Microbiology Unit 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Sterilization

A

Destruction or removal of all viable microorganisms (including endospores and viruses); absolute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Decontamination

A

Removal of organic matter off surfaces (Ex. wiping off the counter after eating)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Disinfection

A

killing, inhibiting, or removal of pathogenic microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Disinfectants

A

used on inanimate objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sanitization

A

reduction of microbial population to levels deemed safe (based on public health standards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antisepsis

A

prevention of infection of living tissue (can be seen on the back of hand sanitizers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Antiseptics (germicides)

A

chemical agents that kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms when applied to tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Chemotherapy

A

use of chemicals to kill or inhibit growth of microorganisms within host tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Moist Heat

A

method of destroying bacteria, fungi, and viruses; better penetration power because it uses water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Boiling

A

part of Moist Heat; will not always destroy endospores so does not necessarily sterilize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pasteurization

A

part of Moist Heat; controlled heating at temperatures well below boiling; used for wine, milk, and other beverages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which moist heat method kills pathogens present and slows spoilage?

A

pasteurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Autoclave

A

part of Moist Heat; effective against all types of microbes (sterilization)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What temperature, in degrees Celsius, must be reached in an autoclave to effectively sterilize?

A

121

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False: Autoclave time for endospores is the same as for vegetative cells.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Dry Heat Sterilization

A

less effective than moist heat sterilization; requires higher temperatures and longer exposure times; items subjected to 160-170 degrees C for 2 to 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Flaming

A

a method of dry heat sterilization (used in lab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Freezing

A

stops microbial reproduction due to lack of liquid water; some microorganisms can die by ice crystal disruption of the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What temperature is generally required for the freezing method?

A

-20 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Refrigeration

A

slows microbial growth and reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What temperature is generally required for refrigeration (slowing of microbial growth and reproduction)?

A

4 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Ultraviolet (UV) Radiation

A

non-ionizing radiation; causes thymine dimers in DNA; has poor penetrating power and is limited to disinfection of surfaces, air, and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ionizing Radiation

A

beta, gamma, X-rays; penetrates deep into objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Filtration

A

reduces microbial populations; sterilization of heat-sensitive solutions; uses membrane filter with defined pore size and also used for air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Antimicrobial agent

A

natural or synthetic chemical that kills or inhibits growth of microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

-cidal

A

suffix indicating a chemical agent that kills pathogens and many-nonpathogens, but not necessarily endospores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

-static

A

suffix indicating a chemical agent that inhibits growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Minimal Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

A

`lowest concentration of drug that inhibits growth of pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Minimal Lethal Concentration (MLC)

A

lowest concentration of drug that kills pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dilution Susceptibility Test

A

used to detect the smallest amount of agent needed to inhibit the growth of a test organism and the broth from which a microbe cant be recovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In the Dilution Susceptibility Test, which concentration is in the first two tubes with minimum turbidity?

A

MIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In the Disk Diffusion Tests, what does the line between growth and no growth mean?

A

MIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the factors influencing the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent?

A

population size, population composition, concentration or intensity of the agent, duration of exposure, temperature, and local environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Kirby-Bauer Method

A

used to determine the effectiveness of certain antimicrobials; relationship between zone diameter and degree of microbial resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Antigen

A

any molecule or substance that stimulates the immune system to make antibodies against it and activates immune memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vaccine

A

substance given to a host (usually by injection) that induces artificial active immunity (acts as an antigen, but doesn’t cause disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Vaccination/Immunization

A

inoculation of a host with a vaccine to stimulate protective immunity; sometimes a booster is required to enhance/restore protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the spike protein on the SARS-CoV-2 virus?

A

an antigen

39
Q

Covid-19 mRNA vaccine

A

made using mRNA that gives cells instructions on how to make the spike protein on the surface of the virus.

40
Q

Covid-19 Viral Vector Vaccine

A

genetic material from COVID-19 virus is inserted into an unrelated, harmless virus.

41
Q

Herd Immunity

A

resistance in a population to a pathogen (disease) as a result of the immunity of a large portion of the population

42
Q

greater

A

the more highly infectious a pathogen, the ______ the proportion of immune individuals needed to prevent disease spread

43
Q

Antimicrobial drugs

A

compounds used to treat disease by destroying or inhibiting the growth of pathogenic microbes within a host (in vivo)

44
Q

semi-synthetics

A

chemically modified antibiotics

45
Q

True

A

True or False: many antibiotics are discovered in soil.

