Microbiology Review Flashcards

1
Q

What are 5 normally sterile sites in the body?

A
  • CNS
  • CVS
  • Lower respiratory tract
  • Bone & Joint
  • Genitourinary tract (except urethra and vagina)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are common bacteria that cause otitis media?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are common bacteria that cause pneumonia?

A
Community 
- Streptococcus pneumoniae 
- Haemophilus influenzae 
- Staphylococcus aureus 
Atypicals
- Legionella pneumophila
- Mycoplasma pneumoniae 
- Chlamydia pneumoniae 
Tuberculosis
- Mycobacterium tuberculosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are common bacteria that cause Skin infections?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus
  • Streptococcus pyrogenes
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are common bacteria that cause STDs?

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • Treponema pallidium
  • Ureaplasma urealyticum
  • Haemophilus ducreyl
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are common bacteria that cause sinusitis?

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae

- Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are common bacteria that cause Upper respiratory tract infections?

A
  • Streptococcus pyrogenes

- Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are common bacteria that cause UTIs?

A
  • Escherichia coli
  • other enterobacteriacae
  • Staphylococcus saprophyticus
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are methods used in laboratory diagnostics?

A
  • Microscopy
  • Culture
  • Biochemistry
  • Serologic/immunologic diagnostics
  • Molecular/nucleic acid diagnosis
  • Mass Spectrometry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some characteristics of using MALDI-TOF for organism detection?

A
  • Rapid

- uses patterns to recognize organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Time needed to wait for gram stain results?

A

around 24hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When should we conduct antimicrobial susceptibility testing?

A
  1. Clinically significant isolates (properly collected)
  2. Possible resistance to primary therapeutic agents
  3. When standard performance method and interpretive criteria are established
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Is there a need to conduct antimicrobial susceptibility testing for Group A streptococci?

A

No. They are almost always sensitive to the primary therapeutic agent (beta lactams)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) obtained using the agar/broth dilution method?

A

The lowest concentration of an antimicrobial that prevents visible growth of an organism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) obtained using the disk diffusion method?

A

Filter discs contain set concentration of antibiotics

- Diameter (zone of inhibition) corresponds to antimicrobial activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC) obtained using the E-test method?

A

Agar based testing method

  • Graduated antibiotics concentrations layered on plastic strip
  • MIC read where growth intersects the plastic strip (take higher value if in-between)
17
Q

What does MIC/zone of inhibition determine?

A

They help predict therapeutic response

18
Q

What can we expect from a susceptible organism?

A

Appropriate to treat with recommended dosage and agent (likely therapeutic success)

19
Q

What can we expect from an intermediate organism?

A

Organism may be treated in body sites where the drugs are physically concentrated or at high doses (uncertain response)

20
Q

What can we expect from a susceptible organism?

A

Organism not inhibited by usually achievable concentrations of drug with normal dosage schedules (likely therapeutic failure)

21
Q

Does the antibiotic with the lowest MIC on an AST report indicate it as the best treatment option?

A

No. The AST is defined differently for every drug-bug pairing

22
Q

Are MICs of different drugs against a particular organism directly comparable?

A

No.

23
Q

What are some factors that affect the in-vivo activity of antibiotics (not seen in AST in-vitro tests)

A

Immune system
Protein binding of drug
Ability of drug to reach site of infection
Drainage/removal of infected foci
Drug interactions
Some bacteria may only express certain enzymes (that inhibit antibiotic) in-vivo

24
Q

What is the usual timeline of AST reports?

A

Day 1: Gram stain
Day 2: Culture organism
Day 3-4: Identify organism + AST

25
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Organisms capable of damaging host tissue and eliciting a host response (s/sx of infection i.e. inflammation)

26
Q

What are colonizers?

A

Normal flora that do not elicit host response

27
Q

What are contaminants?

A

Organisms collected that do not elicit host response

  • i.e. Blood culture: Staphylococcus epidermis (coagulase negative staphylococcus) and Bacillus spp
  • i.e. Urine: Yeast
28
Q

What are considerations in differentiating Contaminants/Colonizers/pathogens?

A
  1. Usually found at site?
  2. Single (large inoculum) or mixed growth?
  3. Signs of tissue invasion?
  4. S/sx of infection?
  5. Epidemiology and likelihood of causing disease
29
Q

What is an antibiogram?

A

A cumulation of susceptibility results for the hospital/institution of common bacterial isolates
- often done annually/half a yearly (no sooner)

30
Q

What are the uses of an antibiogram?

A
  1. Assess local susceptibility rates
  2. Monitor resistance trends
  3. Guide selection of empiric therapy
31
Q

Guess the bacteria:

  • Gram positive
  • Cocci
  • Aerobic
  • In clusters
  • Coagulase positive
A

Staphylococcus aureus

32
Q

Guess the bacteria:

  • Gram positive
  • Cocci
  • Aerobic
  • In chains
  • Beta hemolytic
A

Group A or B Streptococci

  • Streptococcus pyrogenes
  • Streptococcus agalactiae
33
Q

Guess the bacteria:

  • Gram positive
  • Cocci
  • Aerobic
  • In chains
  • Alpha/Gamma hemolysis (no hemolysis)
A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus viridans group
Enterococcus faecalis
Enterococcus faecium

34
Q

Guess the bacteria:

  • Gram negative
  • Bacilli
  • Anaerobic
A

Bacteriodes fragilis

35
Q

Guess the bacteria:

  • Gram negative
  • Bacilli
  • Aerobic
  • Lactose fermentor
  • Oxidase negative
A

Enterobacteriacae family

36
Q

Guess the bacteria:

  • Gram negative
  • Bacilli
  • Aerobic
  • Non- Lactose fermentor
  • Oxidase negative
A

Acinetobacter

37
Q

Guess the bacteria:

  • Gram negative
  • Bacilli
  • Aerobic
  • Non- Lactose fermentor
  • Oxidase positive
A

Pseudomonas