent vaccine
(A, C, Y, W135) used by military &
recommended in college (Group B is not immunogenic)

Note: We now have a pentavalent vaccine for all 5 groups.

314
Q

Haemophilus influenza

Normal flora
Type/morph
Antigenic structure

A

• Normal flora: Nasopharynx
(unencapsulated 35-90%)

• Gram - , encapsulated, cocci-bacillus

• Antigenic structure
o 6 Capsule types (a-f); virulent = type b (90%)
o Non-typables rarely cause disease

Vaccine for capsule type B is very effective

315
Q

Pathogenesis of Haemophilus influenza

A

• Septicemia, meningitis,
conjunctivitis, epiglottitis (croup)

• Pneumonia & otitis media
(2nd most common to S. pneumonias)

• Sequelae: ~ N. meningitides (i.e. Hearing loss, mental retardation)

316
Q

Dx of Haemophilus influenza (3)

A

• Gram stain CSF

• CSF & blood culture:
o Chocolate agar, 5% C02
o Large, flat, colorless – grey colonies
o Require factors X (hemin) & V (NAD, NADP)

• Latex agglutination -patient’s CSF, serum or urine with the coated latex particles (coated with Ag) and observe for agglutination. Agglutination/clumping of the beads in any of the dilutions is considered a positive result, confirming that the patient has produced the pathogen-specific antibody.

317
Q

Epidemiology of Haemophilus influenza

Transmission
pattern of appearance

A
  • Transmission: respiratory secretions
  • Sporadic – children
  • Hib once account for 98% H. influenzae meningitis in children
318
Q

Treatment & prevention (2) of Haemophilus influenza

Discuss the pattern of reports of meningitis.

A

• Treatment
o Antibiotic

• Prevention
o Chemoprophylaxis: rifampin to close contacts (i.e. day care center) of index case
o Conjugate vaccine - children older than 2 months
- conjugated with protein carrier

Note: with the introduction of Hib vaccine in 1992 the incidence of total serious Hib decreased but their was a slight surge with unvaccinated children from 1997-2003. This was due to the now discredited claim of vaccine assoc. to autism. In 2003 the catch-up campaign was initiated to protect a generation of children, born between 1997 and 2003, who are unvaccinated or only partially vaccinated against measles.

319
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Normal flora
type/morph
hemolytic pattern
antigenic structure

A
  • Normal flora: nasopharynx (5-70%)
  • Gram +, lancet-shaped, diplococci
  • alpha Hemolytic

• Antigenic structure
o 85 capsule types (23 85% disease)
o Non-typables of low or no virulence

Note: recall this is most frequent cause of otitis media

320
Q

Pathology of Streptococcus pneumonias (3)

A
  • Lobar pneumonia, otitis media
  • Meningitis - most common cause in adults > 30 yrs
  • Sequelae: ~ N. meningitides (i.e. Hearing loss, mental retardation)
321
Q

Diagnosis of Streptococcus pneumonias (2)

A
  • Gram stain CSF (Gram +)
  • CSF and blood culture
  • small, greyish, a-hemolytic colonies
  • Bile soluble (activates autolysins)
  • Optochin sensitive
  • Oxacillin disc screen (penicillin resistance) : is a narrow-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic of the penicillin class

Note: if they come in with otitis media penicillin may be appropriate but if meningitis is clinically presented hit ‘em with the big guns.

322
Q

Epidemiology of Streptococcus pneumonias

Mode of Transmission
Temperate or constitutive incidence?
Associated with _____.
Which is more common in US to cause meningitis; S. pneumoniae or H. influenza?
What population is at risk of Streptococcus pneumonias?

A

Transmission: respiratory secretions

  • Winter and spring
  • Often associated with head trauma
  • In US, S. pneumoniae > H. influenzae as cause of meningitis (Hib vaccine)
  • At risk: asplenic, sickle cell anemia (sickle cell anemia damages spleen), defects in humoral immunity, alcoholism
323
Q

Treatment & Prevention (2) for Streptococcus pneumonias

A

• Treatment
- Penicillin (except resistant strains)

• Prophylaxis
- Polyvalent vaccine (Pneumovax)
– at risk, > 65
- Congugate vaccine (Prevnar 13 (capsules)) in 2000 –

324
Q

Neonatal Meningitis

Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS) “Group B streptococcus”

Normal flora
Time periods of incidence
rate of cases and mortality %

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS) “Group B streptococcus”

catalase-, Gm +, beta hemolytic

• Normal flora: GU & lower GI
(25 - 40% of females)
• Early-onset (0-5 days) infection (most)
• Late-onset (1 - 12 wks) infection

• 1-3 cases/1000 births; 30 - 60% mortality

Note: largest % of total cases is the early onset
Note: Most is that they were exposed during birth or the less common that one of the handlers exposure.

325
Q

Maternal to Infant Transmission of GBS

Discuss the % break up of transmission and symptomatic to asymptomatic newborns.

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS) “Group B streptococcus”

50/50 non colonized newborn: colonized newborn

Of the colonized newborn 98% asymptomatic and 2% Early-onset sepsis, pneumonia, meningitis

326
Q

Neonatal Meningitis: Streptococcus agalactiae

Dx
Tx
Prophylaxis

A

• Diagnosis
- Group B agglut’n

• Treatment – Penicillin

• Prophylaxis – Penicillin
(before and during labor of mothers at risk or
GBS positive in vagina or rectum)

327
Q

Neonatal Meningitis: Listeria monocytogenes

Type/morph
grows under what condition
special physical property
Onset of infection
Population at risk
Tx
A
  • Gram (+) bacillus
  • Grows unusually at 4oC *
  • Tumbling motility at 21oC** (not 37oC)
  • Early & late onset infection
  • Important cause in immunosuppressed (also in the elderly)
  • Treatment - penicillin

Note: Almost any bacteria will not grow at 4oC. E.g refrigerated soft cheese (non pasteurized) consumption can be an issue

Note: Motility at room temperature 12oC is an easy Diagnostic

328
Q

Neonatal Meningitis: Escherichia coli

Common strain
Other two genera/species

A

• Strain K1 - 80% neonatal septicemia & meningitis

Staphylococcus aureus
Enterococcus

** Not on EXAM

329
Q

Meningitis from Shunt Infections (6)

A
  • Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Gram-negative rods
  • Enterococcus
  • Candida (Fungi)
  • Corynebacterium

Note: Other pathogens found in normal flora of nasopharynx of adults children and exposure from UG/GI in neonates may get into bloodstream and into CNS

330
Q

Chronic Meningitis (slow-growing agents) (8)

A
  • Mycobacteria tuberculosis
  • Cryptococcus neoformans (AIDS patients)
  • Coccidiodies immitis
  • Histoplama capsulatum
  • Blastomyces dermatitidis
  • Candida albicans
  • Borrelia burgdorferi
  • Cysticercosis (T. sodium)

Note: Much more difficult to diagnose and if given the opportunity may cause meningitis. Steroid injections into CSF (poor quality control) led to contraction of a type of fungus —> meningitis. Much more difficult to treat parasites and fungi is much more difficult because they are more like human cells.