46
Q

Selective toxicity

A

ability of drug to kill or inhibit pathogen while damaging the host as little as possible

47
Q

Therapeutic (effective) dose

A

drug level required for clinical treatment

48
Q

toxic dose

A

drug level at which drug becomes too toxic for patient (produces side effects)

49
Q

therapeutic index

A

ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose; the larger it is, the better

50
Q

narrow-spectrum drugs

A

attack only a few different pathogens

51
Q

broad-spectrum drugs

A

attack many different pathogens

52
Q

cidal agent

A

agent that kills microbes

53
Q

static agent

A

agent that inhibits growth of microbes

54
Q

side effects

A

undesirable effects of drugs on host cells

55
Q

growth factor analogs

A

structurally similar to an essential growth factor; disrupt cell metabolism

56
Q

Isoniazid

A

narrow spectrum growth factor analog; cidal if actively growing, static if dormant; treats tuberculosis

57
Q

Quinolones

A

interfere with bacterial DNA gyrase; prevent DNA packaging

58
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

narrow spectrum growth factor analog; cidal

59
Q

Growth factor analogs and quinolones

A

Which groups are synthetic antimicrobial drugs?

60
Q

Macrolides

A

target the 50S ribosomal subunit

61
Q

Tetracyclines

A

target the 30S ribosomal subunit

62
Q

Lipid biosynthesis disruptor

A

targets fatty acid biosynthesis

63
Q

Erythromycin

A

broad spectrum macrolide; static

64
Q

Tetracycline

A

broad spectrum tetracycline; static; can treat acne

65
Q

Platensimycin

A

broad spectrum lipid biosynthesis disruptor; static; effective against MRSA and VRE

66
Q

Macrolides, Tetracyclines, and Lipid Biosynthesis Disruptors

A

Which groups are antibiotics from Bacteria?

67
Q

Beta-Lactam antibiotics from fungi

A

include penicillins and cephalosporins; target cell wall synthesis ; effective primarily against gram-positive bacteria; cidal against actively growing cells

68
Q

Penicillin is produced by what group of microbes?

A

Fungi

69
Q

Penicillin mechanism of action

A

cidal; inhibit transpeptidation enzymes involved in cross-linking the polysaccharide chains of peptidoglycan; activate cell wall lytic enzymes

70
Q

Antimicrobial drug resistance

A

acquired ability of a microorganism to resist the effects of a chemotherapeutic agent to which it is normally sensitive

71
Q

Using antimicrobials does not ______ resistance but _______ for those that are resistant

A

cause; selects

72
Q

Four mechanisms of bacterial resistance

A

target modification, preventing entrance, inactivation and effex pumps

73
Q

Origin of drug resistance

A

natural immunity genes, spontaneous mutations, location of resistance genes

74
Q

transmission of drug resistance

A

horizontal gene transfer (transformation, conjugation, transduction)

75
Q

Methods of preventing emergence of drug resistance

A

give drug in high concentrations to destroy susceptible, use antimicrobials only when necessary, take full course of antimicrobial, use narrow spectrum antimicrobials, give combination of unrelated drugs

76
Q

Any change in appearance, smell, or taste of a food that makes it unpalatable to the consumer, may be safe to eat

A

food spoilage

77
Q

Food composition and spoilage for carbohydrates

A

mold predominates, degrades food by hydrolysis, ergotism (disease caused by Claviceps purpurea toxins)

78
Q

food composition and spoilage for proteins or fats

A

bacterial growth predominates, putrefication (anaerobic breakdown of proteins, foul-smelling amine compounds)

79
Q

List of intrinsic factors for food spoilage

A

pH, presence and availability of water, oxidation-reduction potential, physical structure, antimicrobial substances

80
Q

pH for food spoilage

A

low pH favors yeast and mold

81
Q

presence and availability of water for food spoilage

A

lower water activity inhibits microbial growth

82
Q

oxidation-reduction potential for food spoilage

A

lower redox (less oxygen) favors growth of anaerobic bacteria

83
Q

physical structure for food spoilage

A

grinding and mixing promotes microbial growth

84
Q

antimicrobial substances for food spoilage

A

coumarins, lysozyme, allicin, etc.

85
Q

list of extrinsic factors for food spoilage

A

temperature, relative humidity, atmosphere

86
Q

temperature for food spoilage

A

lower temperatures retard microbial growth

87
Q

relative humidity for food spoilage

A

higher levels of humidity promote microbial growth

88
Q

atmosphere for food spoilage

A

oxygen promotes growth

89
Q

Modified Atmosphere Packaging (MAP)

A

use of shrink wrap and vacuum technologies to package food in controlled atmospheres

90
Q

temperature to know for refrigeration in food preservation

A

4 degrees C

91
Q

temperature to know for freezing in food preservation

A

-20 degrees C

92
Q

What is the danger zone for food preservation

A

5-60 degrees C

93
Q

What are high temperature methods for food preservation?

A

cooking and holding at high temperatures, canning, pasteurization